IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements about Slender Loris
- They are small nocturnal mammals that are arboreal in nature.
- They act as a biological predator of pests in crops and are beneficial to farmers.
- They are native to India and Nepal.
- The Kadavur Slender Loris Sanctuary is located in Kerala.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- Slender Loris are small nocturnal mammals that are arboreal as they spend most of their life on trees.
- Slender lorises spend most of their life in trees, traveling along the tops of branches with slow and precise movements.
- They generally feed on insects, reptiles, plant shoots, and fruit.
- They are listed as endangered in the IUCN list and Schedule I in the Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- They act as a biological predator of pests in crops and benefits farmers.
- It has a wide range of ecological roles to play in the terrestrial ecosystem.
- The survival of the species depends on its habitat improvement, conservation efforts, and mitigation of threats. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- They are native to India and Sri Lanka.
- They are found in tropical rainforests, scrub forests, semi-deciduous forests, and swamps. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- Tamil Nadu is set to host India’s first ever Slender Loris Sanctuary. Named Kadavur Slender Loris Sanctuary, it will span across 11,806 hectares in Karur and Dindigul districts, covering areas of Kadavur taluk in Karur and, Dindigul East, Vedasandur and Natham taluks in Dindigul.
- The government notified ‘Kadavur slender loris sanctuary’ under Section 26 (A)(1)(b) of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- It is the first Slender Loris Sanctuary in India. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- Slender Loris are small nocturnal mammals that are arboreal as they spend most of their life on trees.
- Slender lorises spend most of their life in trees, traveling along the tops of branches with slow and precise movements.
- They generally feed on insects, reptiles, plant shoots, and fruit.
- They are listed as endangered in the IUCN list and Schedule I in the Wildlife (Protection) Act of India, 1972. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- They act as a biological predator of pests in crops and benefits farmers.
- It has a wide range of ecological roles to play in the terrestrial ecosystem.
- The survival of the species depends on its habitat improvement, conservation efforts, and mitigation of threats. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- They are native to India and Sri Lanka.
- They are found in tropical rainforests, scrub forests, semi-deciduous forests, and swamps. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- Tamil Nadu is set to host India’s first ever Slender Loris Sanctuary. Named Kadavur Slender Loris Sanctuary, it will span across 11,806 hectares in Karur and Dindigul districts, covering areas of Kadavur taluk in Karur and, Dindigul East, Vedasandur and Natham taluks in Dindigul.
- The government notified ‘Kadavur slender loris sanctuary’ under Section 26 (A)(1)(b) of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- It is the first Slender Loris Sanctuary in India. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements about the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve
- It is located at the southernmost end of the Eastern Ghats.
- Shendurney and Peppara wildlife sanctuaries form part of the reserve.
- It is home to Kani tribes which resides in Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is located at the southernmost end of the Western Ghats.
- It covers 3,500 km2 and encompasses tropical forest ecosystems that fall within the Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari districts of Tamil Nadu and the Thiruvananthapuram and Kollam districts of Kerala, Southern India.
- It has peaks reaching 1,868 m above sea level.
- It consists mostly of tropical forest, the site is home to 2,254 species of higher plants including about 400 that are endemic.
- It is also a unique genetic reservoir of cultivated plants, in particular cardamom, jamune, nutmeg, pepper, and plantain.
- It hosts one of the most diverse ecosystems in peninsular India and constitutes an important biogeographical ‘hot spot’ within the Western Ghats. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Shendurney, Neyyar, and Peppara wildlife sanctuaries form part of the reserve.
- The Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve also forms part of the reserve. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is home to Kani tribes from both Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is located at the southernmost end of the Western Ghats.
- It covers 3,500 km2 and encompasses tropical forest ecosystems that fall within the Tirunelveli and Kanyakumari districts of Tamil Nadu and the Thiruvananthapuram and Kollam districts of Kerala, Southern India.
- It has peaks reaching 1,868 m above sea level.
- It consists mostly of tropical forest, the site is home to 2,254 species of higher plants including about 400 that are endemic.
- It is also a unique genetic reservoir of cultivated plants, in particular cardamom, jamune, nutmeg, pepper, and plantain.
- It hosts one of the most diverse ecosystems in peninsular India and constitutes an important biogeographical ‘hot spot’ within the Western Ghats. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Shendurney, Neyyar, and Peppara wildlife sanctuaries form part of the reserve.
- The Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve also forms part of the reserve. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is home to Kani tribes from both Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements about the Keibul Lamjao National Park
- It is located in the Indian state of Mizoram.
- It is the only floating national park in the world.
- It is the natural habitat of the Sangai Deer.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is the only floating park in the world, located in North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.
- The national park is characterized by floating decomposed plant material locally called phumdi. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It was created in 1966 as a wildlife sanctuary to preserve the natural habitat of the endangered Sangai/Brow antlered deer/Dancing Deer.
- Sangai, Brow antlered deer, Dancing Deer is an endemic species, found only in Manipur
- Sangai is a medium-sized deer, with uniquely distinctive antlers, with extremely long brow tine, which forms the main beam.
- It is the state animal of Manipur
- It is protected under the Schedule-1 of the WPA, 1972
- It is listed as endangered on the IUCN list.
- In 1977, it was gazetted as a national park. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- The Keibul Lamjao National Park is a national park in the Bishnupur district of the state of Manipur in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is the only floating park in the world, located in North East India, and an integral part of Loktak Lake.
- The national park is characterized by floating decomposed plant material locally called phumdi. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It was created in 1966 as a wildlife sanctuary to preserve the natural habitat of the endangered Sangai/Brow antlered deer/Dancing Deer.
- Sangai, Brow antlered deer, Dancing Deer is an endemic species, found only in Manipur
- Sangai is a medium-sized deer, with uniquely distinctive antlers, with extremely long brow tine, which forms the main beam.
- It is the state animal of Manipur
- It is protected under the Schedule-1 of the WPA, 1972
- It is listed as endangered on the IUCN list.
- In 1977, it was gazetted as a national park. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following pairs
Wildlife/Bird Sanctuaries State 1. Kole Bird Sanctuary Kerala 2. Ballavpur Wildlife Sanctuary Haryana 3. Karikili Bird Sanctuary Tamil Nadu 4. Tal Chhapar Sanctuary Maharashtra How many pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
Wildlife/Bird Sanctuaries State 1. Kole Bird Sanctuary Kerala 2. Ballavpur Wildlife Sanctuary West Bengal 3. Karikili Bird Sanctuary Tamil Nadu 4. Tal Chhapar Sanctuary Rajasthan Hence option b is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
Wildlife/Bird Sanctuaries State 1. Kole Bird Sanctuary Kerala 2. Ballavpur Wildlife Sanctuary West Bengal 3. Karikili Bird Sanctuary Tamil Nadu 4. Tal Chhapar Sanctuary Rajasthan Hence option b is correct.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements about the Kutia Kondh tribe
- They are manly dependent on shifting cultivation.
- They have nuclear families and are patriarchal in character.
- Dhap and Salap Baja are their important musical instruments of the tribe
- The Burlang Yatra is their traditional festival.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Kutia Kondha is one of the primitive sections of the Kondha tribe.
- The Kondhas who live in hilltops and valleys are known as Kutia Kondha.
- Whereas those who live on high land and near the streams are called Dongria Kondha and kondhas who are residing in the plain area are known as Desia Kondh.
- Kutia Kondhs are mostly dependent on shifting cultivation, cultivation of minor agriculture products, and collection of NTFP.
- The Kutia kondhs are residing mostly in Langigarh, Thrampur, M.Rampur, and Bhawanipatna block of Kalahandi.
- They practice shifting cultivation, cultivating varieties of crops, and during lean periods collecting foodstuff from the forest.
- Minor forest products also fetch them cash income. Hence statement 1 is correct .
- The social organization is very strong and unified. The family is mostly nuclear and patriarchal in character. Social unity and cooperation are remarkable. Women play a bigger role in the family economy.
- They are mostly nature worshippers.
- Jani is the full-time magic religious specialist of the village.
- In the pre-independence era, they were practicing human sacrifice but now day as a substitute for buffalo and sheep sacrifice.
- The practice of youth dormitory is gradually losing its importance but is still prevalent among Kutia Kondh villages. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Dhap and Salap Baja are the important musical instruments of Kutia Kondhs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- A movement built around the Burlang Yatra, a traditional festival of the ‘Kutia Kondh tribe’ of Odisha, has involved traditional millet crops in reviving their ancient food palate.
- In collaboration with Millet Network of India (MINI), a forum founded for the promotion of millet, NIRMAN started celebrating the Burlang Yatra on a large scale to increase awareness about millet. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Kutia Kondha is one of the primitive sections of the Kondha tribe.
- The Kondhas who live in hilltops and valleys are known as Kutia Kondha.
- Whereas those who live on high land and near the streams are called Dongria Kondha and kondhas who are residing in the plain area are known as Desia Kondh.
- Kutia Kondhs are mostly dependent on shifting cultivation, cultivation of minor agriculture products, and collection of NTFP.
- The Kutia kondhs are residing mostly in Langigarh, Thrampur, M.Rampur, and Bhawanipatna block of Kalahandi.
- They practice shifting cultivation, cultivating varieties of crops, and during lean periods collecting foodstuff from the forest.
- Minor forest products also fetch them cash income. Hence statement 1 is correct .
- The social organization is very strong and unified. The family is mostly nuclear and patriarchal in character. Social unity and cooperation are remarkable. Women play a bigger role in the family economy.
- They are mostly nature worshippers.
- Jani is the full-time magic religious specialist of the village.
- In the pre-independence era, they were practicing human sacrifice but now day as a substitute for buffalo and sheep sacrifice.
- The practice of youth dormitory is gradually losing its importance but is still prevalent among Kutia Kondh villages. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Dhap and Salap Baja are the important musical instruments of Kutia Kondhs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- A movement built around the Burlang Yatra, a traditional festival of the ‘Kutia Kondh tribe’ of Odisha, has involved traditional millet crops in reviving their ancient food palate.
- In collaboration with Millet Network of India (MINI), a forum founded for the promotion of millet, NIRMAN started celebrating the Burlang Yatra on a large scale to increase awareness about millet. Hence statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements
- Project Tiger is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change.
- National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body formed under the Environment Protection Act of 1986.
- The national tiger census in India is conducted every four years.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Project Tiger is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change launched in 1973 to provide central assistance to the tiger States for tiger conservation in designated tiger reserves in India. The project is administered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). Hence statement 1 is correct.
- National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change.
- It was established in 2005 following the recommendations of the Tiger Task Force.
- It was constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and functions assigned to it. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- The national tiger census is done every four years by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in partnership with state forest departments, conservation NGOs, and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII). The census uses a double sampling method based on ground-based surveys and images from camera traps.
- India’s Tiger Census 2022, revealed a 6.7% increase in the past four years.
- The tiger census covered forested habitats in 20 states of India. Camera traps were set up at 32,588 locations and generated 47,081,881 photographs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Project Tiger is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change launched in 1973 to provide central assistance to the tiger States for tiger conservation in designated tiger reserves in India. The project is administered by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). Hence statement 1 is correct.
- National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change.
- It was established in 2005 following the recommendations of the Tiger Task Force.
- It was constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006, for strengthening tiger conservation, as per powers and functions assigned to it. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- The national tiger census is done every four years by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in partnership with state forest departments, conservation NGOs, and the Wildlife Institute of India (WII). The census uses a double sampling method based on ground-based surveys and images from camera traps.
- India’s Tiger Census 2022, revealed a 6.7% increase in the past four years.
- The tiger census covered forested habitats in 20 states of India. Camera traps were set up at 32,588 locations and generated 47,081,881 photographs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements about the Cheetah reintroduction in India
- Asiatic Cheetahs are chosen for reintroduction as they have the highest genetic variation compared to African Cheetahs.
- Cheetahs are the only large carnivorethat went extinct in India
- The Kuno Palpur National Park (KNP)in Madhya Pradesh was chosen for the reintroduction as it is a suitable habitat with having adequate prey base.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- The Cheetah reintroduction in India helps in the in-situ conservation of species and benefits the entire ecosystem
- African Cheetahs are chosen as they have the highest genetic variation compared to Asiatic Cheetahs.
- The genetic variation is essential for a founding population stock, which is found in African cheetahs.
- Asiatic cheetahs found in Iran are categorised as critically endangered.
- African cheetahs have been determined to be the ancestors of all other Cheetahs. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Cheetah (Acinonyx Jubatus Venaticus) originates from Sanskrit and means ‘the spotted one’.
- The Cheetah is the fastest land animal in the world.
- Its historical range includes the majority of Sub-Saharan Africa and extends eastward to India.
- It is the only large carnivore that went ‘Extinct’ in India due to overhunting and habitat loss.
- The last cheetah died in the Koriya district of present-day Chhattisgarh in 1947 and the species was declared extinct in 1952. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The Kuno Palpur National Park (KNP)in Madhya Pradesh was chosen for the reintroduction as it is a suitable habitat with having adequate prey base.
- It is devoid of human settlement as the villages have been completely relocated from within the park.
- It enables the coexistence of the four big cats found in India – the tiger, lion, leopard, and cheetah, as they have in the past. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- The Cheetah reintroduction in India helps in the in-situ conservation of species and benefits the entire ecosystem
- African Cheetahs are chosen as they have the highest genetic variation compared to Asiatic Cheetahs.
- The genetic variation is essential for a founding population stock, which is found in African cheetahs.
- Asiatic cheetahs found in Iran are categorised as critically endangered.
- African cheetahs have been determined to be the ancestors of all other Cheetahs. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Cheetah (Acinonyx Jubatus Venaticus) originates from Sanskrit and means ‘the spotted one’.
- The Cheetah is the fastest land animal in the world.
- Its historical range includes the majority of Sub-Saharan Africa and extends eastward to India.
- It is the only large carnivore that went ‘Extinct’ in India due to overhunting and habitat loss.
- The last cheetah died in the Koriya district of present-day Chhattisgarh in 1947 and the species was declared extinct in 1952. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The Kuno Palpur National Park (KNP)in Madhya Pradesh was chosen for the reintroduction as it is a suitable habitat with having adequate prey base.
- It is devoid of human settlement as the villages have been completely relocated from within the park.
- It enables the coexistence of the four big cats found in India – the tiger, lion, leopard, and cheetah, as they have in the past. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements about the International Conference on Human-Wildlife Conflict and Coexistence
- It was organized by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO),and the UN Development Programme.
- It facilitated dialogue, peer-to-peer learning, and shared understandingabout solutions to human-animal conflicts.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Human-animal conflict refers to situations where human activities, such as agriculture, infrastructure development, or resource extraction, come into conflict with wild animals, leading to negative outcomes for both humans and animals.
- Human-wildlife conflicts across the world are a major challenge to the conservation of species, making coexistence with nature difficult and hindering biodiversity protection.
- Conflict-related killing affects more than 75% of the world’s wild cat species, according to the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- The Conference on Human-Wildlife Conflict and Coexistence will provide a platform for experts from the fields of “ecology, animal behaviour, psychology, law, conflict analysis, mediation, peacebuilding, international development, economics, anthropology, and others, to understand human-wildlife conflict through various viewpoints, learn from each other, and build new links and collaborations.
- The International Conference on Human-Wildlife Conflict and Coexistence was organized by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the UN Development Programme, and several other organizations together. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The conference facilitates dialogue and peer-to-peer learning across sectors and actors on the topic of partnerships and collaboration across people and institutions working on human-wildlife conflict.
- It generates an interdisciplinary and shared understanding of the latest insights, technologies, methods, ideas, and information from the field of human-wildlife conflict, coexistence, and interactions.
- It helps in mainstreaming human-wildlife conflict is one of the top global priorities in biodiversity conservation and the Sustainable Development Goals for the next decade, catalysing opportunities for working together on national, regional, or global policies and initiatives. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Human-animal conflict refers to situations where human activities, such as agriculture, infrastructure development, or resource extraction, come into conflict with wild animals, leading to negative outcomes for both humans and animals.
- Human-wildlife conflicts across the world are a major challenge to the conservation of species, making coexistence with nature difficult and hindering biodiversity protection.
- Conflict-related killing affects more than 75% of the world’s wild cat species, according to the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
- The Conference on Human-Wildlife Conflict and Coexistence will provide a platform for experts from the fields of “ecology, animal behaviour, psychology, law, conflict analysis, mediation, peacebuilding, international development, economics, anthropology, and others, to understand human-wildlife conflict through various viewpoints, learn from each other, and build new links and collaborations.
- The International Conference on Human-Wildlife Conflict and Coexistence was organized by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), the UN Development Programme, and several other organizations together. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The conference facilitates dialogue and peer-to-peer learning across sectors and actors on the topic of partnerships and collaboration across people and institutions working on human-wildlife conflict.
- It generates an interdisciplinary and shared understanding of the latest insights, technologies, methods, ideas, and information from the field of human-wildlife conflict, coexistence, and interactions.
- It helps in mainstreaming human-wildlife conflict is one of the top global priorities in biodiversity conservation and the Sustainable Development Goals for the next decade, catalysing opportunities for working together on national, regional, or global policies and initiatives. Hence statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
‘Pink Headed Duck’ is classified under which type of conservation status by IUCN?
Correct
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- The pink-headed duck (Rhodonessa caryophyllacea) is a large diving duck that was once found in parts of the Gangetic plains of India, parts of Maharashtra, Bangladesh and in the riverine swamps of Myanmar but feared extinct since the 1950s. Numerous searches have failed to provide any proof of continued existence. It has been suggested that it may exist in the inaccessible swamp regions of northern Myanmar and some sight reports from that region have led to its status being declared as “Critically Endangered” rather than extinct.
Incorrect
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- The pink-headed duck (Rhodonessa caryophyllacea) is a large diving duck that was once found in parts of the Gangetic plains of India, parts of Maharashtra, Bangladesh and in the riverine swamps of Myanmar but feared extinct since the 1950s. Numerous searches have failed to provide any proof of continued existence. It has been suggested that it may exist in the inaccessible swamp regions of northern Myanmar and some sight reports from that region have led to its status being declared as “Critically Endangered” rather than extinct.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements about the Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary
- It is an example of a riverine ecosystem.
- It is an Important Bird Area (IBA) and a Ramsar Site.
- It is regarded as the Pakshi Kashi of Karnataka.
- It is located on the banks of River Cauvery.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (d)
Explanation:
- River ecosystems are flowing waters that drain the landscape, and include the biotic (living) interactions amongst plants, animals, and micro-organisms, as well as abiotic (nonliving) physical and chemical interactions of its many parts.
- The Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary is an example of a riverine ecosystem.
- It is declared a sanctuary in 1940 at the behest of the famous ornithologist Dr. Salim Ali
- There are no extremities of temperature at Ranganathittu Sanctuary.
- The temperature stays between the 23-29°C range for most parts of the year. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Ranganathittu bird sanctuary supports more than 1% of the world’s population of spot-billed pelicans – as against a global population of nearly 17,000.
- Similarly, it supports a high population of painted storks and mugger crocodiles besides other species of fish.
- Therefore, the six islands and the water surrounding them would be part of the Ramsar site. The sanctuary has been designated as a protected Ramsar site since 2022.
- It is an Important Bird Area (IBA) that is identified by Birdlife International and the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is known as the Pakshi Kashi of Karnataka, Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary is situated in Srirangapatna of Mandya district, Karnataka.
- It has roughly recorded 170 bird species of birds including the painted stork, Asian openbill stork, common spoonbill, woolly-necked stork, black-headed ibis, and lesser whistling duck. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It is the largest bird sanctuary in the state with 40 acres in area and comprises six islets on the banks of the Kaveri River. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (d)
Explanation:
- River ecosystems are flowing waters that drain the landscape, and include the biotic (living) interactions amongst plants, animals, and micro-organisms, as well as abiotic (nonliving) physical and chemical interactions of its many parts.
- The Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary is an example of a riverine ecosystem.
- It is declared a sanctuary in 1940 at the behest of the famous ornithologist Dr. Salim Ali
- There are no extremities of temperature at Ranganathittu Sanctuary.
- The temperature stays between the 23-29°C range for most parts of the year. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Ranganathittu bird sanctuary supports more than 1% of the world’s population of spot-billed pelicans – as against a global population of nearly 17,000.
- Similarly, it supports a high population of painted storks and mugger crocodiles besides other species of fish.
- Therefore, the six islands and the water surrounding them would be part of the Ramsar site. The sanctuary has been designated as a protected Ramsar site since 2022.
- It is an Important Bird Area (IBA) that is identified by Birdlife International and the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is known as the Pakshi Kashi of Karnataka, Ranganathittu Bird Sanctuary is situated in Srirangapatna of Mandya district, Karnataka.
- It has roughly recorded 170 bird species of birds including the painted stork, Asian openbill stork, common spoonbill, woolly-necked stork, black-headed ibis, and lesser whistling duck. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It is the largest bird sanctuary in the state with 40 acres in area and comprises six islets on the banks of the Kaveri River. Hence statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
‘Blue Duke’ has been received declared the state butterfly of which Indian State?
Correct
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Blue Duke is also called Bassarona Durga.
- It was first discovered in the State in 1858.
- It is found at an altitude below 1,500 metres in the Himalayas and in various districts of West Sikkim.
- It is protected in Schedule 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. It is declared the state butterfly of Sikkim.
- It represents Sikkim with its two unique colours:
- Blue represents the sky.
- White depicting snow-clad mountains of the Himalayas.
Incorrect
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Blue Duke is also called Bassarona Durga.
- It was first discovered in the State in 1858.
- It is found at an altitude below 1,500 metres in the Himalayas and in various districts of West Sikkim.
- It is protected in Schedule 2 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. It is declared the state butterfly of Sikkim.
- It represents Sikkim with its two unique colours:
- Blue represents the sky.
- White depicting snow-clad mountains of the Himalayas.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements
- It is the state tree of Rajasthan.
- Its bark is used to cure various medical ailments.
- It is the most dominant tree in western Rajasthan
- Some documents suggest that the it’s bark was used as flour during the Famine of Rajputana in 1869
Identify the tree mentioned in the above statements?
Correct
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- The scientific name of the Khejri tree is Prosopis Cineraria. In India, it is also known by many other names such as Shami, Khijro, Jhand, Jat, Khar, Kanda, and Jammi depending on the region. In Rajasthan, it is called Khejri or Khejro. It is called Ghaf in the Middle East region.
- Khejri is the most dominant tree in western Rajasthan; and for this exact reason, Khejri is the state tree of Rajasthan. It was declared a state tree in the year 1982-83. Some documents suggest that the bark of Khejri was used as flour during the Famine of Rajputana in 1869. Even today the bark is used in treating many skin conditions like leprosy, boils, and itching. It is used in treating asthma in Ayurveda.
- The flowers of this tree are consumed by pregnant women along with sugar.
- The farmers are happy to have this tree in the field because its root enriches the soil, thereby helping increase the crop yield.
Incorrect
Solution: (b)
Explanation:
- The scientific name of the Khejri tree is Prosopis Cineraria. In India, it is also known by many other names such as Shami, Khijro, Jhand, Jat, Khar, Kanda, and Jammi depending on the region. In Rajasthan, it is called Khejri or Khejro. It is called Ghaf in the Middle East region.
- Khejri is the most dominant tree in western Rajasthan; and for this exact reason, Khejri is the state tree of Rajasthan. It was declared a state tree in the year 1982-83. Some documents suggest that the bark of Khejri was used as flour during the Famine of Rajputana in 1869. Even today the bark is used in treating many skin conditions like leprosy, boils, and itching. It is used in treating asthma in Ayurveda.
- The flowers of this tree are consumed by pregnant women along with sugar.
- The farmers are happy to have this tree in the field because its root enriches the soil, thereby helping increase the crop yield.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements about different species of Abalone Shellfish
- Black Abalones are found in California and Mexico.
- Omani Abalones are found in the Arabian Peninsula.
- Green Ormers are found in the English Channel.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- Abalone is a shellfish species threatened with extinction.
- Abalone species are among the world’s most expensive seafood.
- According to the IUCN, 20 of the world’s 54 (44%) abalone shellfish species are at risk of extinction.
- They face threats like marine heatwaves which have exacerbated abalone diseases worldwide along with unsustainable extraction and poaching along with climate change, disease, algal blooms, and pollution.
- Different species of Abalone Shellfish
- Black Abalones are found in California and Mexico.
- It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN list. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Green Ormers are found in the Arabian Peninsula.
- It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN list. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Omani Abalones are found from the English Channel to Northwest Africa and the Mediterranean.
- It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN list. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- Abalone is a shellfish species threatened with extinction.
- Abalone species are among the world’s most expensive seafood.
- According to the IUCN, 20 of the world’s 54 (44%) abalone shellfish species are at risk of extinction.
- They face threats like marine heatwaves which have exacerbated abalone diseases worldwide along with unsustainable extraction and poaching along with climate change, disease, algal blooms, and pollution.
- Different species of Abalone Shellfish
- Black Abalones are found in California and Mexico.
- It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN list. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Green Ormers are found in the Arabian Peninsula.
- It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN list. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Omani Abalones are found from the English Channel to Northwest Africa and the Mediterranean.
- It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN list. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Recently in news, Noble’s Helen is a
Correct
Solution: (d)
Explanation:
- Noble’s Helen, a swallowtail butterfly disappearing from its previously known ranges from Myanmar and southern China to Vietnam has been recorded for the first time in India.
- It is found in three locations in the Namdapha National Park of Arunachal Pradesh between September 2019 and September 2021.
- It is an extremely rare Noble’s Helen (Papilio noblei) butterfly.
- It is closest to the Papilio antonio from the Philippines and characterised by a much larger dorsal white spot, was once common in the montane forest at moderate elevations in northern Thailand.
Hence option d is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (d)
Explanation:
- Noble’s Helen, a swallowtail butterfly disappearing from its previously known ranges from Myanmar and southern China to Vietnam has been recorded for the first time in India.
- It is found in three locations in the Namdapha National Park of Arunachal Pradesh between September 2019 and September 2021.
- It is an extremely rare Noble’s Helen (Papilio noblei) butterfly.
- It is closest to the Papilio antonio from the Philippines and characterised by a much larger dorsal white spot, was once common in the montane forest at moderate elevations in northern Thailand.
Hence option d is correct.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements about seed banks
- They arerepositories of plants genetic resources that help in research and conservation.
- Doomsday Vaultis the world’s largest seed storage facility.
- Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary is the only seed bank in India.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- Seed banks are important repositories of plant genetic resources.
- They store seeds of different plant varieties, which are conserved to maintain their genetic diversity and preserve their ability to adapt to changing environmental conditions.
- Seed banks also serve as important resources for research, agriculture, and conservation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Svalbard Global Seed Vault or Doomsday Vault is the world’s largest seed storage facility situated in Norway. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- India has established its seed storage facility at Chang La in Ladakh, Jammu, and Kashmir.
- It has been built jointly by the Defence Institute of High-Altitude Research (DIHAR) and the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) in 2010 under the aegis of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- It stores over 5,000 seed accessions.
- A ‘seed bank for native plant species found in theAravallis region is gradually taking shape at a nursery at the Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary, after a few years of efforts at collecting seeds from across Delhi and other states.It is not the only seed bank
- The project, which started in 2015, is being implemented jointly by the Forest Department and the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS).
- The nursery at Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary is growing more than 100 species of native grasses, plants, and trees, and provides saplings for plantation by agencies in the city.
- Asola-Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary covers 32.71 sq. km area on the Southern Delhi Ridge of the Aravalli hill range on the Delhi-Haryana border lies in Southern Delhi as well as northern parts of Faridabad and Gurugram districts of Haryana state.
- It is also part of the Sariska-Delhi Wildlife Corridor, which runs from the Sariska Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan to Delhi Ridge. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- Seed banks are important repositories of plant genetic resources.
- They store seeds of different plant varieties, which are conserved to maintain their genetic diversity and preserve their ability to adapt to changing environmental conditions.
- Seed banks also serve as important resources for research, agriculture, and conservation. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Svalbard Global Seed Vault or Doomsday Vault is the world’s largest seed storage facility situated in Norway. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- India has established its seed storage facility at Chang La in Ladakh, Jammu, and Kashmir.
- It has been built jointly by the Defence Institute of High-Altitude Research (DIHAR) and the National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) in 2010 under the aegis of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- It stores over 5,000 seed accessions.
- A ‘seed bank for native plant species found in theAravallis region is gradually taking shape at a nursery at the Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary, after a few years of efforts at collecting seeds from across Delhi and other states.It is not the only seed bank
- The project, which started in 2015, is being implemented jointly by the Forest Department and the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS).
- The nursery at Asola Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary is growing more than 100 species of native grasses, plants, and trees, and provides saplings for plantation by agencies in the city.
- Asola-Bhatti Wildlife Sanctuary covers 32.71 sq. km area on the Southern Delhi Ridge of the Aravalli hill range on the Delhi-Haryana border lies in Southern Delhi as well as northern parts of Faridabad and Gurugram districts of Haryana state.
- It is also part of the Sariska-Delhi Wildlife Corridor, which runs from the Sariska Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan to Delhi Ridge. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Sedge Warbler, Red Billed Quelea and Northern Pintail are names of
Correct
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- The Sedge Warbler is a medium-sized warbler of marshes, reedbeds, and wetlands that can be spotted singing from perches on reeds and willow bushes.
- The male sedge warbler introduces random phrases into its repertoire which is known for mimicking.
- The male warbler never sings the same song twice; he attracts more mates the more phrases his song has.
- These are insectivores in nature.
- It is listed as the least concern on the IUCN Red List.
- Red-Billed Quelea is a small, short-tailed weaver with a mottled back and a yellow or reddish bill.
- They are the world’s most populous bird species which are also known as ‘feathered locusts’.
- Large flocks are resident and nomadic in arid savanna, grassland, and cultivated areas.
- It is listed as the least concern on the IUCN Red List.
- Pintail ducks, also known as northern pintails, are a type of migratory waterfowl that are found on every continent except Antarctica.
- These elegant birds are known for their long, slender necks and distinctive tail feathers, which give them their name.
Hence option c is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- The Sedge Warbler is a medium-sized warbler of marshes, reedbeds, and wetlands that can be spotted singing from perches on reeds and willow bushes.
- The male sedge warbler introduces random phrases into its repertoire which is known for mimicking.
- The male warbler never sings the same song twice; he attracts more mates the more phrases his song has.
- These are insectivores in nature.
- It is listed as the least concern on the IUCN Red List.
- Red-Billed Quelea is a small, short-tailed weaver with a mottled back and a yellow or reddish bill.
- They are the world’s most populous bird species which are also known as ‘feathered locusts’.
- Large flocks are resident and nomadic in arid savanna, grassland, and cultivated areas.
- It is listed as the least concern on the IUCN Red List.
- Pintail ducks, also known as northern pintails, are a type of migratory waterfowl that are found on every continent except Antarctica.
- These elegant birds are known for their long, slender necks and distinctive tail feathers, which give them their name.
Hence option c is correct.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements about the Great Indian Bustard
- It is the state bird of Maharashtra.
- It is considered the flagship grassland species.
- It is found only in Maharashtra and Gujarat.
- It is protected under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- The Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps), the state bird of Rajasthan, is considered India’s most critically endangered bird. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is considered the flagship grassland species, as it represents the health of the grassland ecology. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small populations occur in Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- It is protected under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
- It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List and Appendix 1 of the CITES. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- The Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps), the state bird of Rajasthan, is considered India’s most critically endangered bird. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is considered the flagship grassland species, as it represents the health of the grassland ecology. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small populations occur in Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- It is protected under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
- It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List and Appendix 1 of the CITES. Hence statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements about the Global Snow Leopard Ecosystem Protection Program (GSLEP)
- It is a high-level inter-governmental alliance of all the 12 snow leopard range countries.
- Its secretariat is based in Bishkek.
- Russia and China are part of this programme.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (d)
Explanation:
- The GSLEP is a first-of-its-kind intergovernmental alliance for the conservation of the snow leopard and its unique ecosystem.
- GSLEP was created in 2013 when officials, politicians, and conservationists arrived at a common conservation strategy enshrined in the Bishkek Declaration (2013) to cooperate in the conservation of this species and its habitat.
- It is led by the environment ministers of 12 countries in Asia that form the home range of the snow leopard. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The GSLEP Program’s secretariat is based in Bishkek and is hosted by the Ministry of Natural Resources, Ecology, and Technical Supervision of the Kyrgyz Republic. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The countries part of GSLEP are Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
- The total range spans two million square kilometres. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (d)
Explanation:
- The GSLEP is a first-of-its-kind intergovernmental alliance for the conservation of the snow leopard and its unique ecosystem.
- GSLEP was created in 2013 when officials, politicians, and conservationists arrived at a common conservation strategy enshrined in the Bishkek Declaration (2013) to cooperate in the conservation of this species and its habitat.
- It is led by the environment ministers of 12 countries in Asia that form the home range of the snow leopard. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The GSLEP Program’s secretariat is based in Bishkek and is hosted by the Ministry of Natural Resources, Ecology, and Technical Supervision of the Kyrgyz Republic. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The countries part of GSLEP are Afghanistan, Bhutan, China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Mongolia, Nepal, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan.
- The total range spans two million square kilometres. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following statements about Binturong
- They are catlike omnivores of the civet family.
- They are nocturnal in nature.
- They are listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- Binturong, (Arctictis binturong), also called bear cat or cat bear, catlike omnivore of the civet family (Viverridae), found in dense forests of Southeast Asia.
- It has long shaggy hair, tufted ears, and a long, bushy, prehensile tail. The colour generally is black with a sprinkling of whitish hairs.
- Its range extends from Nepal, India, and Bhutan southward to the Indonesian islands of Sumatra and Java and eastward to Borneo. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The binturong is principally nocturnal and crepuscular (that is, active during twilight).
- It is found most often among trees, using its prehensile tail as an aid in climbing. It feeds mainly on fruit, such as figs, but it also takes eggs and small animals.
- In some areas, binturongs are tamed and have been reported as affectionate pets. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- They are listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and Appendix II of the CITES. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution: (a)
Explanation:
- Binturong, (Arctictis binturong), also called bear cat or cat bear, catlike omnivore of the civet family (Viverridae), found in dense forests of Southeast Asia.
- It has long shaggy hair, tufted ears, and a long, bushy, prehensile tail. The colour generally is black with a sprinkling of whitish hairs.
- Its range extends from Nepal, India, and Bhutan southward to the Indonesian islands of Sumatra and Java and eastward to Borneo. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The binturong is principally nocturnal and crepuscular (that is, active during twilight).
- It is found most often among trees, using its prehensile tail as an aid in climbing. It feeds mainly on fruit, such as figs, but it also takes eggs and small animals.
- In some areas, binturongs are tamed and have been reported as affectionate pets. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- They are listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List and Appendix II of the CITES. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements about the IUCN status of different kinds of rhinos
- The Greater One-horned Rhino is listed as vulnerable.
- The Sumatran Rhino is listed as endangered.
- The Javan Rhino is listed as vulnerable.
- The Black African Rhino is listed as critically endangered.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- There arefive species of rhino – white and black rhinos in Africa, and the greater one-horned, Javan, and Sumatran rhino species in Asia.
- The Greater One-horned Rhino is listed as vulnerable.
- Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India.
- Also known as the Indian rhino, it is the largest of the rhino species.
- It is identified by a single black horn and a grey-brown hide with skin folds.
- They primarily graze, with a diet consisting almost entirely of grasses as well as leaves, branches of shrubs and trees, fruit, and aquatic plants. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Sumatran Rhino is listed as critically endangered. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- The Javan Rhino is listed as vulnerable. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The Black African Rhino is listed as critically endangered. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- There arefive species of rhino – white and black rhinos in Africa, and the greater one-horned, Javan, and Sumatran rhino species in Asia.
- The Greater One-horned Rhino is listed as vulnerable.
- Only the Great One-Horned Rhino is found in India.
- Also known as the Indian rhino, it is the largest of the rhino species.
- It is identified by a single black horn and a grey-brown hide with skin folds.
- They primarily graze, with a diet consisting almost entirely of grasses as well as leaves, branches of shrubs and trees, fruit, and aquatic plants. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The Sumatran Rhino is listed as critically endangered. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- The Javan Rhino is listed as vulnerable. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The Black African Rhino is listed as critically endangered. Hence statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements about Dare to Dream Scheme
- It is launched by the DRDO to bring together innovators, entrepreneurs and start-ups for innovative ideas in the field of Defence and Aerospace.
- The start-ups should be founded by Indians and recognised by DPIIT.
- The selected individual/company are funded through Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Dare to Dream Scheme
- It is launched by the DRDO to bring together innovators, entrepreneurs, individuals above 18 years and start-ups for innovative ideas in the field of Defence and Aerospace. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The start-ups should be founded by Indians and recognised by DPIIT. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The selection criteria for evaluation of the entries are completeness of proposal, scientific soundness, design completeness, merit, technological readiness level achieved and innovation.
- The selected individual/company are getting benefitted as DRDO supports them to realise awarded ideas into Prototype through Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Source: CLICK HERE
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Dare to Dream Scheme
- It is launched by the DRDO to bring together innovators, entrepreneurs, individuals above 18 years and start-ups for innovative ideas in the field of Defence and Aerospace. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The start-ups should be founded by Indians and recognised by DPIIT. Hence statement 2 is correct
- The selection criteria for evaluation of the entries are completeness of proposal, scientific soundness, design completeness, merit, technological readiness level achieved and innovation.
- The selected individual/company are getting benefitted as DRDO supports them to realise awarded ideas into Prototype through Technology Development Fund (TDF) scheme. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Source: CLICK HERE
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements about Pralay Missile
- Pralay’ is India’s first conventional quasi-ballistic missile
- The range of canisterised Pralay missile is between 150 to 500 kilometres.
- It is powered with a solid propellant rocket motor.
Choose the incorrect statements:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Pralay Missile
- The missile will be India’s first tactical quasi-ballistic missile. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Pralay, along with the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile, will form the crux of India’s planned Rocket Force, a concept that was envisaged by former Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), the late General Bipin Rawat.
- The Pralay missile project was sanctioned in 2015 and is a derivative of the Prahaar missile programme, which was first tested in 2011.
- The canisterised Pralay missile, with a range of 150-500 kilometres, has been developed according to the specifications and requirement of the Army. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is powered with a solid propellant rocket motor. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The Indian missile can be compared to China’s Dong Feng 12 and the Russian Iskander missile that has been used in the ongoing war with Ukraine.
- What makes Pralay deadly is that it is a quasi-ballistic weapon, which means that while it has a low trajectory and is largely ballistic, it can manoeuvre in flight.
- Incidentally, both China and Pakistan have tactical ballistic missiles.
Source: CLICK HERE
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Pralay Missile
- The missile will be India’s first tactical quasi-ballistic missile. Hence statement 1 is correct
- Pralay, along with the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile, will form the crux of India’s planned Rocket Force, a concept that was envisaged by former Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), the late General Bipin Rawat.
- The Pralay missile project was sanctioned in 2015 and is a derivative of the Prahaar missile programme, which was first tested in 2011.
- The canisterised Pralay missile, with a range of 150-500 kilometres, has been developed according to the specifications and requirement of the Army. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is powered with a solid propellant rocket motor. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The Indian missile can be compared to China’s Dong Feng 12 and the Russian Iskander missile that has been used in the ongoing war with Ukraine.
- What makes Pralay deadly is that it is a quasi-ballistic weapon, which means that while it has a low trajectory and is largely ballistic, it can manoeuvre in flight.
- Incidentally, both China and Pakistan have tactical ballistic missiles.
Source: CLICK HERE
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
With reference to ‘Personality rights’, consider the following statements
- Personality rights refer to the right of a person to protect his/her personality under the right to privacy or property
- Personality rights are governed by statutes like the Trade marks Act 1999 and the Copyright Act 1957
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Personality rights refer to the right of a person to protect his/her personality under the right to privacy or property. These rights are important to celebrities as their names, photographs or even voices can easily be misused in various advertisements by different companies to boost their sales.
- Therefore, it is necessary for renowned personalities/celebrities to register their names to save their personality rights. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Publicity rights are governed by statutes like the Trade marks Act 1999 and the Copyright Act 1957. There is no separate codified law in India dealing with personality or celebrity rights (“Personality Rights”) and the position and development of such rights and laws in India is still at a nascent stage largely governed by judicial pronouncements of courts. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Source: CLICK HERE
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Personality rights refer to the right of a person to protect his/her personality under the right to privacy or property. These rights are important to celebrities as their names, photographs or even voices can easily be misused in various advertisements by different companies to boost their sales.
- Therefore, it is necessary for renowned personalities/celebrities to register their names to save their personality rights. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Publicity rights are governed by statutes like the Trade marks Act 1999 and the Copyright Act 1957. There is no separate codified law in India dealing with personality or celebrity rights (“Personality Rights”) and the position and development of such rights and laws in India is still at a nascent stage largely governed by judicial pronouncements of courts. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Source: CLICK HERE
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘SpaceTech Innovation Network (SpIN)’
- It is India’s first dedicated platform for innovation, curation and venture development for the blooming space entrepreneurial ecosystem
- SpIN innovation challenge was launched to develop solutions in areas like avionics, mapping, disaster management
Select the INCORRECT statement(s)
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- India’s first dedicated platform for innovation, curation and venture development for the blooming space entrepreneurial ecosystem. The SPIN platform would create a level playing field for various stakeholders to collaborate and contribute to the space ecosystem in the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- SpIN has launched its first innovation challenge for developing solutions in areas of maritime and land transportation, urbanization, mapping, and surveying. The selected start-ups and innovators will be able to access both Social Alpha’s and ISRO’s infrastructure and resources as per the prevailing guidelines. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Source: CLICK HERE
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- India’s first dedicated platform for innovation, curation and venture development for the blooming space entrepreneurial ecosystem. The SPIN platform would create a level playing field for various stakeholders to collaborate and contribute to the space ecosystem in the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- SpIN has launched its first innovation challenge for developing solutions in areas of maritime and land transportation, urbanization, mapping, and surveying. The selected start-ups and innovators will be able to access both Social Alpha’s and ISRO’s infrastructure and resources as per the prevailing guidelines. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
Source: CLICK HERE
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
‘Bomb cyclones’ seen in news recently are triggered mostly when
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Storms can form when a mass of low-pressure air meets a high-pressure mass. The air flows from high pressure to low, creating winds. What defines a bomb cyclone is how rapidly the pressure drops in the lowpressure mass — by at least 24 millibars in 24 hours. This quickly increases the pressure difference, or gradient, between the two air masses, making the winds stronger. This process of rapid intensification has a name: bombogenesis.
Source: CLICK HERE
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Storms can form when a mass of low-pressure air meets a high-pressure mass. The air flows from high pressure to low, creating winds. What defines a bomb cyclone is how rapidly the pressure drops in the lowpressure mass — by at least 24 millibars in 24 hours. This quickly increases the pressure difference, or gradient, between the two air masses, making the winds stronger. This process of rapid intensification has a name: bombogenesis.
Source: CLICK HERE
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
If MIND becomes KGLB and ARGUE becomes YPESC, then what will DIAGRAM be in that code?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
MIND = KGLB
Each letter in the word is moved two steps backward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code. So,
DIAGRAM = BGYEPYK.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
MIND = KGLB
Each letter in the word is moved two steps backward to obtain the corresponding letter of the code. So,
DIAGRAM = BGYEPYK.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
In a coding language, the letters of the English alphabet are arranged in such a manner that all the vowels are put in the end and the remaining letters are arranged from the first letter onwards. The rearranged alphabets are used to denote the position occupied by letters in the original alphabets. What is the code of META?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The original and rearranged letter sequences are as shown :
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
BCDFGHJKLMNPQRSTVWXYZAEIOU
Thus, the code for META is QGYB.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
The original and rearranged letter sequences are as shown :
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ
BCDFGHJKLMNPQRSTVWXYZAEIOU
Thus, the code for META is QGYB.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
If a MAN is called GIRL, GIRL is called WOMAN, WOMAN is called BOY, BOY is called BUTLER and BUTLER is called ROGUE, who will serve in a restaurant?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
We all know that who served food in restaurant is called butler and it is given that butler is called rogue, so our answer is Rogue.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
We all know that who served food in restaurant is called butler and it is given that butler is called rogue, so our answer is Rogue.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
In a certain language, WEAK coded as 9%2$ and SKIT is coded as #$7@ then how will WAIT be coded in the same language?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
W → 9
E → %
A → 2
K → $
S → #
I → 7
T → @
So,
WAIT = 927@
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
W → 9
E → %
A → 2
K → $
S → #
I → 7
T → @
So,
WAIT = 927@
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the item that follow. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only
Passage 1
The major ground for rejecting the fusion of political and communal aspirations seems to be the physical dangers to which this exposes the citizens of a country unlike political appeals to class factors, political appeals to communal questions are much more concrete, precise and emotion charged since they involve intimate and personal sentiments. The language issue, for instance, can never be an abstract issue to any citizen in a country relative, say, to the issue of social welfare, poverty eradication, or expansion of educational opportunities.
Politicians in their quest for power can escalate such emotions to a frenzy of ill feeling among the communities. Moreover, members of communal groups and their neighbourhoods are easily identifiable and can become easy targets of attack. The norms of civilised governments cannot allow the rioting, looting and killing, which is a normal consequence of communalism which seeks power. Hence, in one way or other a lid is sought to be put on communal politics.
However, it would be well for political leaders, public administrators and researchers to recognise community based political aspirations for what they are rather than to merely condemn them with value loaded judgement. Clearly it is sufficient for civilised governments to reject communal politics on grounds of the danger to which it exposes the communities which constitute the nation. Efficient policy decision can be formulated only on the basis of a clear recognition of issues.
Why do politicians feel interested in exploiting religion for serving their political ends?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Politicians feel interested in exploiting religions for serving their political ends because religious sentiments are deeply rooted and are highly emotionally charged even at the personal level.
Hence, option c is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Politicians feel interested in exploiting religions for serving their political ends because religious sentiments are deeply rooted and are highly emotionally charged even at the personal level.
Hence, option c is the correct answer.
All the Best
IASbaba