[DAY 13] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a)

Solution (a)

Statement 1	Statement 2
Correct	Incorrect
Till date, there have been 106 amendments of the Constitution of India since it was first enacted in 1950. Given the relatively difficult method of amending the Constitution, the number of amendments appears quite high.	Years 1970-1990 saw the highest number of constitutional amendment as given above.

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

Solution (a)

Solution (a)

Note:

• The Vice-President, like the president, is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election.
• He is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament.
• Thus, this electoral college is different from the electoral college for the election of the President in the following two respects:

1. It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of President, only elected members).
2. It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members of the state legislative assemblies are included).

Solution (c)

Discretionary Powers of the President:

• Constitutionally, the President has a right to be informed of all-important matters and deliberations of the Council of Ministers.
• The Prime Minister is obliged to furnish all the information that the President may call for.
• The President often writes to the Prime Minister and expresses his views on matters confronting the country.
• Besides this, there are at least three situations where the President can exercise the powers using his or her own discretion.

1. The President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to reconsider the decision. In doing this, the President acts on his (or her) own discretion. When the President thinks that the advice has certain flaws or legal lacunae, or that it is not in the best interests of the country, the President can ask the Council to reconsider the decision.
2. The President also has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills (other than Money Bill) passed by the Parliament.
3. The third kind of discretion arises when after an election, no leader has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha. In this situation the President has to decide whom to appoint as the Prime Minister.

In such a situation, the President has to use his own discretion in judging who really may have the support of the majority or who can actually form and run the government.

Solution (c)

Solution (d)

Solution (d)

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

Some of the features of the Constitution termed as “basic” are listed below:

• Supremacy of the Constitution
• Rule of law
• The principle of separation of powers
• The objectives specified in the preamble to the Constitution of India
• Judicial review
• Articles 32 and 226
• Federalism (including financial liberty of states under Articles 282 and 293)
• Secularism
• The sovereign, democratic, republican structure
• Freedom and dignity of the individual
• Unity and integrity of the nation
• The principle of equality, not every feature of equality, but the quintessence of equal justice;
• The “essence” of other fundamental rights in Part III
• The concept of social and economic justice — to build a welfare state: Part IV of the Constitution
• The balance between fundamental rights and directive principles
• The parliamentary system of government
• The principle of free and fair elections
• Limitations upon the amending power conferred by Article 368
• Independence of the judiciary
• Effective access to justice
• Powers of the Supreme Court of India under Articles 32, 136, 141, 142
• Legislation seeking to nullify the awards made in exercise of the judicial power of the state by arbitration tribunals constituted under an act

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

In Waman Rao vs Union of India case, 1981, the Supreme Court adhered to the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ and also further clarified that it would apply to constitutional amendments enacted after April 24, 1973.

Solution (b)

Solution (a)

• Amending the Constitution of India is the process of making changes to the nation’s fundamental law or supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India. This procedure ensures the sanctity of the Constitution of India and keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament of India. It was borrowed from the South African constitution.
• Procedure for amendment of constitution:

• Amendment can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either house of the Parliament.
• The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require the permission of the President.
• The bill must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the house present and voting
• Each house must pass the bill separately. If there is any disagreement, there is no provision for joint sitting of the houses
• If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the constitution, it must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority. But no time frame has been prescribed for this.
• After passage of the bill by both the houses, it is presented to the President for his assent
• The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament
• After the President’s assent, the bill becomes an act.

Solution (a)

The members who are nominated to either House of Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of State including NCT of Delhi and UT of Puducherry are not eligible to be included in the Electoral College.

The Election Commission, in consultation with the Central Government, appoints the Secretary General of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, by rotation, as the Returning Officer. Accordingly, the Secretary General, Rajya Sabha was appointed as the Returning Officer for the recent election to the Office of the President.

Solution (b)

The 69^th amendment to the Constitution of India inserted Article 239AA, which declared the Union Territory of Delhi to be administered by a L-G who works on aid and advice of the elected legislative assembly.

Solution (b)

• In 93rd constitution amendment 2006, the arrangements were made for the reservation of seats for the admission of citizens belonging to schedule caste and schedule tribes and other backward classes in the educational institution. And under the provisions of section 4 of the article 15 of the constitution. Hence option B is correct.

Solution (b)

Note:

PRESIDENT ORDINANCE MAKING POWER:

• He can promulgate the ordinance when the houses or either any house is not in session.
• Circumstances occur where the president thinks it necessary to act without waiting for houses to assemble.
• An ordinance can be retrospective in nature.
• An ordinance rolled out when both the houses are in session is void in nature.
• The parliament has to approve the ordinance within six weeks for its assembly.
• It acts, done and completed under the ordinance before it lapses, remains fully active.
• Unlike the Indian constitution, most of the democratic constitution of the world doesn’t give such ordinance making power to their president.
• It has no connection with the president’s power to proclaim a national emergency.
• The power of the ordinance making is not to be taken as a substitute for the legislative
• Only under special circumstances, ordinance can be rolled out.
• President’s power to roll out ordinance is justiciable on the ground of malafide.

Solution (b)

• Red Sand Boa is an ovoviviparous non-venomous snake. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Ovoviviparous means they produce young ones by means of eggs which are hatched within the body of the parent.
• It is predominantly
• Nocturnal means most active during the night.
• It is found in arid and semi-arid regions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is found in India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, and parts of Bangladesh.
• It has applications in medicine and cosmetics. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It plays a significant role in the ecosystem by maintaining a healthy population between prey and predator.
• It is listed as near threatened in the IUCN List. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
• It is protected under the Appendix II of CITES and Schedule IV of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.

Solution (b)

• Bharat Stage (BS) norms are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of air pollutants from motor vehicles. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They are based on the European emission standardsand are implemented by the Central Pollution Control Board in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The fuel standard in the country is decided by the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change.
• Every newly sold and registered vehicle in India is required to adhere to theBS-VI version of emission regulations. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• In BS-VI fuel, the volume of PM 2.5 ranges from 20 to 40 micrograms per cubic metre whereas in BS-IV fuel it is up to 120 micrograms per cubic metre.
• BS-VI fuel will bring down sulphur content by 5 times from the current BS-IV levels. It has 10 ppm of sulphur as against 50 ppm in BS-IV.

 Note:

• Flex-fuel vehicles (FFV) have engines that can run on flexible fuel – a combination of Petrol/Diesel/Electric and ethanol, which can include up to 100% ethanol.
• Electrified Flex Fuel Vehicle integrates both a Flex Fuel engine and an electric powertrain, offering the dual benefit of higher ethanol use and improved fuel efficiency.

Solution (b)

• There are mainly two schools in Hindu law concerning the law of inheritance – the Mitakshara and the Dayabhaga.
• In the Mitakshara school of inheritance, the property is inherited by the successors only if they were born in the family of the property owners. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• In the Dayabhaga school of inheritance, the property goes to the successors only when the property owner is dead. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Mitakshara school of inheritance is practiced in all of India except in West Bengal and Assam. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• The Dayabhaga school of inheritance is mainly practiced in Assam and West Bengal. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• Under the National Pension System(NPS), a unique Permanent Retirement Account Number (PRAN) is generated and maintained by the Central Recordkeeping Agency (CRA) for individual subscribers. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is being administered and regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) set up under the PFRDA Act, 2013. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Under this system, a Tier-I account is a pension account having restricted withdrawals while Tier-II is a voluntary account that offers liquidity of investments and withdrawals. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Tier-II account is allowed only when there is an active Tier-I account in the name of the subscriber. The contributions accumulate over a period of time till retirement grows with market-linked returns.

Solution (a)

• The deemed-to-be university is declared by the central government on the advice of the University Grants Commission (UGC). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It enjoys the academic status and privileges of a university.
• It can design its own syllabus and courses to prepare the students to foray into diverse fields after the completion of their studies. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Deemed to be universities like other universities have the autonomy of offering various courses and therefore, preparing students for various examinations and awards.

Solution (a)

• The Constitution specifies that six months should not elapse between two parliamentary sessions.
• This provision was borrowed from the Government of India Act of 1935. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• India’s Parliament has no fixed calendar of sittings and the central government determines the date and duration of parliamentary sessions.
• The Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs takes this decision. It currently has ten Ministers, including those for Defence, Home, Finance, Agriculture, Tribal Affairs, Parliamentary Affairs, and Information and Broadcasting. The Law Minister and the Minister of State for External Affairs are special invitees to the Committee. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Note: The Constitution does not use the term “special session”.The term sometimes refers to sessions the government has convened for specific occasions like commemorating parliamentary or national milestones. However, Article 352 (Proclamation of Emergency) of the Constitution does refer to a “special sitting of the House”.

Solution (c)

• Walking leaves are known for their unusual appearance as they look similar to parts of plants such as twigs, bark, or in the case of leaf insects as leaves. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They are part of the Phasmatodea order and are also referred to as “phasmids” or “stick and leaf insects”.
• They feed on plants and typically inhabit densely vegetated areas. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Their natural range extends from islands in the Indian Ocean, across parts of mainland South Asia and Southeast Asia, to Papua New Guinea and Australia in the western Pacific.
• They are also largely nocturnal, resulting in a relative lack of movement during the day that makes locating them quite difficult in the wild.

Solution (b)

The reasons for the declining population of penguins:

• Global warming causing early sea ice melting in Antarctica. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Unstable sea ice causes problems in breeding and raising their offspring as Emperor penguins need stable sea ice to breed and raise their chicks. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Melting ice leads to premature exposure of chicks to water resulting in their drowning.
• The decreasing krill production because of climate change as krill provide food for fish, seals, whales, and penguins. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing (DIKSHA) Platform provides quality e-content for school education in States/UTs. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is an initiative of the Ministry of Education for digital online education. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It has embedded assistive technologies for learners with visual or hearing impairments. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It is yet to integrate personalized adaptive learning (PAL) software to cater to the specific learning needs of students. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
• Personalized Adaptive Learning(PAL) is a software-based approach that will allow each student to have an individualized learning experience over the course of the curriculum based on their unique needs and abilities.

Solution (c)

• Aarogya Maitri Cube is the world’s first disaster hospital that can be airlifted. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It has been developed indigenously as part of India’s Aarogya Maitri initiative to provide essential medical supplies to friendly countries. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It has been developed indigenously under the Project Bharat Health Initiative for Sahyog Hita and Maitri (BHISM).
• It is packed in 72 cubes that contain essential equipment and supplies, such as an operation theatre, a mini-ICU, ventilators, blood test equipment, an X-ray machine, a cooking station, food, water, shelter, a power generator, and more. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation: Let the distance between his house and factory be ‘x’ km.

x/5 – x/6 = 10/60 ( The time difference between the two different speeds)

X = 5 km

Solution (c)

Total distance covered by the car in 10 hours = 50 + 52 + 54 + 56 + 58 + 60 + 62 + 64 + 66 + 68

The sum of ten terms in arithmetic progression whose first number is 50 and last number is 68 is = 10/2 * (50 + 68) =590 km

Therefore, the required result will be 590 km.

Solution (d)

Let 1 boy’s 1 day’s work = x (i.e. efficiency of 1 boy = ‘x’ units/day) and

1 girl’s 1 day’s work = y (i.e. efficiency of 1 girl = ‘y’ units/day).

Then, 9x + 12y = 1/15 ………………І

(9 boys’ & 12 girls’ 1 day’s work)

39x + 72y = 1/3 ………….…ІІ

(39 boys’ & 72 girls’ 1 day’s work).

Multiplying equation І by 6 and then subtracting equation ІІ from it, we get,

x = 1/225.

Putting the value of x in either equation І or equation ІІ will yield

y = 1/450.

So, 20 boys’ and 5 girls’ 1 day’s work

= 20/225 + 5/450

= 1/10.

Since 1/10 part is performed in 1 day.

So, 1 part is performed in 1/(1/10) day,i.e. 10 days.

Solution (c)

Failed candidates in English = (100 – 70) = 30%

Failed candidates in Mathematics = (100 – 80) = 20%

Candidates who fail in both subject = 10% Candidates who only fail in English = 30 – 10 = 20%

Candidates who only fail in Mathematics = 20 – 10 = 10%

Percentage of passed students in both subject

= 100 – (Candidates who only fail in English + Candidates who only fail in Mathematics + Candidates who fail in both subject)

= 100 – (20 + 10 + 10)

= 60%

According to the question,

60% of students = 144

Total students:

= (144/60) × 100

= 240

Solution (b)

Let there be ‘x’ Amoeba in the first generation, i.e. n₁ = x.

So, n₂ = 10x, but only 50% survive,

So, n₂, survived = 10x/2 = 5x.

n₃ = 10(5x), but only 50% survive,

So, n₃, survived = 10(5x)/2 = 25x = 5²x.

Similarly, n₆,_survived = 5^6-1 x = 5⁵x

Now, it’s given that: 5⁵x = 3125

⇒ 3125x = 3125

∴ x = 1.