[DAY 40] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Solution (d)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

• The Mattavilasa Prahasana:
  • Mattavilasa Prahasana, is a short one-act Sanskrit play.
  • It is one of the two great one act plays written by Pallava King Mahendravarman I in the beginning of the seventh century in Tamil Nadu.
  • Mattavilasa Prahasana is a satire that pokes fun at the peculiar aspects of the heretic Kapalika and Pasupata Saivite sects, Buddhists and Jainism.
  • The setting of the play is Kanchipuram, the capital city of the Pallava kingdom in the seventh century.
  • The play revolves around the drunken antics of a Kapalika mendicant, Satyasoma, his woman, Devasoma, and the loss and recovery of their skull-bowl.
  • The act describes a dispute between a drunken Kapali and the Buddhist monk. The inebriated Kapali suspects the Buddhist monk of stealing his begging bowl made from a skull, but after a drawn-out argument it is found to have been taken away by a dog.

Solution (d)

Solution (c)

Solution (a)

Solution (d)

• Hoysala temples:
  • The Hoysaleswara temple (Lord of the Hoysalas) at Halebid in Karnataka was built in dark schist stone by the Hoysala king in 1150.
  • Hoysala temples are sometimes called hybrid or Vesara as their unique style seems neither completely Dravida nor nagara, but somewhere in between.
  • They are easily distinguishable from other medieval temples by their highly original star-like ground-plans and a profusion of decorative carvings.
  • Dedicated to Shiva as Nataraja, the Halebid temple is a double building with a large hall for the mandapa to facilitate music and dance.
  • A Nandi pavilion precedes each building. The tower of the temple here and at nearby Belur fell long ago, and an idea of the temples’ appearance can now only be gleaned from their detailed miniature versions flanking the entrances.
  • From the central square plan cut-out angular projections create the star effect decorated with the most profuse carvings of animals and deities.
  • So intricate is the carving that it is said, for instance, in the bottom-most frieze featuring a continuous procession of hundreds of elephants with their mahouts, no two elephants are in the same pose.

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

The famous Sun Temples in India are –

• Sun Temple at Konark, Odisha
• Martand Sun temple, Kashmir
• Katarmal Sun Temple, Uttarakhand
• Dakshinarkaa temple Gaya, Bihar
• Bhramanya temple, Unao, Madhya Pradesh
• Surya Prahaar temple, Assam
• Suryanar Kovil Temple at Kumbakonam in Tamil Nadu
• Suryanarayana temple at Arasavalli, Andhra Pradesh

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

• The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body established under the National Green Tribunal Act of 2010. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is set up for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
• It has jurisdiction over all civil cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment (including enforcement of any legal right relating to the environment).
• Its chairperson is appointed by the central government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It comprises the Chairperson, the Judicial Members, and the Expert Members. They shall hold office for a term of three years or till the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, and are not eligible for reappointment.
• It is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure 1908 but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
• An appeal against the decision of the NGT lies to the Supreme Court, generally within ninety days from the date of communication. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
• The NGT has five places of sitting, New Delhi is the principal place of sitting, and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata, and Chennai are the other four.
• It deals with civil cases under the seven laws – Public Liability Insurance Act of 1991, the Forest (Conservation) Act of 1980, the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974, the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act of 1977, the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1981, the Environment (Protection) Act of 1986, and the Biological Diversity Act of 2002. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (c)

• Vote-On-Account is a parliamentary approval for withdrawing money from the Consolidated Fund of India from April to June/July or until the new Government presents its full-fledged budget.
• It can be termed an advance grant, interim arrangement, and authorization for the outgoing government to draw the money from the above-said fund and meet short-term expenditures.
• A vote-on-account deals only with the expenditure side of the government’s budget. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Parliament passes a Vote-on-account to meet essential expenditures such as salaries of central government staff, funding of ongoing projects, and other government expenditures.
• A vote-on-account is passed by the Lok Sabha without discussion and is normally valid for two months. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• During election year or when it is anticipated that the main Demands and Appropriation Bill will take longer time than two months, the Vote on Account may be granted for a period exceeding two months.
• A vote-on-account cannot alter direct taxes since they need to be passed through a finance bill. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Criteria evolved by the Government of India to determine the declaration of a language as a Classical language:

• High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community. Hence statement 3 is correct.

The benefits it provides once a language is notified as a Classical language:

• Two major annual international awards for scholars of eminence in classical Indian languages.
• A Centre of Excellence for Studies in Classical Languages is set up.
• The University Grants Commission is requested to create, to start with at least in the Central Universities, a certain number of Professional Chairs for the Classical Languages so declared.

Note: Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).

Solution (c)

Context: A rare and elusive bear, the Tibetan brown bear, has been recently sighted in Sikkim, making it the first confirmed record of the animal being sighted in India.

• The Tibetan Brown Bear is found in Tibet, China, Nepal, and Bhutan. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is also known as the Tibetan blue bear, is one of the rarest subspecies of bears in the world and is rarely sighted in the wild.
• It inhabits alpine forests, meadows, and steppes, close to the tree line. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• They are solitary, but the territories between two Himalayan brown bears have been seen to overlap. They are one of the most terrestrial of the bears.
• It feeds on marmots and alpine vegetation.
• Its sense of smell is much more acute than its hearing and sight. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It has shaggy, dark brown to black fur, a cream-to-cinnamon face, and a white collar that broadens from the shoulders to the chest.
• It has small ears covered with long black fur.
• It has a lifespan of around 20 to 30 years.
• It is listed as least concern on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
• It is protected under Schedule II of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 and Appendix I of the CITES.

Solution (b)

• The FASTags is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly from the customer’s linked prepaid or savings/current account. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables the customer to drive through toll plazas, without stopping for any toll payments.
• The toll fare is directly deducted from the linked account of the customer.
• It can be purchased from any of the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) Member Banks. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• If a FASTag is linked to the prepaid account, then it needs to be recharged/topped up as per the usage of the customer.
• It is vehicle-specific and once it is affixed to a vehicle, it cannot be transferred to another vehicle. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

• The Bhitarkanika National Park is the second-largest mangrove ecosystem in India after Sunderbans, located in the state of Odisha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It houses various species of mangroves spread across its forest region, marshy lands, creeks, etc.
• It is situated on a delta formed by rivers, namely Brahmani, Baitarani, and Dhamra. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Gahirmatha Beach forms the boundary of the park in the east and is the largest colony of Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Bhitarkanika has one of the largest populations of endangered saltwater crocodiles in India.

Solution (d)

• The Panama Canal is an artificial waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean with the Pacific Ocean. It is approximately 80 kilometers long. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is one of the two most strategic artificial waterways in the world, the other being the Suez Canal.
• The canal was built by the United Statesbetween 1904 and 1914, and it was officially opened on August 15, 1914.
• It is owned and administered by the Republic of Panamasince the oversight of the Canal was transferred from the United States to Panama in 1999. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

• Paramyrothecium indicum is a new species of phytopathogenic fungus. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Most of Paramyrothecium are phytopathogens.
• Phytopathogen fungi are responsible for serious plant diseases which might negatively affect crop productivity. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Paramyrothecium leaf spots are a type of fungal disease that can affect a variety of plants.
• Fungi include the yeasts, rusts, smuts, mildews, molds, and mushrooms. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• They are eukaryotic organisms, i.e., their cells contain membrane-bound organelles and clearly defined nuclei.
• Fungi usually reproduce both sexually and asexually.

Solution (c)

• Guru Gobind Singh founded the Sikh warrior community called Khalsa in 1699. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• He introduced the Five Ks, the five articles of faith that Khalsa Sikhs wear at all times. These are Kesh: uncut hair, Kangha: a wooden comb, Kara: an iron or steel bracelet worn on the wrist, Kirpan: a sword, and Kacchera: short breeches.
• He was the 10th and last human Guru of the Sikhs.
• Born as Gobind Rai on December 22, 1666, in Patna, Bihar, Guru Gobind Singh was the son of the ninth Guru of Sikhism, Guru Teg Bahadur.
• He became the spiritual and temporal leader of the Sikhs on November 11, 1675, at the age of nine, following the martyrdom of his father, Guru Tegh Bahadur, at the hands of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in 1675.
• He was engaged in the Battle of Bhangani, the Battle of Nadaun, the Battle of Anandpur, the Battle of Chamkaur, the Battle of Muktsar, and the Battle of Khidrana. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• His birth anniversary is called Guru Gobind Singh Jayanti, and his death anniversary is called Guru Gaddi Diwas.
• His famous literary works are the Benti Chaupai, Jaap Sahib, and the Tav-Prasad Savaiye. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• He further codified Sikh law, wrote martial poetry and music, and was the reputed author of the Sikh work called the Dasam Granth (“Tenth Volume”).

Solution (c)

• The Jagannath Temple is dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of the Hindu deity Vishnu. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is located in Puri, Odisha. It is believed to have been built during the reign of King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva, of the Eastern Ganga dynasty, in the 12th century.
• It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ and is built in the style of Kalinga architecture.
• It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ where, according to Hindu beliefs, the power of ‘Yama’, the god of death, has been nullified in Puri due to the presence of Lord Jagannath.
• Kaḷinga architecture is a style that flourished in the ancient Kalinga previously known as Utkal and in the present-day eastern Indian state of Odisha. The style consists of three distinct types of temples – Rekha Deula, Pidha Deula, and Khakhara Deula. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Ratha Yatra is a Hindu festival associated with Lord Jagannath held at Puri in Odisha. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It commemorates Jagannath’s annual visit to Gundicha Temple via Mausi Maa Temple (aunt’s home) near Balagandi Chaka, Puri.
• The most famous Rath Yatra festival begins on the second day of the bright half of the lunar month of Ashadha (June–July) and lasts for nine days.

Solution (c)

Let Rs. 2 coins and Rs. 5 coins be 6x and 11x respectively

Then, 6x * 2 + (11x/2) * 5 = 790

24x + 55x = 790 * 2

79x = 790 * 2

X = 20

Thus, Rs. 2 coins = 6 * 20 = Rs. 120

Solution (c)

It is given in the question that a container contains 40 litres of milk. Then, it is said that 4 litres of milk was taken out and replaced by water. This process was repeated two more times which means that a total of three times the process was done. Now, after the third time, we have to find out how much milk is remaining in the container. So, let us find the amount of milk remaining step by step, so after every process we will find out the milk to water ratio.

After the first process, that is after replacing 4 litres of milk with 4 litres of water, we get (40 – 4) = 36 litres of milk and 4 litres of water in the container.

So, the milk to water ratio is 36:4 that is 9:1.

For the second process, we have a mixture of milk and water, so we will take out 4 litres of the mixture which has the ratio 9:1, that is it has 9 parts of milk and 1 part of water. So, 4 litres of the mixture contains 3.6 litres of milk and 0.4 litres of water. So, after taking the mixture out and replacing it with 4 litres of water, the remaining amount of milk is (36 – 3.6) = 32.4 litres and the amount of water is (3.6 + 4) = 7.6 litres. So, the milk to water ratio is 32.4:7.6 in the container.

Now for the third process, 4 litres of the mixture is taken out which has the ratio 32.4:7.6, so it contains 3.24 litres of milk and 0.76 litres of water. So, after taking the mixture out and adding 4 litres of water, the amount of milk = (32.4 – 3.24) = 29.16 litres.

Therefore, we get the amount of milk remaining in the container as 29.16 litres.

Solution (d)

A pie chart corresponds to 360 °

Items B, C, D and E correspond to 75 °, 55 °, 80 °, 50 ° respectively on the pie chart.

Angle corresponding to A in the pie chart = 360° – (75 °+ 55 °+ 80 °+ 50 °) = 100°

So, percentage expenditure of the household on item A = (100/360) * 100 = 250/9 %

Solution (b)

Given that N and X are positive integers such that N^N = 2¹⁶⁰ and N² + 2^N is an integral multiple of 2^x
Now we have to find the largest possible value for x
N^N = 2¹⁶⁰
We can rewrite this 2¹⁶⁰ as (2^p)^q
such that 2^p = N = q
pq = 160

We can try by substituting p and q with 2 and 80 respectively
(2²)⁸⁰ = 4⁸⁰
This doesn’t work so we can try by substituting p and q with 4 and 40 respectively
(2⁴)⁴⁰ = 16⁴⁰
This also doesn’t work so now we can substitute p and q with 5 and 32 respectively
Such that (2⁵)³² = 32³²

Now we can say that N = 32
N² + 2^N ⟹ 32² + 2³² = 2^x × k (where k is the integral multiple)
N² + 2^N ⟹ 2¹⁰ + 2³² = 2^x × k since 32² = (2⁵)²
N² + 2^N ⟹ 2¹⁰ (1 + 2²²) = 2^x × k
This (1 + 2²²) is an odd number so the number is going to be 2¹⁰ × multiple of the odd number
Hence the largest power of 2 can be 10 i.e. 2¹⁰
X_max = 10
The largest possible x is 10

The question is “If N and x are positive integers such that N^N = 2¹⁶⁰ and N² + 2^N is an integral multiple of 2^x, then the largest possible x is 10

Hence, the answer is 10

Solution (b)

The sequence is a combination of following two series: (I) 3, 8, 13, 18, 23 and (II) 12, 19, 32, 42, 52 The pattern in (I) has a constant difference of +5 and the pattern in (II) has a constant difference of +10. So, in (II), 19 is wrong and should be replaced by (12+10), i.e., 22.