[DAY 57] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

World Economic Forum (WEF):

• The World Economic Forum is the International Organization for Public- Private Cooperation. The Forum engages the foremost political, business and other leaders of society to shape global, regional and industry agendas.
• It was established in 1971 as a not-for profit foundation and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
• It is independent, impartial and not tied to any special interests.
• The Global Human Capital Index Report- published by World Economic Forum, ranks 130 countries on how well they are developing their human capital on a scale from 0 (worst) to 100 (best) across four thematic dimensions and five distinct age groups to capture the full human capital potential profile of a country. (Hence 1 is correct)
• The Global Gender Gap Report is published by WEF, benchmarks 144 countries on their progress towards gender parity across four thematic dimensions: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment. (Hence 2 is correct)

Fiscal Monitor Report: Launched in 2009, it is also published twice a year by IMF. It surveys and analyses the latest public finance developments and access policies to put public finances on a sustainable footing. Fiscal Monitor Report 2022 emphasises on how fiscal policy can foster economic resilience which allows house and firms to bounce back from present adversity and cope with future challenges. (Hence 3 is incorrect)

External Sector Report: It is published annually by IMF since 2012. External sector reports emphasis on global external developments and provide multilaterally consistent assessments of external positions of the world’s largest economy representing over 90 per cent of the global GDP. (Hence 4 is incorrect)

Solution (d)

• India and Russia have agreed to explore the possibility of accepting each other’s payment cards, RuPay and Mir, for seamless cross-border payments between the two countries. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• The decision was taken during the meeting of the Internal Governmental Commission on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological, and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC), jointly chaired by India’s External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar and Russia’s Deputy Prime Minister Denis Manturov.
• Benefits of Mutual Acceptance: The mutual acceptance of RuPay and Mir cards will facilitate transactions in Indian rupees and Russian rubles, making cross-border payments easier for citizens of both countries. This step is essential to minimize the impact of sanctions imposed on Russia by the West, as current overseas payments are reliant on the SWIFT network.
• Exploring UPI and FPS Interaction: The meeting also explored the possibility of interaction between India’s Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Russia’s Faster Payments System (FPS). This move aims to simplify cross-border payments further and enhance financial connectivity between India and Russia.
• Cross-Border Connectivity with PayNow: The participants discussed the recent launch of cross-border connectivity between UPI and Singapore’s PayNow. This linkage enables faster and cost-efficient digital transfers between India and Singapore, benefiting the Indian diaspora in Singapore, including migrant workers and students. (Hence statement 2 is correct)

Solution (c)

International Monetary Fund

• The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an organization of 189 member countries.
• It stabilizes the global economy through three main functions.
  • First, it monitors global economic conditions and identifies risks.
  • Second, it advises its member countries on how to improve their economies.
  • Third, it provides technical assistance and short-term loans to prevent financial crises. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• The IMF was established in 1945 as part of the Bretton Woods agreement, which aimed to encourage international financial cooperation by introducing a system of convertible currencies at fixed exchange rates.
• The IMF’s goal is to prevent economic disasters by guiding its member countries.
• It offers emergency assistance to support recovery from natural disasters.
• The IMF plays a vital role in the fight against money laundering and terrorism. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• The IMF achieves its objectives primarily through monitoring, capacity building, and lending.
• Surveillance: The IMF collects vast amounts of data on national economies, international trade, and the global economy. It provides regularly updated economic forecasts and discussions on the effect of fiscal, monetary, and trade policies on growth prospects and financial stability.
• Capacity Building: The IMF provides technical assistance, training, and policy advice to member countries through its capacity-building programs, including data collection and analysis.
• Lending: The IMF makes loans to countries experiencing economic distress to prevent or mitigate financial crises. Members contribute funds for this lending to a pool based on a quota system.
• The Board of Governors of the IMF consists of one Governor and one Alternate Governor from each member country. For India, the finance minister is the Ex-officio Governor while the RBI Governor is the Alternate Governor on the Board. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• The day-to-day management of the IMF is carried out by the Managing Director who is Chairman of the Board of Executive Directors. The Board of Executive Directors consists of 24 directors appointed/elected by member countries/group of countries is the executive body of the IMF. India is represented at the IMF by an Executive Director, who also represents three other countries in India’s constituency, viz. Bangladesh, Sri Lanka and Bhutan.

Solution (a)

WTO’s new Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies:

• Switzerland becomes the first WTO member to formally accept the WTO’s new Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies.
• The acceptance was given at an informal WTO ministerial meeting during the World Economic Forum’s annual meeting in Davos, Switzerland.
• The Agreement was adopted during the 12th Ministerial Conference of WTO in 2022 under the ‘Geneva Package’.
• To come into effect, the Agreement requires acceptance from two-thirds of WTO members.

Benefits of the New Agreement on Fisheries Subsidies:

• Curbs subsidies to Illegal, Unreported, and Unregulated (IUU) fishing, bolstering the fight against such fishing practices.
• Prohibits subsidies to fishing on overfished stocks, offering protection where management measures are ineffective.(Hence statement 1 is correct)
• Prohibits subsidies to fishing on unregulated high seas, providing vital safeguards where management measures are lacking.
• No prohibition on development subsidies, allowing WTO members to grant or maintain subsidies for vessel or operator capacity development, as long as it is not related to IUU activities.(Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• Allows subsidies for fishing on overfished stocks, but with the condition that they are intended for rebuilding the stock to a biologically sustainable level.
• Aids in achieving Sustainable Development Goal (SDG 14.6) by addressing harmful fisheries subsidies and preserving the world’s fish stocks from further depletion.

Solution (c)

• The World Bank, in collaboration with the UNESCO Institute for Statistics, has introduced the concept of ‘Learning Poverty.’ This term signifies the inability to read and comprehend a basic text by the age of 10. (Hence option (c) is correct)
• The World Bank emphasises the importance of every child acquiring the skill of reading by the age of 10. Reading acts as a crucial pathway to further learning as a child progresses through their educational journey. Conversely, the inability to read effectively closes off this pathway. Moreover, when children struggle with reading, it often indicates that educational systems are inadequately structured to facilitate learning in subjects like mathematics, science, and the humanities. While it’s still possible to learn later in life with significant effort, children who are unable to read by age 10, or at the latest, by the completion of primary school, generally face difficulties in mastering reading skills as they advance in their educational pursuits.

Solution (b)

World Trade Organization (WTO):

• The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an intergovernmental organization that regulates international trade.
• The WTO officially commenced on 1 January 1995 under the Marrakesh Agreement, signed by 124 nations on 15 April 1994, replacing the General Agreement on Tariff s and Trade (GATT), which commenced in 1948. One of the key achievements of the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations was the decision to set up a permanent institution for looking after the promotion of free and fair trade amongst nations. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• It is the largest international economic organization in the world.
• The Headquarter of WTO is situated at Geneva, Switzerland.
• The present strength of WTO membership is 164 and 25 observer governments.
• The WTO is based on agreements signed by the majority of the world’s trading nations.
• India is a founder member of WTO and also treated as the part of developing countries group for accessing the concessions granted by the organization. (Hence statement 2 and 3 are correct)
• It governs trade not only in goods, but also in services and intellectual property rights.
• At its heart are the WTO agreements, negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments. The goal is to ensure that trade flows as smoothly, predictably and freely as possible.

Solution (b)

Society for worldwide interbank financial telecommunication (SWIFT)

• The SWIFT is a global member-owned cooperative that is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• It was founded in 1973 by a group of 239 banks from 15 countries which formed a co-operative utility to develop a secure electronic messaging service and common standards to facilitate cross border payments.
• SWIFT does not facilitate funds transfer: rather, it sends payment orders, which must be settled by correspondent accounts that the institutions have with each other. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• The SWIFT is a secure financial message carrier — in other words, it transports messages from one bank to its intended bank recipient. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• Messages sent by SWIFT’s customers are authenticated using its specialized security and identification technology. Encryption is added as the messages leave the customer environment and enter the SWIFT Environment. Messages remain in the protected SWIFT environment, subject to all its confidentiality and integrity commitments, throughout the transmission process while they are transmitted to the operating centres (OPCs) where they are processed until they are safely delivered to the receiver.

Solution (b)

Financial Action Task Force (FATF):

• The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental organization, initially founded in 1989 to develop policies that combat money laundering. Its role expanded in 2001 to additionally develop policies that combat terrorist and proliferation financing.
• FATF is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog established in 1989 by G-7 nations in Paris. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• Post the 9/11 attacks, its mandate expanded to include efforts against terrorist financing.
• In 2012, it also focused on countering the financing of Weapons of Mass Destruction (WMD) proliferation.
• The FATF Plenary is the decision-making body, meeting three times per year.
• The Secretariat supports the substantive work of the FATF membership and global network. The FATF Secretariat is located at the OECD Headquarters in Paris.

FATF Recommendations:

• Issued the Forty Recommendations in 1990 to fight against money laundering.
• Published the 40+9 Recommendations in 2004, strengthening standards against money laundering and terrorist financing.
• Revised the recommendations in 2012 to address new threats, including WMD financing.
• Over 200 jurisdictions committed to FATF Recommendations through nine FATF-Style Regional Bodies (FSRBs) and FATF memberships.

Members and Observers of FATF:

• FATF has 39 members, including major financial centers worldwide.
• Two regional organizations are part of FATF: the European Commission and the Gulf Cooperation Council.
• Member countries include Argentina, Australia, Canada, China, Germany, India, Japan, the UK, and the US, among others.
• India joined as observer in 2006 and became a full member in 2010.

Grey and Black Lists of FATF:

• The FATF Plenary reviews countries through Mutual Evaluation Reports (MERs).
• Countries with major AML/CFT deficiencies are placed on the “grey list” for increased monitoring.
• Failure to address concerns results in being listed as a “black list” high-risk jurisdiction.
• Grey List: Countries considered safe havens for terror funding and money laundering.
• Black List: Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) supporting terror funding and money laundering. As of now, Iran, North Korea, and Myanmar are blacklisted. (Hence statement 2 is correct and 3 is incorrect)

Consequences of Being Enlisted:

• Enlisted countries face economic sanctions from affiliated financial institutions like IMF, World Bank, ADB, etc.
• Difficulty in obtaining loans and reduced international trade.
• International boycott.

India, Pakistan, and FATF Grey Listing:

• Recently, Pakistan was removed from the grey list after four years due to significant progress in actions against designated terrorists. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
• India agreed to the decision as Pakistan provided “documentary evidence” of its efforts to combat terrorist financing.
• Being removed from the grey list boosted Pakistan’s reputation and received international recognition for its actions.

Solution (d)

• Upon joining the International Monetary Fund (IMF), a nation is allocated a QUOTA, which is determined based on factors including the country’s GDP (50%), degree of openness (30%), economic variability (15%), and international reserves (5%). QUOTAs are expressed in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), the IMF’s standard unit of account. India, for instance, possesses a QUOTA of 2.76%, China’s is 6.41%, and the United States holds a QUOTA of 17.46%.
• A member’s QUOTA subscription designates the maximum financial commitment the member must extend to the IMF. Upon joining the IMF, the subscription must be paid in full, with up to 25% in SDRs or widely recognised currencies (such as the US dollar, Euro, Yen, Pound, or Yuan), and the remaining 75% in the member’s domestic currency. These QUOTAs are intended to undergo review every five years.
• Moreover, a member’s QUOTA determines the extent of financial assistance they can receive from the IMF. For instance, a member is eligible to borrow up to 145% of its QUOTA annually and 435% cumulatively, with potential exceptions in exceptional circumstances. Notably, the IMF exclusively extends loans to member countries.
• QUOTAs serve to determine several key aspects:
• Subscription, reflecting the maximum financial commitment a member must provide. (Hence 1 is correct)
• Voting power and participation in IMF decision-making. (Hence 2 is correct)
• A country’s allocation share of SDRs. (Hence 3 is correct)
• Borrowing capacity for potential financial support from the IMF. (Hence 4 is correct)
• In August 2021, the IMF executed its most substantial allocation of 456.5 billion SDRs, resulting in a total SDR allocation of approximately 650 billion. Among the allocated SDRs, India received 12.57 billion SDRs, equivalent to 2.75% of the total allocation. India’s overall SDR holdings surged from 1.09 billion SDRs to 13.66 billion SDRs, reflecting a significant increase.

Solution (d)

The WTO’s Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) Agreement is founded on the premise that a robust link exists between trade and investment. The imposition of limitations on investment has the potential to distort trade. Numerous constraints on investment, which inhibit trade, are deemed impermissible. These include conditions such as mandating local content, imposing export obligations, stipulating domestic employment requirements, and necessitating technology transfer. (Hence all are correct)

Solution (a)

• The BRICS New Development Bank (NDB), often referred to as the BRICS Bank, is a multilateral financial institution established by the BRICS countries – Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa. It was established in 2014 to provide funding for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in emerging economies and developing countries. The NDB aims to support projects that have a positive impact on economic growth, social progress, and environmental sustainability.
• The bank’s primary focus areas include renewable energy, transportation, water supply, and other infrastructure projects that promote sustainable development. The NDB operates alongside other international financial institutions but aims to provide an alternative source of funding for projects that align with the development priorities of its member countries.
• BRICS bank has five members but any country which is a member of United Nations is eligible to become a member of BRICS bank.

Solution (b)

The World Bank Group and the Governments of Germany and the UK, with support from representatives of the Vulnerable Twenty Group (V20), had launched a US$145 million Global Risk Financing Facility (GRiF) to help vulnerable countries manage the financial impacts of climate change and natural hazard-induced shocks.

GRiF will be implemented by the World Bank, the Global Facility for Disaster Reduction and Recovery (GFDRR), and select implementing partners.

The Facility was announced at the World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF) Annual Meetings, which convened in October 2018, in Bali, Indonesia.

Solution (d)

• Any foreign borrowing by the government or other entities creates a debt or liability for our nation. When we acquire shares of a foreign company, these shares become assets for us (our nation) and liabilities for the respective foreign country or company. Consequently, any Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) made in India, often accomplished through shares, becomes a liability for both the Indian company and the country.
• For instance, if my company borrows from abroad, the debt paper held by the foreign bank becomes an asset for the foreign country or bank and a liability for my company or country.
• The Net International Investment Position (NIIP) quantifies the disparity between the foreign assets held by our nation (including individuals, companies, and the government) and the foreign ownership of our nation’s assets.
• As FDI inflow into our country increases, it augments the liability burden for our company or country, or conversely, it enlarges the foreign ownership of our nation’s assets held by foreigners. Accumulating more foreign borrowings or FDI investments burdens us, as we will eventually need to repay these through interest, principal, or dividends.
• Foreign exchange reserves, held by our residents like the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), essentially constitute claims on non-residents. Thus, a higher amount of foreign currency assets strengthens our NIIP position, enhancing our overall economic standing.
• (Hence all statements are correct)

Solution (b)

• The Global Hunger Index (GHI), developed by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), serves as a comprehensive measure of hunger worldwide.
• The GHI considers factors like undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality to assess and rank countries. (Hence statement b is correct).

Important Points/Value Additions:

• India ranks 111 out of a total of 125 countries in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2023.
• With a score of 28.7, India has a level of hunger that is serious.

Solution (b)

It is forum of central bankers and experts working towards promotion of a robust and transparent forex market.

It has been established under the aegis of Bank of International Settlements.

The committee comprises of public and private sector representatives from the foreign exchange committees of 16 international forex trading centers.

One of the major tasks of the committee is to maintain and update the “Global Code of Conduct for the Foreign Exchange Markets”.

India will soon get a seat in the newly constituted Global Foreign Exchange Committee (GFXC).

Solution (b)

It means financial or technical help given by one country’s government to another country to assist social and economic development or to respond to a disaster in the receiving country. It can involve providing financial grants or loans, technical advice, training, equipment and commodities such as food, health, infrastructure and transport. Loans and credits for military purposes are excluded.

In 1970, the United Nations agreed that economically advanced countries should
provide 0.7% of their gross national income (GNI) as ODA.

Solution (c)

About Special Drawing Rights (SDR):

• The Special Drawing Right (SDR) is an interest-bearing international reserve asset created by the IMF in 1969 to supplement other reserve assets of member countries. The SDR is based on a basket of international currencies comprising the U.S. dollar, Japanese Yen, Euro, Pound Sterling, and Chinese Renminbi. (Hence c is the correct option).

Important Points/Value Additions:

Special Drawing Right (SDR):

• Purpose: Designed to supplement member nations’ other reserve assets.
• Composition: Based on a basket of foreign currencies including the US dollar, Japanese yen, euro, British pound, and Chinese renminbi.
• Nature: Not a currency or a direct claim on the IMF but may represent a claim on IMF members’ freely usable currencies.

India’s Quota in the IMF:

• Current Quota: India is the 13th largest quota holder among 190 member countries.
• Voting Share: India holds a 2.75% voting share in the IMF, providing it with a slightly stronger voice in IMF decisions compared to many developing nations.

Solution (d)

• Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) is indeed part of the World Bank Group. Established in 1988, MIGA aims to promote foreign direct investment in developing countries by providing political risk insurance and credit enhancement. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• India is a member of MIGA. Joining in 1994, India benefits from MIGA’s services that help safeguard investments against political risks such as expropriation, breach of contract, and currency inconvertibility. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• MIGA primarily focuses on providing financial funding to investors. Contrary to providing direct financial assistance, MIGA’s core function involves offering guarantees and insurance to attract private sector investment by assuring investors against certain political risks, fostering economic development in less developed regions.
• Headquartered in Washington DC, U.S., MIGA is a part of the World Bank Group (Hence statement 3 is correct).

Solution (a)

• The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) is indeed the predecessor to the World Trade Organization (WTO). GATT, established in 1947, laid the foundation for international trade cooperation and the reduction of trade barriers. The WTO, formed in 1995, absorbed and expanded upon the principles and agreements established under GATT, providing a more comprehensive framework for global trade. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• The WTO does have the authority to impose sanctions on member countries that violate its trade rules. This enforcement mechanism is a crucial aspect of the WTO’s role in ensuring compliance with agreed-upon trade regulations. Sanctions may include trade restrictions or other measures aimed at compelling adherence to international trade norms, fostering a rules-based global trading system. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect).

Solution (c)

The Ministerial Conference, 2001 of the World Trade Organisation (WTO), often referred to as Doha Development Agenda, had the agenda of Liberalizing Global Agricultural Trade. It covers the following:

• Agriculture: It called for the end agreement to commit to substantial improvements in market access, reductions (and ultimate elimination) of all forms of export subsidies (including under green and blue box) and substantial reductions in trade-distorting support.
• Non-Agricultural Market Access: The ministers agreed to launch tariff-cutting negotiations on all non-agricultural products. The aim is “to reduce, or as appropriate eliminate tariffs, including the reduction or elimination of tariff peaks, high tariffs, and tariff escalation, as well as non-tariff barriers, in particular on products of export interest to developing countries.”
• Special and Differential Treatment (SDT): Members agreed that Developing and Least developed countries will continue to be eligible for a favourable treatment. However, developed countries now claim that big developing countries like India, China, Brazil, and South Africa are unreasonable in their demand and only least developed countries are rightful claimants of differential treatment.

Solution (d)

• Kuchipudi is one of the Indian Classical dances belonging to Andhra Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was originally performed by a group of itinerant actors known as Bhagavathalu, who would travel from village to village, performing plays and dances based on Hindu mythology.
• In the 15th century, the great poet and musician, Siddhendra Yogi, played a major role in the development of Kuchipudi. He is credited with transforming the dance form from a simple folk art to a sophisticated and refined classical dance form.
• It incorporates both pure dance (Nritta) and expressive dance (Nritya) elements, as well as storytelling through dance (Natya). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The dance form is characterized by its intricate footwork, graceful movements, and subtle facial expressions.
• It is also performed on the edge of a brass plate (known as Tarangam) on the beats of Carnatic music.
• It is largely developed as a Hindu god Krishna-oriented Vaishnavism tradition. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Kuchipudi performer apart from being a dancer and actor has to be skilled in Sanskrit and Telugu languages, music, and manuscripts of the performance.
• The Kuchipudi dancers wear light make-up and ornaments like the Rakudi (head ornament), Chandra Vanki (arm band), Adda Bhasa, and Kasina Sara (necklace). A long plait is decorated with flowers and jewelry. The ornaments are made of light wood called Boorugu.
• The typical musical instruments in Kuchipudi are mridangam, cymbals, veena, flute, and the tambura. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (a)

• Jiadhal River is a northern tributaryof the Brahmaputra Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It originatesin the sub-Himalayan mountains of Arunachal Pradesh at an altitude of 1247m.
• After passing through a narrow gorge in Arunachal Pradesh, the river enters the plains of Assamin Dhemaji district, where it flows in braided channels.
• The river finally debouches into the Brahmaputranear Selamukh in Lakhimpur district.
• Tons River originatesat a height of 6,315 metres from the Bandarpunch Mountain in Uttarakhand. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It flows through the Garhwal region of Uttarakhandand touches Himachal Pradesh.
• Tons River joins Yamuna near Kalsi in the Dehradun district, Uttarakhand. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• The Qudsia Bagh was built in the Persian char-bagh style. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Chahar Bagh is a Persian and Islamic quadrilateral garden layout based on the four gardens of Paradise mentioned in the Qur’an.
• It is built with red sandstones, and plastered with limestone. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Stucco workis done on the walls. It had cusped arches with floral patterns above.
• It is situated in North Delhi.
• The only remains of the Bagh are its imposing western gateway, the Qudsia Mosque, and a couple of pavilions in carved red sandstone.
• It was built by Qudsia Begum, the wife of Mughal Emperor Mohammad Shah Rangeela. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• An easementary right is a right possessed by the owner or occupier of the land on some other land, not his own, the purpose of which is to provide the beneficial enjoyment of the land. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This right is granted because, without the existence of this right an occupier or owner cannot fully enjoy his property.
• The word ‘land’ refers to everything permanently attached to the earth, and the word ‘beneficial enjoyment’ denotes convenience, advantage or amenity, or any necessity.
• The owner or occupierreferred to in the provision is known as the Dominant Owner and the land for the benefit of which the easementary right exists is called Dominant Heritage.
• Whereas the owner upon whose land the liability is imposedis known as the Serviant Owner and the land on which such liability is imposed to do or prevent something is known as the Servient Heritage.
• An easement should always be in written form, except when it has been enjoyed for a very long time without restrictions. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The concept of easement has been defined under Section 4 of the Indian Easements Act of 1882. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• According to the provisions of Section 4, an easementary right is a right possessed by the owneror occupier of the land on some other land, not his own, the purpose of which is to provide the beneficial enjoyment of the land.

Solution (c)

• Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) is a sea of photons, the particles of light, present throughout the universe. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They are left over from the Big Bang, it’s afterglow.
• Scientists have measured temperature changes in the CMBand studied its large-scale properties using complicated trigonometry.
• Based on these studies, cosmologists have estimated space to be expanding ataround 68 kilometres per second per megaparsec ((km/s)/Mpc). That is, an object one megaparsec (3.26 million lightyears) away is moving away at 68 km/s)/Mpc.
• Cosmic Distance Ladder is a set of techniques used to measure the distance to objects that are close, further away, or very far away from the earth. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• One object in particular isthe Cepheid variable star. The Cepheid variables have a unique feature: their brightness varies in a predictable way over time.
• Based on how bright a Cepheid variable is, scientists can estimate how far away it is. Using this, cosmologists have estimated based on various Cepheid variables (and other such objects)  73 (km/s)/Mpc.
• The Hubble tension refers to a discrepancy between the measurements of the rate of expansion of the universe, known as the Hubble constant. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Hubble constant, denoted as H0, describes the rate at which galaxies are moving away from each otherdue to the expansion of the universe.

Solution (c)

• Doxxing is a form of online harassment involving the publication of personal information about an individual without their consent. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• This information can include details such as their full name, home address, telephone number, place of work, and other sensitive information.
• It is often carried out to expose, threaten, or intimidate someone and can lead to severe consequences, such as physical harm, stalking, or loss of employment. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Such information is usually obtained through illegal methods such ashacking or theft.

Solution (c)

• The Global Forest Watch (GFW) is an open-source web application to monitor global forests in near real-time using satellite data. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is a project of the Washington-based non-profit research organization, the World Resources Institute (WRI). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Key findings of the report:
• India has lost 2.33 million hectares of tree cover since 2000, equivalent to a six percent decrease in tree cover during this period.
• The country lost 4,14,000 hectares of humid primary forest (4.1 percent) from 2002 to 2023, making up 18 percent of its total tree cover loss in the same period.
• Between 2001 and 2022, forests in India emitted 51 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year and removed 141 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year. This represents a net carbon sink of 89.9 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent a year.
• An average of 51.0 million tons of carbon dioxide equivalent per year was released into the atmosphere as a result of tree cover loss in India.
• The data showed that 95 percent of the tree cover loss in India from 2013 to 2023 occurred within natural forests.
• Brazil, the Democratic Republic of Congo, and Bolivia topped the ranking of tropical countries with the most primary forest losses. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The loss of primary forests–those untouched by people and sometimes known as old-growth forests – in the tropics declined 9% last year compared to 2022.
• The world last year lost about 37,000 square kilometers (14,000 square miles) of tropical primary forest, an area nearly as big as Switzerland.
• According to its data, deforestation globally rose by 3.2% in 2023. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

• Platelets are small, colourless cell fragments in our blood that help with clotting. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Platelets are your body’s natural bandage to stop bleeding.
• They form in the soft tissue of your bones (bone marrow). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The largest cells in your bone marrow(megakaryocytes) make platelets.
• They form in the shape of a plate,which is where they get their name.
• A normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 450,000 platelets per microliter of blood. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Having more than 450,000platelets is a condition called thrombocytosis; having less than 150,000 is known as thrombocytopenia.
• Symptoms of low plateletsinclude bruising easily and unusual bleeding, such as excessive bleeding from a small cut or blood in urine or stool.
• Platelets can be essential to surviving surgeriessuch as organ transplants, as well as fighting cancer, chronic diseases, and traumatic injuries.
• Donor plateletsare given to patients who don’t have enough of their own, or when a person’s platelets aren’t working correctly.
• They are smaller than red or white blood cells. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Shrinkflation occurs when goods shrink in size but consumers pay the same price. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It occurs when manufacturers downsize products to offset higher production costs but keep retail prices the same.
• It is basically a form of hidden inflation.
• Instead of increasing the price of a product, producers reduce the size of the product while maintaining the same price.
• The absolute price of the product doesn’t go up, but the price per unit of weightor volume has
• Rising production costs and market competition are the reason for shrinkflation. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Financial Services Institutions Bureau (FSIB) is a government body set up under the Department of Financial Services (DFS), Ministry of Finance. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It replaced the Bank Board’s Bureau (BBB).
• FSIB would be headed by a chairman, a central government nominee.
• The board would comprise theSecretaries of the DFS, the chairman of IRDAI, and a deputy governor of the RBI. Additionally, it will have three part-time members who are experts in banking and three more from the insurance sector.
• Its primary role is to identify manpower capabilities and ensure the proper selection of talent for senior positions at financial institutions owned by the government. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It recommends personsfor appointment as whole-time directors (WTDs) and non-executive chairpersons (NECs) on the Boards of Directors in Public Sector Banks (PSBs), financial institutions (FIs), and Public Sector Insurers (PSIs).
• It would also issue guidelines for selecting general managers and directors of public sector general insurance companies. The final decisionon the FSIB recommendation would be taken by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet, headed by the Prime Minister.

Solution (b)

Let marks of Akshay be x and marks of Rakesh be y.

Therefore, x=y+10 and y=x-10% of x, or y=9x/10

Therefore, x=(9x/10)+10 =>x/10=10 =>x=100

Therefore y= (9*100)/10=90

So, total marks=100+90=190

Solution (d)

Total no. of invalid votes = 20%

So, total no of valid votes = 80%

So, 80% of 7000= (80/100) * 7000 =5600

Total valid votes secured by Hari = 55%

Total valid votes secured by Shiva = 45%

So, 45% of 5600 = (45/100 )*  5600

= 45 x 56 = 2520

Solution (b)

First we have to find the LCM of 8,12 and 20

∴ LCM of given numbers =2×2×2×3×5=120

According to given condition, we need a greatest number of 4 -digit which is exactly divisible by 120.

Greatest number of 4-digit =9999

We divide 9999 by 120 and find the remainder, we get 39

∴ The required number =9999−39=9960

Solution (b)

Let the two digit number be 10a + b and the number formed by reversing its digits be 10b + a. =>10a+b/10b+a=8/14=4/7

=>70a + 7b = 40b + 4a

=>66a=33b

=>a/b=1/2

Values of a can be=1,2,3,4

Values of b can be=2,4,6,8

Therefore, 4 pairs can be formed.

Solution (c)

Every prime number is an odd number except number 2.

So, for the condition to be true, one number has to be 2.

The other prime number could be 1 or 3 or 7 or any number

Let us assume the numbers to be 2 and 3

First condition- (2 + 3) = 5 is an odd number

Second condition- (2 * 3) = 6 is an even number

Third condition- (2^2 + 3^2) = 13 is an odd number

Fourth condition- (2 + 3)^2 = 25 is an odd number

Therefore, the only condition which was satisfied was the third condition, hence option c is the right answer.