IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
Archives
Hello Friends
The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Important Note
- Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.
- It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis.
- Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
Test-summary
0 of 35 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
Information
The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
- Click on – ‘Start Test’ button
- Solve Questions
- Click on ‘Test Summary’ button
- Click on ‘Finish Test’ button
- Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the test.
You have to finish following test, to start this test:
Results
0 of 35 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Neutrino Observatory Location
- Trident South China Sea
- IceCube Antarctica
- INO Theni Hills India
How many of the above pairs correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- China is building the World’s largest telescope called Trident below the South China Sea. It will be used to detect ‘ghost particles’ or the neutrinos. (Hence pair 1 is correct)
- The IceCube Neutrino Observatory is a neutrino observatory constructed at the Amundsen–Scott South Pole Station in Antarctica. The project is a recognized CERN experiment. Its thousands of sensors are located under the Antarctic ice, distributed over a cubic kilometer. (Hence pair 2 is correct)
- The INO decided on a site in Bodi West Hills (BWH) region near Pottipuram village in Theni district of Tamil Nadu. (Hence pair 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- China is building the World’s largest telescope called Trident below the South China Sea. It will be used to detect ‘ghost particles’ or the neutrinos. (Hence pair 1 is correct)
- The IceCube Neutrino Observatory is a neutrino observatory constructed at the Amundsen–Scott South Pole Station in Antarctica. The project is a recognized CERN experiment. Its thousands of sensors are located under the Antarctic ice, distributed over a cubic kilometer. (Hence pair 2 is correct)
- The INO decided on a site in Bodi West Hills (BWH) region near Pottipuram village in Theni district of Tamil Nadu. (Hence pair 3 is correct)
-
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
In the context of ‘Deep Ocean Mission’ of Ministry of Earth Sciences, consider the following statements:
- The years 2021-2030 have been designated by the United Nations as the ‘Decade of Ocean Science’.
- Deep Ocean Mission is one of nine missions under the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PMSTIAC).
- Matsya6000 is a deep-ocean submersible designed to accommodate a crew of three members equipped with a suite of scientific sensors and tools.
- Exploring the deep ocean presents a significant challenge due to the progressively decreasing pressure as we delve deeper from the ocean surface.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- The years 2021-2030 have been designated by the United Nations as the ‘Decade of Ocean Science’, and Prime Minister Narendra Modi has, on several occasions, emphasised the need for India to work towards sustainably harnessing the ocean’s potential for the nation’s growth. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- DOM is one of nine missions under the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PMSTIAC). It is imperative that DOM supports the blue-economy priority area, blue trade, and blue manufacturing in India. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- Matsya6000, a deep-ocean submersible designed to accommodate a crew of three members. Equipped with a suite of scientific sensors and tools. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
- Exploring the depths of the oceans has proved to be more challenging than exploring outer space. The fundamental distinction lies with the high pressure in the deep oceans. While outer space is akin to a near perfect vacuum, being one-meter underwater puts as much pressure on an object of one square meter area as if it were carrying about of 10,000kg of weight, which is equivalent to a huge adult elephant.
- Operating under such high-pressure conditions requires the use of meticulously designed equipment crafted from durable metals or materials. Additionally, electronics and instruments find it simpler to function in a vacuum or in space. Conversely, inside the water, poorly designed objects collapse or implode. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- The years 2021-2030 have been designated by the United Nations as the ‘Decade of Ocean Science’, and Prime Minister Narendra Modi has, on several occasions, emphasised the need for India to work towards sustainably harnessing the ocean’s potential for the nation’s growth. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- DOM is one of nine missions under the Prime Minister’s Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory Council (PMSTIAC). It is imperative that DOM supports the blue-economy priority area, blue trade, and blue manufacturing in India. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- Matsya6000, a deep-ocean submersible designed to accommodate a crew of three members. Equipped with a suite of scientific sensors and tools. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
- Exploring the depths of the oceans has proved to be more challenging than exploring outer space. The fundamental distinction lies with the high pressure in the deep oceans. While outer space is akin to a near perfect vacuum, being one-meter underwater puts as much pressure on an object of one square meter area as if it were carrying about of 10,000kg of weight, which is equivalent to a huge adult elephant.
- Operating under such high-pressure conditions requires the use of meticulously designed equipment crafted from durable metals or materials. Additionally, electronics and instruments find it simpler to function in a vacuum or in space. Conversely, inside the water, poorly designed objects collapse or implode. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect)
-
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Small Modular Reactors’ (SMR):
- SMRs require more frequent refueling compared to conventional plants.
- SMRs have higher power and operating pressure, reducing safety of SMRs.
- The modular nature of SMRs makes installation difficult and time-consuming.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
- Power plants based on SMRs may require less frequent refuelling, every 3 to 7 years, in comparison to between 1 and 2 years for conventional plants. Some SMRs are designed to operate for up to 30 years without refuelling. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- SMRs have lower power and operating pressure. They are inherently safer than the conventional reactors because their safety systems rely on natural circulation, convection, gravity and self-pressurization. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
- Smaller size and modular nature make SMRs easier to install. They can be installed in locations which are unsuitable for large and conventional reactors. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
- Power plants based on SMRs may require less frequent refuelling, every 3 to 7 years, in comparison to between 1 and 2 years for conventional plants. Some SMRs are designed to operate for up to 30 years without refuelling. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- SMRs have lower power and operating pressure. They are inherently safer than the conventional reactors because their safety systems rely on natural circulation, convection, gravity and self-pressurization. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
- Smaller size and modular nature make SMRs easier to install. They can be installed in locations which are unsuitable for large and conventional reactors. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
-
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
With reference to e-SIM (Embedded Subscriber Identification Module), consider the following statements:
- Change in mobile phone device will lead to change in phone number.
- It can easily violate privacy of users, as service provider can track user activity.
- It is not possible to re-programme e-SIMS.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- Switching devices becomes more challenging, as a change in the mobile phone device results in a corresponding alteration of the phone number. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- Mobile services providers gain the ability to monitor user’s activities with heightened precision, raising concerns when robust privacy protection laws are lacking. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- While users have the option to re-programme eSIMs, individuals with lower digital literacy may encounter difficulties in doing so. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- Switching devices becomes more challenging, as a change in the mobile phone device results in a corresponding alteration of the phone number. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- Mobile services providers gain the ability to monitor user’s activities with heightened precision, raising concerns when robust privacy protection laws are lacking. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- While users have the option to re-programme eSIMs, individuals with lower digital literacy may encounter difficulties in doing so. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
-
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Wolbachia method’ used to check growth of viral diseases:
- Wolbachia is a common fungi that occurs naturally in insect species.
- Wolbachia prevents viruses such as dengue, chikungunya, and Zika from proliferating in the bodies of Aedes aegypti mosquitoes.
- Wolbachia is safe for humans, animals, and the environment.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- Wolbachia is a prevalent bacterium occurring naturally in about 60% of insect species, including mosquitoes, fruit flies, moths, dragonflies, and butterflies. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- Wolbachia effectively hinders the growth of viruses like dengue, chikungunya, and Zika within the bodies of Aedes aegypti mosquitoes. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- Notably, Wolbachia is deemed safe for humans, animals, and the environment. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- Wolbachia is a prevalent bacterium occurring naturally in about 60% of insect species, including mosquitoes, fruit flies, moths, dragonflies, and butterflies. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- Wolbachia effectively hinders the growth of viruses like dengue, chikungunya, and Zika within the bodies of Aedes aegypti mosquitoes. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- Notably, Wolbachia is deemed safe for humans, animals, and the environment. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
-
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to the context of ‘Aurora lights’:
- An aurora is caused when electrically-charged particles from the sun collide with particles from gases such as oxygen and nitrogen present in the Earth’s atmosphere.
- It is observed only on Earth in our Solar system, as other planets lack dense atmosphere in polar regions.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (a)
- An aurora is a natural phenomenon which is characterised by a display of a natural-coloured (green, red, yellow or white) light in the sky. It is a light show which is caused when electrically-charged particles from the sun collide with particles from gases such as oxygen and nitrogen present in the Earth’s atmosphere. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- Both Jupiter and Saturn have similar auroras that are caused by solar wind but particles also come from nearby active moons like Jupiter’s Io and Saturn’s Enceladus. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (a)
- An aurora is a natural phenomenon which is characterised by a display of a natural-coloured (green, red, yellow or white) light in the sky. It is a light show which is caused when electrically-charged particles from the sun collide with particles from gases such as oxygen and nitrogen present in the Earth’s atmosphere. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- Both Jupiter and Saturn have similar auroras that are caused by solar wind but particles also come from nearby active moons like Jupiter’s Io and Saturn’s Enceladus. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
-
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Artemis Mission’:
- It is a Moon exploration program that is led by the United States’s NASA.
- Apollo 17 mission was the last moon landing of humans more than five decades back.
- The program’s stated long-term goal is to establish a permanent base on the Moon to facilitate human missions to Mars.
- India joined ‘Artemis Accords’ which has larger objective of peaceful exploration of deep space.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
- The Artemis program is a Moon exploration program that is led by the United States’ NASA and formally established in 2017 via Space Policy Directive 1. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- The Artemis program is intended to reestablish a human presence on the Moon for the first time since Apollo 17 in 1972. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- The program’s stated long-term goal is to establish a permanent base on the Moon to facilitate human missions to Mars. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
- Prime Minister announced India’s decision to join the Artemis Accords during the visit to the United States. (Hence statement 4 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
- The Artemis program is a Moon exploration program that is led by the United States’ NASA and formally established in 2017 via Space Policy Directive 1. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- The Artemis program is intended to reestablish a human presence on the Moon for the first time since Apollo 17 in 1972. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- The program’s stated long-term goal is to establish a permanent base on the Moon to facilitate human missions to Mars. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
- Prime Minister announced India’s decision to join the Artemis Accords during the visit to the United States. (Hence statement 4 is correct)
-
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Kilonova Explosions’:
- A kilonova is a transient astronomical event that occurs in a compact binary system when only two neutron stars merge.
- Neutron stars are superdense astrophysical objects formed at the end of a massive star’s life in a supernova explosion
- Extreme conditions of these high-energy collisions lead to the formation of heavy elements like gold.
- It emits gravitational waves along with electromagnetic waves.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- A kilonova occurs in a compact binary system when two neutron stars or a neutron star and a black hole merge. Not only two Neutron star but one Neutron star and one Blackhole also. (Hence statement 1 incorrect)
- Neutron stars are superdense astrophysical objects formed at the end of a massive star’s life in a supernova explosion. Sometimes, neutron stars orbit each other in binary systems. (Hence statement 2 correct)
- Such mergers let researchers study the physical properties of the most extreme conditions in the universe. For example, the conditions of these high-energy collisions lead to the formation of heavy elements like gold. (Hence statement 3 correct)
- These systems constantly lose energy by emitting gravitational waves until they eventually collide and merge. (Hence statement 4 correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- A kilonova occurs in a compact binary system when two neutron stars or a neutron star and a black hole merge. Not only two Neutron star but one Neutron star and one Blackhole also. (Hence statement 1 incorrect)
- Neutron stars are superdense astrophysical objects formed at the end of a massive star’s life in a supernova explosion. Sometimes, neutron stars orbit each other in binary systems. (Hence statement 2 correct)
- Such mergers let researchers study the physical properties of the most extreme conditions in the universe. For example, the conditions of these high-energy collisions lead to the formation of heavy elements like gold. (Hence statement 3 correct)
- These systems constantly lose energy by emitting gravitational waves until they eventually collide and merge. (Hence statement 4 correct)
-
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
“Kill Switch” term was in news recently. It is related to?
Correct
Solution (c)
- In a major breakthrough, scientists have reportedly discovered a ‘kill switch’ that triggers the death of cancer cells. (Hence option c is correct)
- The researchers have named it CAR T-cell therapy, which involves collecting T cells from the patient’s blood and then genetically modifying them in a lab to produce receptors called chimeric antigen receptors (CARs). After modifying them, these cells are then injected back into the patient’s body, in the bloodstream.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- In a major breakthrough, scientists have reportedly discovered a ‘kill switch’ that triggers the death of cancer cells. (Hence option c is correct)
- The researchers have named it CAR T-cell therapy, which involves collecting T cells from the patient’s blood and then genetically modifying them in a lab to produce receptors called chimeric antigen receptors (CARs). After modifying them, these cells are then injected back into the patient’s body, in the bloodstream.
-
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Recently one of the space phenomena was named as “Amaterasu”. Choose the correct meaning of this term from the options given below?
Correct
Solution (a)
- Scientists have detected one of the most powerful cosmic rays ever slamming into Earth but they have no idea what caused it or where it came from. The extremely high-energy particle has been named ‘Amaterasu’ after the Japanese Sun goddess, and it seemingly arrived from a void in space where nothing is known to exist. (Hence option a is correct)
- The Amaterasu particle has an energy exceeding 240 exa-electron volts (EeV). That is millions of times more powerful than the particles produced by the Large Hadron Collider, which is the most powerful accelerator ever built. It is second only to the “Oh-My-God” particle, another high-energy cosmic ray detected in 1991. That came in at 320 EeV.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
- Scientists have detected one of the most powerful cosmic rays ever slamming into Earth but they have no idea what caused it or where it came from. The extremely high-energy particle has been named ‘Amaterasu’ after the Japanese Sun goddess, and it seemingly arrived from a void in space where nothing is known to exist. (Hence option a is correct)
- The Amaterasu particle has an energy exceeding 240 exa-electron volts (EeV). That is millions of times more powerful than the particles produced by the Large Hadron Collider, which is the most powerful accelerator ever built. It is second only to the “Oh-My-God” particle, another high-energy cosmic ray detected in 1991. That came in at 320 EeV.
-
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Chandrayan 3’:
- It became the first spacecraft to land on the far side of the moon.
- Chandrayan 3 landed near equator due to failure of Chandrayan 2 to land on lunar south pole.
- Fewer hills and craters on the south pole make it easier for instruments to conduct operation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
- There is very good reason why all the landings on the moon so far have happened in the equatorial region. Even China’s Chang’e 4, which became the first spacecraft to land on the far side of the moon (the side that does not face the earth), landed near the 45 degree latitude. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- Chandrayaan-3 became world’s first mission to soft-land near the lunar south pole. All the previous spacecraft have landed a few degrees latitude north or south of the lunar equator. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
- It is easier and safer to land near the equator. The terrain and temperature are more hospitable, and conducive for longer and sustained operation of instruments. The surface here is even and smooth, very steep slopes are almost absent, and there are fewer hills or craters. Sunlight is present in abundance, at least on the side facing the earth, thus offering regular supply of energy to solar-powered instruments. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
- There is very good reason why all the landings on the moon so far have happened in the equatorial region. Even China’s Chang’e 4, which became the first spacecraft to land on the far side of the moon (the side that does not face the earth), landed near the 45 degree latitude. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- Chandrayaan-3 became world’s first mission to soft-land near the lunar south pole. All the previous spacecraft have landed a few degrees latitude north or south of the lunar equator. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
- It is easier and safer to land near the equator. The terrain and temperature are more hospitable, and conducive for longer and sustained operation of instruments. The surface here is even and smooth, very steep slopes are almost absent, and there are fewer hills or craters. Sunlight is present in abundance, at least on the side facing the earth, thus offering regular supply of energy to solar-powered instruments. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
-
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
“Good Manufacturing Practices” in news recently, is related to which of the following sector?
Correct
Solution (b)
- Following recent incidents of several countries reporting deaths allegedly linked to contaminated India-manufactured drugs, the government has set a deadline for mandatory implementation of the Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) which were revised in 2018, bringing them on par with World Health Organisation (WHO) standards.
- Companies with a turnover of over Rs 250 crore will have to implement the revised GMP within six months, while medium and small-scale enterprises with turnover of less than Rs 250 crore will have to implement it within a year.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- Following recent incidents of several countries reporting deaths allegedly linked to contaminated India-manufactured drugs, the government has set a deadline for mandatory implementation of the Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) which were revised in 2018, bringing them on par with World Health Organisation (WHO) standards.
- Companies with a turnover of over Rs 250 crore will have to implement the revised GMP within six months, while medium and small-scale enterprises with turnover of less than Rs 250 crore will have to implement it within a year.
-
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
What is the proposed origin of the continent-sized blobs called as ‘large low-velocity provinces’ (LLVPs) of unusual material under the African continent and the Pacific Ocean, as suggested by the recent study?
Correct
Solution (d)
- It seemed like there were two continent-sized blobs of unusual material deep near the centre of the planet. One under the African continent and one beneath the Pacific Ocean. Each of these “blobs” is twice the size of the Moon and is made of different proportions of elements than the mantle that surrounds them. The blobs are called large low-velocity provinces (LLVPs).
- A study published in the journal Nature suggests that these blobs are what remains of the ancient planet that collided with the Earth billions of years ago, creating the Moon.
- The study also answers another mystery connected with the “giant impact theory” of how the Moon was created. The smaller planet that collided with the Earth was dubbed Theia but no trace of it has been found in the asteroid belt or in meteorites. The researchers believe that most of Theia was absorbed by early Earth, forming these “LLVPs,” with the residual debris from the impact becoming the Moon.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
- It seemed like there were two continent-sized blobs of unusual material deep near the centre of the planet. One under the African continent and one beneath the Pacific Ocean. Each of these “blobs” is twice the size of the Moon and is made of different proportions of elements than the mantle that surrounds them. The blobs are called large low-velocity provinces (LLVPs).
- A study published in the journal Nature suggests that these blobs are what remains of the ancient planet that collided with the Earth billions of years ago, creating the Moon.
- The study also answers another mystery connected with the “giant impact theory” of how the Moon was created. The smaller planet that collided with the Earth was dubbed Theia but no trace of it has been found in the asteroid belt or in meteorites. The researchers believe that most of Theia was absorbed by early Earth, forming these “LLVPs,” with the residual debris from the impact becoming the Moon.
-
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
With reference to the use of Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs) for measuring “missing” matter between galaxies, consider the following statements:
- FRBs can be employed to measure the “missing” matter between galaxies, providing a new method to determine the mass of the Universe.
- More than half of the normal matter in the Universe is missing, believed to be located in the space between galaxies, possibly too hot and diffuse to be observed using conventional techniques.
- FRBs can detect ionized material in the almost empty space between galaxies, allowing scientists to measure the amount of matter present.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- FRBs (fast radio bursts) can be used to measure “missing” matter between galaxies and can provide a new way to weigh the Universe, according to the European Southern Observatory. (ESO) (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- Current methods of estimating the universe’s mass give conflicting answers and challenge the standard model of cosmology.
- We think that the missing matter is hiding in the space between galaxies, but it may just be so hot and diffuse that it’s impossible to see using normal techniques. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- FRBs sense this ionised material. Even in space that is almost completely empty, these bursts can see all the electrons. This allows scientists to measure how much stuff there is between galaxies. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- FRBs (fast radio bursts) can be used to measure “missing” matter between galaxies and can provide a new way to weigh the Universe, according to the European Southern Observatory. (ESO) (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- Current methods of estimating the universe’s mass give conflicting answers and challenge the standard model of cosmology.
- We think that the missing matter is hiding in the space between galaxies, but it may just be so hot and diffuse that it’s impossible to see using normal techniques. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- FRBs sense this ionised material. Even in space that is almost completely empty, these bursts can see all the electrons. This allows scientists to measure how much stuff there is between galaxies. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
-
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
Consider the following statements in the context of ‘X-ray Imaging and Spectroscopy Mission’:
- XRISM is ISRO led mission in collaboration with NASA and the European Space Agency.
- It is designed to study the hottest regions in the universe, along with its largest structures and the objects with the strongest gravity.
- XRISM is carrying only two instruments -Resolve and Xtend each of them focuses of the same X-ray Mirror assembly.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- It is led by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency in collaboration with NASA and the European Space Agency. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- The space observatory is designed to detect X-ray radiation with energy up to 12,000 electron volts. To put that into context, the energy of visible light is between two to three electron volts. Therefore, it is designed to study the hottest regions in the universe, along with its largest structures and the objects with the strongest gravity. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- XRISM is carrying just two instruments — Resolve and Xtend — and each of them focuses of the same X-ray Mirror assembly. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- It is led by the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency in collaboration with NASA and the European Space Agency. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- The space observatory is designed to detect X-ray radiation with energy up to 12,000 electron volts. To put that into context, the energy of visible light is between two to three electron volts. Therefore, it is designed to study the hottest regions in the universe, along with its largest structures and the objects with the strongest gravity. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- XRISM is carrying just two instruments — Resolve and Xtend — and each of them focuses of the same X-ray Mirror assembly. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
-
Question 16 of 35
16. Question
Consider the following statements about POEM platform of ISRO:
- It will help perform in-orbit experiments using the final, and otherwise discarded stage of Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).
- It has a dedicated Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system for attitude stabilization.
- It allows space agencies and private companies to design, develop and validate experimental orbital payloads.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- POEM (PSLV Orbital Experimental Module) is an experimental mission by ISRO which performs in-orbit scientific experiments during the fourth stage of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) launch vehicle as an orbital platform. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- According to ISRO, POEM has a dedicated Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system for attitude stabilisation, which stands for controlling the orientation of any aerospace vehicle within permitted limits. The NGC will act as the platform’s brain to stabilize it with specified accuracy. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- The space agency’s POEM platform has standard interfaces and packaging for power generation, telemetry, tele-command stabilisation, orbital-station keeping and orbital maneuvering. This allows space agencies and private companies to design, develop and validate experimental orbital payloads. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- POEM (PSLV Orbital Experimental Module) is an experimental mission by ISRO which performs in-orbit scientific experiments during the fourth stage of the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) launch vehicle as an orbital platform. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- According to ISRO, POEM has a dedicated Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system for attitude stabilisation, which stands for controlling the orientation of any aerospace vehicle within permitted limits. The NGC will act as the platform’s brain to stabilize it with specified accuracy. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- The space agency’s POEM platform has standard interfaces and packaging for power generation, telemetry, tele-command stabilisation, orbital-station keeping and orbital maneuvering. This allows space agencies and private companies to design, develop and validate experimental orbital payloads. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
-
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Asteroids Mission
- Bennu OSIRIS-REx
- Psyche OSIRIS-APEX
- Dinkinesh Lucy
How many of the above pairs are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- OSIRIS-REx is the first U.S. mission to collect a sample from an asteroid. It returned to Earth to drop off material from asteroid Bennu. (Hence pair 1 correct)
- Mission to asteroid Psyche is named as same Psyche mission. OSIRIS-APEX, to explore asteroid Apophis. (Hence pair 2 incorrect)
- NASA’s Lucy spacecraft flew by not just its first asteroid, but its first two. The first images returned by Lucy reveal that the small main belt asteroid Dinkinesh is actually a binary pair. (Hence pair 3 correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- OSIRIS-REx is the first U.S. mission to collect a sample from an asteroid. It returned to Earth to drop off material from asteroid Bennu. (Hence pair 1 correct)
- Mission to asteroid Psyche is named as same Psyche mission. OSIRIS-APEX, to explore asteroid Apophis. (Hence pair 2 incorrect)
- NASA’s Lucy spacecraft flew by not just its first asteroid, but its first two. The first images returned by Lucy reveal that the small main belt asteroid Dinkinesh is actually a binary pair. (Hence pair 3 correct)
-
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
With reference to XPoSat, consider the following statement:
- It is launched by NASA in coordination with ESA.
- It will study X-ray polarisation and its cosmic sources such as black holes and neutron stars.
- The XPoSat is the only such mission in the world to study X-ray polarisation.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
- The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) began the new year with the successful launch of its first X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat). (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat), which will study X-ray polarisation and its cosmic sources such as black holes and neutron stars. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- The XPoSat is the world’s second such mission after the Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE) launched by NASA in 2021. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (a)
- The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) began the new year with the successful launch of its first X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat). (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- X-ray Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat), which will study X-ray polarisation and its cosmic sources such as black holes and neutron stars. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- The XPoSat is the world’s second such mission after the Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE) launched by NASA in 2021. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
-
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
Consider the following statements in context of India’s capabilities in radio astronomy and the Square Kilometer Array (SKA):
- The Square Kilometer Array will be a single large telescope consisting of thousands of dish antennas operating individually.
- None of the SKA facilities would be located in India.
- India has highly developed capabilities in radio astronomy, with advanced facilities like the Giant Meterwave Radio Telescope (GMRT) near Pune.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- The Square Kilometer Array will not be a single large telescope, but a collection of thousands of dish antennas operating as a single unit. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- None of the SKA facilities would be located in India. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- Radio astronomy is something in which India already has highly developed capabilities. The Giant Meterwave Radio Telescope (GMRT) near Pune is one of the most advanced and sought after facilities in the world, which has been producing remarkable scientific results. There are other similar facilities in Ooty, Nainital and Bengaluru. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- The Square Kilometer Array will not be a single large telescope, but a collection of thousands of dish antennas operating as a single unit. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
- None of the SKA facilities would be located in India. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- Radio astronomy is something in which India already has highly developed capabilities. The Giant Meterwave Radio Telescope (GMRT) near Pune is one of the most advanced and sought after facilities in the world, which has been producing remarkable scientific results. There are other similar facilities in Ooty, Nainital and Bengaluru. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
-
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
In the context of India’s Arctic Research Station and scientific research in the Arctic, Consider following statements:
- Himadri, India’s Arctic Research Station is at Ny-Ålesund in the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard.
- Scientific research in the Arctic region is governed by international legal instruments like the Svalbard Treaty of 1920 and the UN Convention on the Law of the Seas.
- India’s two other stations in Arctic region are Maitri and Bharti apart from Himadri.
- National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research, Goa, is the nodal agency for India’s polar explorations.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- Himadri, India’s Arctic Research Station at Ny-Ålesund in the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard in the Arctic Ocean, will now remain operational throughout the year. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- Scientific research in the Arctic region is governed by international legal instruments like the Svalbard Treaty of 1920 and the UN Convention on the Law of the Seas, apart from the individual jurisdictions of the Arctic countries. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- India’s has two stations in use, Maitri and Bharti in Antarctica. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
- National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research, Goa, the nodal agency for India’s polar explorations. (Hence statement 4 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- Himadri, India’s Arctic Research Station at Ny-Ålesund in the Norwegian archipelago of Svalbard in the Arctic Ocean, will now remain operational throughout the year. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
- Scientific research in the Arctic region is governed by international legal instruments like the Svalbard Treaty of 1920 and the UN Convention on the Law of the Seas, apart from the individual jurisdictions of the Arctic countries. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
- India’s has two stations in use, Maitri and Bharti in Antarctica. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
- National Centre for Polar and Ocean Research, Goa, the nodal agency for India’s polar explorations. (Hence statement 4 is correct)
-
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Consider the following statements about Lavender Cultivation
- It is a small, perennial aromatic herb shrub used in the fragrance, specialty food, and alternative medicine industries.
- It grows best in neutral to alkaline soil which is free-draining.
- It can produce well with an annual rainfall range from 300 to 1400 mm per year.
- It is a hard and temperate plant that can tolerate drought and frost conditions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
- Lavender is a small, perennial aromatic herb shrub used in the fragrance, specialty food, and alternative medicine industries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is a crop native to Europe but was introduced in the temperate regions of Jammu &Kashmir state by the CSIR Aroma Mission.
- It can be propagated through seeds, rooted cuttings, tissue culture, and layering.
- It grows best in neutral to alkaline soil which is free-draining. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It can grow well in light well-aerated soil rich with organic matter.
- It is very sensitive to waterlogging however can go well with poor or eroded soil.
- It can produce well with an annual rainfall range from 300 to 1400 mm per year. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The ideal climatic conditions are cool winters and cool summers. It requires a good amount of sunlight.
- It can be grown in areas that experience snowfall and have a hilly terrain.
- It is a hard and temperate plant that can tolerate drought and frost conditions. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
- Lavender is a small, perennial aromatic herb shrub used in the fragrance, specialty food, and alternative medicine industries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is a crop native to Europe but was introduced in the temperate regions of Jammu &Kashmir state by the CSIR Aroma Mission.
- It can be propagated through seeds, rooted cuttings, tissue culture, and layering.
- It grows best in neutral to alkaline soil which is free-draining. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It can grow well in light well-aerated soil rich with organic matter.
- It is very sensitive to waterlogging however can go well with poor or eroded soil.
- It can produce well with an annual rainfall range from 300 to 1400 mm per year. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The ideal climatic conditions are cool winters and cool summers. It requires a good amount of sunlight.
- It can be grown in areas that experience snowfall and have a hilly terrain.
- It is a hard and temperate plant that can tolerate drought and frost conditions. Hence statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Consider the following statements about the Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary
- It is located in the Lower Subansiri District of Assam.
- Pange, Sipu, Karing, and Subansiri are the rivers that flow through it.
- It has a stunning spectrum of subtropical and alpine forests.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- The Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Lower Subansiri District of Arunachal Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Pange, Sipu, Karing, and Subansiri are the rivers that flow through it. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It has a stunning spectrum of subtropical and alpine forests. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It includes silver fir trees, ferns, orchids, bamboo, and rhododendrons.
Note: A rare butterfly species named Neptis philyra has been recently discovered for the first time in India in Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- The Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Lower Subansiri District of Arunachal Pradesh. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Pange, Sipu, Karing, and Subansiri are the rivers that flow through it. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It has a stunning spectrum of subtropical and alpine forests. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It includes silver fir trees, ferns, orchids, bamboo, and rhododendrons.
Note: A rare butterfly species named Neptis philyra has been recently discovered for the first time in India in Tale Valley Wildlife Sanctuary.
-
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Consider the following statements:
- A partnership firm is a business entity where two or more individuals come together to manage and operate a business.
- The Indian Partnership Act of 1932 defines partnership as a profit-sharing relation between two or more partners.
- A particular partnership is when all the partners hold equal rights and participate in the decision-making and management of the firm.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- A partnership firm is a business entity where two or more individuals come together to manage and operate a business. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The partners pool their resources, knowledge, and skills to achieve common business goals.
- It is a widely preferred form of business, primarily due to its simplicity and ease of formation.
- The partnership business includes any kind of trade, occupation, and profession.
- The Indian Partnership Act of 1932 defines partnership as a profit-sharing relation between two or more partners. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The duties and responsibilities of the partners, along with profit sharing, are defined in an agreement or deed known as a Partnership Agreement.
- A general partnership is when all the partners hold equal rights and participate in the decision-making and management of the firm.
- A particular partnership is formed to manage and run a particular business or venture. When a particular purpose is served, the partnership can be dissolved. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- A partnership firm is a business entity where two or more individuals come together to manage and operate a business. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The partners pool their resources, knowledge, and skills to achieve common business goals.
- It is a widely preferred form of business, primarily due to its simplicity and ease of formation.
- The partnership business includes any kind of trade, occupation, and profession.
- The Indian Partnership Act of 1932 defines partnership as a profit-sharing relation between two or more partners. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The duties and responsibilities of the partners, along with profit sharing, are defined in an agreement or deed known as a Partnership Agreement.
- A general partnership is when all the partners hold equal rights and participate in the decision-making and management of the firm.
- A particular partnership is formed to manage and run a particular business or venture. When a particular purpose is served, the partnership can be dissolved. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Consider the following statements about Sodium cyanide (NaCN)
- It contains equal numbers of sodium cations and cyanide anions.
- It is used as an insecticide and as a test reagent for the function of chemoreceptors.
- It is used in the extraction of gold and silver from their respective ores.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- Sodium cyanide (NaCN) contains equal numbers of sodium cations and cyanide anions. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It appears as a white crystalline solid, lumps solid, or powder.
- It is used as an insecticide and as a test reagent for the function of chemoreceptors. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is used in electroplating and the heat treatment of metals, and in manufacturing insecticides, dyes, pigments, bulk drugs, etc.
- It is used in the extraction of gold and silver from their respective ores. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- Sodium cyanide (NaCN) contains equal numbers of sodium cations and cyanide anions. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It appears as a white crystalline solid, lumps solid, or powder.
- It is used as an insecticide and as a test reagent for the function of chemoreceptors. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is used in electroplating and the heat treatment of metals, and in manufacturing insecticides, dyes, pigments, bulk drugs, etc.
- It is used in the extraction of gold and silver from their respective ores. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Atmospheric Wave Experiment’:
- AWE is a first of its kind experimental attempt aimed at studying the interactions between terrestrial and space weather.
- AWE will be launched and mounted on the exterior of the Earth-orbiting International Space Station.
- AWE will perform focused mapping of the colourful airglows in the Earth’s atmosphere.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- AWE is a first-of-its-kind experimental attempt aimed at studying the interactions between terrestrial and Space weather. Mission will study the links between how waves in the lower layers of the atmosphere impact the upper atmosphere, and thus, Space weather. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)
- AWE will be launched and mounted on the exterior of the Earth-orbiting International Space Station (ISS). From the vantage point, it will look down at the Earth and record the colourful light bands, commonly known as airglow. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)
- AWE will perform focused mapping of the colourful airglows in the Earth’s atmosphere. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- AWE is a first-of-its-kind experimental attempt aimed at studying the interactions between terrestrial and Space weather. Mission will study the links between how waves in the lower layers of the atmosphere impact the upper atmosphere, and thus, Space weather. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)
- AWE will be launched and mounted on the exterior of the Earth-orbiting International Space Station (ISS). From the vantage point, it will look down at the Earth and record the colourful light bands, commonly known as airglow. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)
- AWE will perform focused mapping of the colourful airglows in the Earth’s atmosphere. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)
-
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Arrange the following steps in ascending order to follow De-extinction process:
- Identifying Primordial Germ Cells (PGCs)
- Developing Interspecies Surrogates
- Performing Genetic comparison with closest relative
- Complete Genome Sequencing
Choose the correct code from below options.
Correct
Solution (d)
- To De-extinct a species, the first thing required is accurate and complete genetic information. This is known as a species genome; each genome contains all of the information needed to build that organism and allow it to grow and develop.
- Dodo’s entire genome is being compared to the genome of the Rodrigues solitaire, the dodo’s closest (also extinct) relative to identify just what makes a dodo, a dodo.
- Nicobar pigeon, the dodo’s closest extant relative, and found its primordial germ cells (PGCs). PGCs are basically embryonic precursors of a species sperm and egg.
- In theory, when the chicken and rooster reproduce (Interspecies surrogates), they will give birth to a dodo offspring.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
- To De-extinct a species, the first thing required is accurate and complete genetic information. This is known as a species genome; each genome contains all of the information needed to build that organism and allow it to grow and develop.
- Dodo’s entire genome is being compared to the genome of the Rodrigues solitaire, the dodo’s closest (also extinct) relative to identify just what makes a dodo, a dodo.
- Nicobar pigeon, the dodo’s closest extant relative, and found its primordial germ cells (PGCs). PGCs are basically embryonic precursors of a species sperm and egg.
- In theory, when the chicken and rooster reproduce (Interspecies surrogates), they will give birth to a dodo offspring.
-
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Which of the following statements best describes ‘Skywave communication’?
Correct
Solution (b)
- Radio waves of certain high frequencies are reflected back to the ground by ionosphere which facilitates long distance high frequency communication beyond the horizon, known as Skywave Communications. (Hence option a is incorrect)
- Skywave communication utilizes the ionosphere, a layer within the Earth’s atmosphere, to reflect radio waves. By transmitting radio waves into the ionosphere at a specific angle, they undergo refraction and are redirected back towards the Earth’s surface. (Hence option b is correct)
- Skywave communication uses radio frequency signals for data transmission. (Hence option c is incorrect)
- This unique phenomenon facilitates extended-distance communication, proving particularly advantageous for over-the-horizon and international communication. (Hence option d is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- Radio waves of certain high frequencies are reflected back to the ground by ionosphere which facilitates long distance high frequency communication beyond the horizon, known as Skywave Communications. (Hence option a is incorrect)
- Skywave communication utilizes the ionosphere, a layer within the Earth’s atmosphere, to reflect radio waves. By transmitting radio waves into the ionosphere at a specific angle, they undergo refraction and are redirected back towards the Earth’s surface. (Hence option b is correct)
- Skywave communication uses radio frequency signals for data transmission. (Hence option c is incorrect)
- This unique phenomenon facilitates extended-distance communication, proving particularly advantageous for over-the-horizon and international communication. (Hence option d is incorrect)
-
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
Consider the following statements about TSAT-1A
- It is an optical sub-metre-resolution Earth observation satellite.
- It was launched by ISRO’s GSLV MK III from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (a)
- TSAT-1A is an optical sub-metre-resolution Earth observation satellite. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Its core strength lies in its ability to capture military-grade imagery of Earth’s surface with sub-meter resolution.
- It is equipped with both multispectral and hyperspectral imaging capabilities. This technology allows TSAT-1A to collect data across a wide range of wavelengths within the electromagnetic spectrum, providing a deeper and more nuanced understanding of land, water, and various natural resources.
- It boasts greater collection capacity, a wider dynamic range (the ability to capture detail in both very bright and very dark areas), and low-latency delivery of data.
- It was built by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in collaboration with Latin American company Satellogic Inc., following a collaboration agreement between the two companies in late November 2023.
- TSAT-1A was assembled in TASL’s Assembly, Integration, and Testing (AIT) plant at its Vemagal facility in Karnataka.
- It was launched by SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket from the Kennedy Space Center, Florida, in the US. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
- TSAT-1A is an optical sub-metre-resolution Earth observation satellite. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Its core strength lies in its ability to capture military-grade imagery of Earth’s surface with sub-meter resolution.
- It is equipped with both multispectral and hyperspectral imaging capabilities. This technology allows TSAT-1A to collect data across a wide range of wavelengths within the electromagnetic spectrum, providing a deeper and more nuanced understanding of land, water, and various natural resources.
- It boasts greater collection capacity, a wider dynamic range (the ability to capture detail in both very bright and very dark areas), and low-latency delivery of data.
- It was built by Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) in collaboration with Latin American company Satellogic Inc., following a collaboration agreement between the two companies in late November 2023.
- TSAT-1A was assembled in TASL’s Assembly, Integration, and Testing (AIT) plant at its Vemagal facility in Karnataka.
- It was launched by SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket from the Kennedy Space Center, Florida, in the US. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
-
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
What is the primary mechanism of action for Abaucin, a compound with narrow-spectrum antibiotic properties effective against Acinetobacter baumannii?
Correct
Solution (b)
- Abaucin is a compound that shows useful activity as a narrow-spectrum antibiotic. It has been found to be effective against Acinetobacter baumannii.
- It disrupts the normal function of the CCR2 protein in bacteria. This disruption hinders the movement of certain molecules inside the bacteria, preventing them from reaching the outer membrane. As a result, the growth of Acinetobacter baumannii is inhibited, reducing its ability to cause infections. (Hence Option b is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- Abaucin is a compound that shows useful activity as a narrow-spectrum antibiotic. It has been found to be effective against Acinetobacter baumannii.
- It disrupts the normal function of the CCR2 protein in bacteria. This disruption hinders the movement of certain molecules inside the bacteria, preventing them from reaching the outer membrane. As a result, the growth of Acinetobacter baumannii is inhibited, reducing its ability to cause infections. (Hence Option b is correct)
-
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
‘Specific Absorption Rate’ terminology was in discussion recently. Which of the following option describes it correctly?
Correct
Solution (a)
- France’s Agence Nationale des Fréquences (ANFR) asked Apple to halt iPhone12 sales in France after tests that it said showed the phone’s Specific Absorption Rate (SAR)- a gauge of the rate of radiofrequency energy absorbed by the body from a piece of equipment – was higher than legally allowed. (Hence option a is correct)
- The limits – based on the risk of burns or heatstroke from the phone’s radiation – are already set ten times below the level where scientists found evidence of harm.
- The European standard is a specific absorption rate of 4.0 watts per kilogram.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
- France’s Agence Nationale des Fréquences (ANFR) asked Apple to halt iPhone12 sales in France after tests that it said showed the phone’s Specific Absorption Rate (SAR)- a gauge of the rate of radiofrequency energy absorbed by the body from a piece of equipment – was higher than legally allowed. (Hence option a is correct)
- The limits – based on the risk of burns or heatstroke from the phone’s radiation – are already set ten times below the level where scientists found evidence of harm.
- The European standard is a specific absorption rate of 4.0 watts per kilogram.
-
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
In how many ways can the letters of the word, ‘LANGUAGE‘ be arranged in such a way that the vowels always come together?
Correct
Solution (c)
In the word ‘LANGUAGE‘ we treat the vowels AUAE as one letter.
Thus, we have LNGG (AUAE).
Thus, we have 5 letters of which G occurs 2 times and the rest are different.
Number of ways arranging these letters= 5!/2! =5*4*3= 60
Now, 4 letters of which A occurs 2 times and the rest are different, can be arranged in 4!/2! = 4*3=12.
Therefore, required number of ways= 60*12= 720
Incorrect
Solution (c)
In the word ‘LANGUAGE‘ we treat the vowels AUAE as one letter.
Thus, we have LNGG (AUAE).
Thus, we have 5 letters of which G occurs 2 times and the rest are different.
Number of ways arranging these letters= 5!/2! =5*4*3= 60
Now, 4 letters of which A occurs 2 times and the rest are different, can be arranged in 4!/2! = 4*3=12.
Therefore, required number of ways= 60*12= 720
-
Question 32 of 35
32. Question
A team of seven players is to be formed from eight boys and seven girls such that there are atleast four boys in the team. In how many ways the team can be formed?
Correct
Solution (b)
The possible combination of boys and girls is (4, 3), (5, 2) or (6, 1).
∴ Number of ways = (8C4 × 7C3) + (8C5 × 7C2) + (8C6 × 7C1)
= (70 × 35) + (56 × 21) + (28 × 7)
= 2450 + 1176 + 196 = 3822
Hence, option b.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The possible combination of boys and girls is (4, 3), (5, 2) or (6, 1).
∴ Number of ways = (8C4 × 7C3) + (8C5 × 7C2) + (8C6 × 7C1)
= (70 × 35) + (56 × 21) + (28 × 7)
= 2450 + 1176 + 196 = 3822
Hence, option b.
-
Question 33 of 35
33. Question
The sum of five consecutive even and four consecutive odd numbers is 96. Find the difference between the highest even number and the lowest odd number if the smallest even number is 4?
Correct
Solution (a)
Sum of 5 consecutive even numbers and 4 consecutive odd numbers = 96
Smallest even number = 4
So, 5 consecutive even numbers are 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12
Let the smallest odd number be ‘x’
4 odd numbers = x + (x+2) + (x+4) + (x+6)
Now, according to the question,
4+ 6+8+10+12+x +x+2+x+4+x+6 = 96
40 + 4x + 12 = 96
4x + 52 = 96
4x = 44
X = 11
Lowest odd number = 11
Highest even number = 12
Difference = 12 – 11 = 1
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Sum of 5 consecutive even numbers and 4 consecutive odd numbers = 96
Smallest even number = 4
So, 5 consecutive even numbers are 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12
Let the smallest odd number be ‘x’
4 odd numbers = x + (x+2) + (x+4) + (x+6)
Now, according to the question,
4+ 6+8+10+12+x +x+2+x+4+x+6 = 96
40 + 4x + 12 = 96
4x + 52 = 96
4x = 44
X = 11
Lowest odd number = 11
Highest even number = 12
Difference = 12 – 11 = 1
-
Question 34 of 35
34. Question
If ‘a’ and ‘b’ are two positive integers such that the least prime factor of ‘a’ is 5 and the least prime factor of ‘b’ is 7 , then the least prime factor of (a+b) is
Correct
Solution (b)
‘a’ is a positive integer and 5 is the least prime factor of a
Also, ‘b’ is a positive integer and 7 is the least prime factor of b
Since, the least prime factor of ‘a’ is 5, it implies that it is an odd number
Similarly, ‘b’ is also an odd number and we know that odd + odd = even
Now, a + b = even
So, the least prime factor of (a+b) is 2.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
‘a’ is a positive integer and 5 is the least prime factor of a
Also, ‘b’ is a positive integer and 7 is the least prime factor of b
Since, the least prime factor of ‘a’ is 5, it implies that it is an odd number
Similarly, ‘b’ is also an odd number and we know that odd + odd = even
Now, a + b = even
So, the least prime factor of (a+b) is 2.
-
Question 35 of 35
35. Question
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight friends, of which A, B, C and D are male while E, F, G and H are female. The average food consumption for all males is 72 kg and that for all females is 50 kg. When T, a female, joins the group, the average food consumption for the whole group becomes 67 kg. What is the average food consumption for all females in the group now?
Correct
Solution (a)
Original total consumption of the group = (72 × 4) + (50 × 4) = 288 + 200 = 488 kg
Total consumption of the group after T joins = 67 × 9 = 603 kg
∴ T’s consumption = 603 – 488 = 115 kg
∴ Total consumption for all five females = 115 + (50 × 4) = 315 kg
∴ Required average consumption = 315/5 = 63 kg
Hence, option a.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Original total consumption of the group = (72 × 4) + (50 × 4) = 288 + 200 = 488 kg
Total consumption of the group after T joins = 67 × 9 = 603 kg
∴ T’s consumption = 603 – 488 = 115 kg
∴ Total consumption for all five females = 115 + (50 × 4) = 315 kg
∴ Required average consumption = 315/5 = 63 kg
Hence, option a.
All the Best
IASbaba