IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements about Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
- It not only provides for the ceremonies and registration for Hindu marriage but also lays down rules regarding Divorce.
- The act brought an end to the customary practice of bigamy, polygamy, or polyandry.
- A marriage is invalid or illegal due to lack of an official certificate.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect · It codifies the law relating to marriage among Hindus. · It not only provides for the ceremonies and registration for Hindu marriage but also lays down rules regarding Divorce.
Salient Features:
· A Hindu by birth or by conversion is the subject of the HMA Act.
· The definition of Hindu under the HMA Act includes Buddhist, Jain, and Sikh as well.
Marriageable age:
· The bridegroom must be at least 21 years old, and the bride must be at least 18 years old when they get married.
· Marriage among minors is punishable with imprisonment upto 3 years and/or fine upto Rs 1 lakh.
Forbidding bigamy: · It also brought an end to the customary practice of bigamy, polygamy, or polyandry, i.e, multiple marriages.
· Section 5 of the Act specifies that it is illegal to have two living wives at once, which is known as bigamy.
· If one spouse is alive and the person remarries, such marriage is not only void, but the person is also punishable under Sections 494 and 495 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
Focus on mental stability:
· A marriage is considered null and void if anyone one or both the people get married being mentally unfit.
· In such cases, the couple must get legal consent before getting married.
· Restitution of conjugal rights:
· Unlike any other matrimonial laws in India, the HMA Act also contains provisions for restitution of conjugal rights.
· So, if one of the spouses leaves the other without any reasonable excuse, the other spouse may reach the courtto restore their matrimonial relations and bring back the spouse.
Registration: · Registration of a Hindu marriage is subject to laws applicable in particular states.
· However, a marriage is not invalid or illegal due to lack of an official certificate.
Divorce:
· The Act also allows divorce through mutual consent.
· Although parties are legally not allowed to seek divorce within 1 year of marriage, they can go for judicial separation.
· However, divorce may be granted before completion of 1 year in special circumstances of exceptional hardship.
· It provides for the various grounds on the basis of which, divorce can be granted to one of the spouses if another does not agree to separate.
· There are special grounds which specifically allow the wife to seek divorce from her husband.
Context: The Supreme Court recently said mere registration of marriage in absence of a proper ceremony would not be valid under the Hindu Marriage Act.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect · It codifies the law relating to marriage among Hindus. · It not only provides for the ceremonies and registration for Hindu marriage but also lays down rules regarding Divorce.
Salient Features:
· A Hindu by birth or by conversion is the subject of the HMA Act.
· The definition of Hindu under the HMA Act includes Buddhist, Jain, and Sikh as well.
Marriageable age:
· The bridegroom must be at least 21 years old, and the bride must be at least 18 years old when they get married.
· Marriage among minors is punishable with imprisonment upto 3 years and/or fine upto Rs 1 lakh.
Forbidding bigamy: · It also brought an end to the customary practice of bigamy, polygamy, or polyandry, i.e, multiple marriages.
· Section 5 of the Act specifies that it is illegal to have two living wives at once, which is known as bigamy.
· If one spouse is alive and the person remarries, such marriage is not only void, but the person is also punishable under Sections 494 and 495 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860.
Focus on mental stability:
· A marriage is considered null and void if anyone one or both the people get married being mentally unfit.
· In such cases, the couple must get legal consent before getting married.
· Restitution of conjugal rights:
· Unlike any other matrimonial laws in India, the HMA Act also contains provisions for restitution of conjugal rights.
· So, if one of the spouses leaves the other without any reasonable excuse, the other spouse may reach the courtto restore their matrimonial relations and bring back the spouse.
Registration: · Registration of a Hindu marriage is subject to laws applicable in particular states.
· However, a marriage is not invalid or illegal due to lack of an official certificate.
Divorce:
· The Act also allows divorce through mutual consent.
· Although parties are legally not allowed to seek divorce within 1 year of marriage, they can go for judicial separation.
· However, divorce may be granted before completion of 1 year in special circumstances of exceptional hardship.
· It provides for the various grounds on the basis of which, divorce can be granted to one of the spouses if another does not agree to separate.
· There are special grounds which specifically allow the wife to seek divorce from her husband.
Context: The Supreme Court recently said mere registration of marriage in absence of a proper ceremony would not be valid under the Hindu Marriage Act.
-
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Consider the following statements about Five Eyes Intelligence-sharing Network
- It is a multilateral intelligence-sharing network shared by over 20 different agencies of five English-speaking countries.
- Australia, Canada, Israel, the United Kingdom and the United States are the member countries of the Network.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect · It is a multilateral intelligence-sharing network shared by over 20 different agencies of five English-speaking countries · It is both surveillance-based and signals intelligence (SIGINT).
· Its genesis lies in the post-war 1946 UKUSA Agreement, intended as a cooperative arrangement for sharing signals intelligence (SIGINT).
· Over time, this partnership has extended its reach, becoming an integral part of global intelligence and security operations.
· Its scope was limited to “communication intelligence matters only” related to “unrestricted” exchange of intelligence products in six areas:
· Collection of traffic; acquisition of communication documents and equipment; traffic analysis; cryptanalysis; decryption and translation; and acquisition of information regarding communication organisations, practices, procedures, and equipment.
· It is a multilateral intelligence-sharing network shared by over 20 different agencies of five English-speaking countries — Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States. · Intelligence documents shared between the members countries are classified as ‘Secret—AUS/CAN/NZ/UK/US Eyes Only,’ which gave the group its title ‘Five Eyes.
· The arrangement was later extended to ‘second party’ countries —Canada joined in 1948, while Australia and New Zealand became part of the alliance in 1956.
Context: Recently, 4 countries on 3 continents, which are part of the Five Eyes intelligence-sharing network, accused India for running espionage operations and India has denied the allegations.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect · It is a multilateral intelligence-sharing network shared by over 20 different agencies of five English-speaking countries · It is both surveillance-based and signals intelligence (SIGINT).
· Its genesis lies in the post-war 1946 UKUSA Agreement, intended as a cooperative arrangement for sharing signals intelligence (SIGINT).
· Over time, this partnership has extended its reach, becoming an integral part of global intelligence and security operations.
· Its scope was limited to “communication intelligence matters only” related to “unrestricted” exchange of intelligence products in six areas:
· Collection of traffic; acquisition of communication documents and equipment; traffic analysis; cryptanalysis; decryption and translation; and acquisition of information regarding communication organisations, practices, procedures, and equipment.
· It is a multilateral intelligence-sharing network shared by over 20 different agencies of five English-speaking countries — Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom and the United States. · Intelligence documents shared between the members countries are classified as ‘Secret—AUS/CAN/NZ/UK/US Eyes Only,’ which gave the group its title ‘Five Eyes.
· The arrangement was later extended to ‘second party’ countries —Canada joined in 1948, while Australia and New Zealand became part of the alliance in 1956.
Context: Recently, 4 countries on 3 continents, which are part of the Five Eyes intelligence-sharing network, accused India for running espionage operations and India has denied the allegations.
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements about UN Commission on Population and Development
- It was established by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) in 1946.
- Member countries are elected by the UN General Assembly for a period of four years on the basis of geographic distribution.
- The meetings of commission are held regularly every two years once.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect · It was established by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) in 1946, which was renamed as the Commission on Population and Development by the General Assembly in 1994. · Members: It is composed of 47 member countries.
· Term: Member countries are elected by the Economic and Social Council for a period of four years on the basis of geographic distribution. · It was constituted as a three-tiered intergovernmental mechanism that plays the primary role in the follow-up to the implementation of the programme of action at the national, regional and international levels and advise the Council thereon.
· The meetings of commission were held typically every two or three years until 1994, after which it was held once a year. United Nations Population Fund
· It is an international development agency created in 1968 to support the execution of projects and programmes in the area of population and sexual and reproductive health.
· In 1987, it was officially renamed as the United Nations Population Fund but the original abbreviation UNFPA (United Nations Fund for Population Activities) was retained.
· It is not directly responsible for the collection of primary statistics; it plays an important role in the technical and financial support of statistical activities in countries, such as population censuses and thematic surveys etc.
Context: The Permanent Mission of India to the United Nations and the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with the United Nations Population Fund is organizing event titled “Localizing the SDGs: Women in Local Governance in India Lead the Way” during the 57th Session of the Commission on Population and Development (CPD57).
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect · It was established by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) in 1946, which was renamed as the Commission on Population and Development by the General Assembly in 1994. · Members: It is composed of 47 member countries.
· Term: Member countries are elected by the Economic and Social Council for a period of four years on the basis of geographic distribution. · It was constituted as a three-tiered intergovernmental mechanism that plays the primary role in the follow-up to the implementation of the programme of action at the national, regional and international levels and advise the Council thereon.
· The meetings of commission were held typically every two or three years until 1994, after which it was held once a year. United Nations Population Fund
· It is an international development agency created in 1968 to support the execution of projects and programmes in the area of population and sexual and reproductive health.
· In 1987, it was officially renamed as the United Nations Population Fund but the original abbreviation UNFPA (United Nations Fund for Population Activities) was retained.
· It is not directly responsible for the collection of primary statistics; it plays an important role in the technical and financial support of statistical activities in countries, such as population censuses and thematic surveys etc.
Context: The Permanent Mission of India to the United Nations and the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, in collaboration with the United Nations Population Fund is organizing event titled “Localizing the SDGs: Women in Local Governance in India Lead the Way” during the 57th Session of the Commission on Population and Development (CPD57).
-
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Which of the following article confers immunity to the President and Governors of the states?
Correct
Solution (d)
Option d Correct · Article 361 deals with immunity to the President and the Governors of the states. · The provisions under the article 361 are:
· No criminal proceedings shall be initiated or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during the term of his office.
· No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or the Governor of a State, shall issue from any court during his term of office.
· However, this immunity is not absolute and there are certain exceptions, which ensure that these authorities can be held accountable in specific circumstances.
· One such exception is the impeachment process.
· Additionally, if these authorities commit any criminal offense during their term of office, they can be prosecuted once their term ends.
· Various scenario of Governors under complete immunity – The case against West Bengal Governor C.V. Ananda Bose is on hold due to his immunity.
· In the landmark 2006 ruling in Rameshwar Prasad v Union of India, the court said that the Governors can’t be prosecuted for anything, even if they’re accused of wrongdoing while in office.
· In the Babri Masjid case, charges against Kalyan Singh were delayed while he was Governor of Rajasthan.
· Though Article 361 provides immunity, there have been instances where Governors resigned after allegations surfaced (e.g., V. Shanmuganathan [Meghalaya Governorin 2017] and N.D. Tiwari [Andhra Pradesh Governor in 2019]).
Context: Recently there was compliant made against the C V Ananda Bose, governor of west Bengal for sexual harassment.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Option d Correct · Article 361 deals with immunity to the President and the Governors of the states. · The provisions under the article 361 are:
· No criminal proceedings shall be initiated or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during the term of his office.
· No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President, or the Governor of a State, shall issue from any court during his term of office.
· However, this immunity is not absolute and there are certain exceptions, which ensure that these authorities can be held accountable in specific circumstances.
· One such exception is the impeachment process.
· Additionally, if these authorities commit any criminal offense during their term of office, they can be prosecuted once their term ends.
· Various scenario of Governors under complete immunity – The case against West Bengal Governor C.V. Ananda Bose is on hold due to his immunity.
· In the landmark 2006 ruling in Rameshwar Prasad v Union of India, the court said that the Governors can’t be prosecuted for anything, even if they’re accused of wrongdoing while in office.
· In the Babri Masjid case, charges against Kalyan Singh were delayed while he was Governor of Rajasthan.
· Though Article 361 provides immunity, there have been instances where Governors resigned after allegations surfaced (e.g., V. Shanmuganathan [Meghalaya Governorin 2017] and N.D. Tiwari [Andhra Pradesh Governor in 2019]).
Context: Recently there was compliant made against the C V Ananda Bose, governor of west Bengal for sexual harassment.
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Consider the following statements about Corporate Sustainability Due Diligence Directive (CSDDD)
- It is a set of directives to large companies to prevent, end or mitigate their adverse impact on human rights and the environment.
- The Corporate Sustainability Due Diligence Directive is a European Union (EU) law.
- Companies will also have to adopt a transition plan to make their business model compatible with the Paris Agreement global warming limit of 1.5°C.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct · It is a set of directives to large companies to prevent, end or mitigate their adverse impact on human rights and the environment. · The directive is built upon previous calls for corporate accountability and complements existing and forthcoming legislation aimed at addressing issues like deforestation, conflict minerals and forced labour.
· Requirements for firms – Covered firms must integrate due diligence into their policies, invest in related measures, seek assurances from partners.
· The Corporate Sustainability Due Diligence Directive is a European Union (EU) law. · It reflects the European Parliament’s commitment to addressing citizens’ concerns about sustainable consumption and promoting a more ethical and sustainable growth model.
· Scope of CSDDD – The directive applies to EU companies and parent companies with over 1000 employees and a worldwide turnover higher than 450 million euros.
· It also includes non-EU companies meeting similar turnover thresholds in the EU, as well as companies with franchising or licensing agreements in the EU.
· Enforcement – Member states will establish supervisory authorities to ensure compliance, with penalties for non-compliance including fines of up to 5% of companies’ net worldwide turnover. · Companies are also liable for damages resulting from breaches of their due diligence obligations and must fully compensate victims.
· Timeline – The directive will be gradually implemented based on the size of companies, starting from 2027 for larger companies and extending to all covered firms by 2029.
Context: Recently the European Parliament approved the new “due diligence” directive, agreed on with the Council, requiring firms to prevent, end or mitigate their adverse impact on human rights and the environment.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct · It is a set of directives to large companies to prevent, end or mitigate their adverse impact on human rights and the environment. · The directive is built upon previous calls for corporate accountability and complements existing and forthcoming legislation aimed at addressing issues like deforestation, conflict minerals and forced labour.
· Requirements for firms – Covered firms must integrate due diligence into their policies, invest in related measures, seek assurances from partners.
· The Corporate Sustainability Due Diligence Directive is a European Union (EU) law. · It reflects the European Parliament’s commitment to addressing citizens’ concerns about sustainable consumption and promoting a more ethical and sustainable growth model.
· Scope of CSDDD – The directive applies to EU companies and parent companies with over 1000 employees and a worldwide turnover higher than 450 million euros.
· It also includes non-EU companies meeting similar turnover thresholds in the EU, as well as companies with franchising or licensing agreements in the EU.
· Enforcement – Member states will establish supervisory authorities to ensure compliance, with penalties for non-compliance including fines of up to 5% of companies’ net worldwide turnover. · Companies are also liable for damages resulting from breaches of their due diligence obligations and must fully compensate victims.
· Timeline – The directive will be gradually implemented based on the size of companies, starting from 2027 for larger companies and extending to all covered firms by 2029.
Context: Recently the European Parliament approved the new “due diligence” directive, agreed on with the Council, requiring firms to prevent, end or mitigate their adverse impact on human rights and the environment.
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