[DAY 24] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

 Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• GRIHA is an acronym for Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment. GRIHA is a  Sanskrit word meaning ‘Abode.’ It is a rating tool that helps people assesses the  performance of their building against certain nationally acceptable benchmarks. It  evaluates the environmental performance of a building holistically over its entire life  cycle, thereby providing a definitive standard for what constitutes a ‘green building.’  Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

• The GRIHA rating system, based on accepted energy and environmental principles is  developed by TERI (The Energy and Resources Institute) and it has been adopted by  the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy. It assesses a building out of 34 criteria and  awards points on a scale of 100. In order to qualify for GRIHA certification, a project  must achieve at least 50 points. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• The Ramsar Convention is an intergovernmental treaty, adopted on 2nd February  1971, in the Iranian city of Ramsar, on the southern shore of the Caspian Sea. To  commemorate the adoption of this international agreement on wetlands, World  Wetlands Day is celebrated on 2nd February every year. The theme of World Wetland  Day, 2024 is ‘Wetlands and Human Wellbeing’ which underscores the critical role  wetlands play in enhancing our lives. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) is the United Nations body for  assessing the science related to climate change. It is an intergovernmental body of the  UN constituted to advance scientific knowledge about climate change caused by  human activities. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The IPCC prepares comprehensive Assessment Reports about the state of scientific,  technical and socio-economic knowledge on climate change, its impacts and future  risks, and options for reducing the rate at which climate change is taking place. The  latest report is the Sixth (not sixteenth) Assessment Report which consists of three  Working Group contributions and a Synthesis Report. Hence, statement 2 is  INCORRECT. 

• The IPCC does not itself undertake scientific assessments but only evaluates the state  of scientific evidence on various aspects of climate change. It has 195 member states  who elect a bureau of scientists to serve through an assessment cycle and the bureau  selects experts to prepare IPCC reports. Hence, statement 3 is INCORRECT.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• The 1972 United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, also known as the  Stockholm Declaration, contained 26 principles, and placed environmental issues at  the forefront of international concerns and marked the start of a dialogue between  industrialized and developing countries on the link between economic growth, the  pollution of the air, water, and oceans and the well-being of people around the world.  Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), which  was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992 was also known as the ‘Earth Summit.’ It  concluded that the concept of sustainable development was an attainable goal for all  the people of the world, regardless of whether they were at the local, national,  regional or international level. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 

• The 1972 United Nations Conference on the Human Environment in Stockholm was  the first world conference to make the environment a major issue. The participants  adopted a series of principles for sound management of the environment including  the Stockholm Declaration and Action Plan for the Human Environment and several  resolutions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d) 

Explanation: 

• The UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) aims to protect and restore  land, and combat desertification and drought. It is the only convention stemming from  a direct recommendation of the Rio Conference’s Agenda 21. It was adopted in Paris,  France, in June 1994 and entered into force in December 1996. Hence, statement 1 is  correct. 
• It is the only internationally legally binding framework set up to address the problem  of desertification. The Convention is based on the principles of participation,  partnership and decentralization- the backbone of good governance and sustainable  development. It has 197 parties, making it near universal in reach. Hence, statement  2 is correct. 

• Its permanent Secretariat is located in Bonn, Germany. The functions of the secretariat  are to make arrangements for sessions of the Conference of the Parties (COP) and its  subsidiary bodies established under the Convention, and to provide them with services  as required. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the leading global authority on  the environment. Through scientific studies, policy support, intergovernmental  coordination and public advocacy, UNEP helps humanity to foster climate stability, live  in harmony with nature and forge a pollution-free future, in line with the 2030 Agenda  for Sustainable Development. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• On 15 December, 1972, the 27th session of the UN General Assembly officially adopted  Nairobi as UNEP’s home base, making it the first UN headquarters in the Global South.  This decision responded to a strong call from countries in the Global South to locate the fledgling agency in the developing world, which would have a crucial role to play  in the environmental movement to follow. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

• Emission Gap Report, Adaptation Gap Report, Global Environment Outlook are the  major reports released by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). Some of  the major campaigns launched by UNEP include Beat Pollution, UN75, World  Environment Day, Wild for Life. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d) 

Explanation: 

• National Forest Policy of India, 1988 envisages a goal of achieving 33% of the  geographical area of the country under forest and tree cover. The National Forest  Policy, 1988 was brought as an Act of the Parliament of India to revise the previously  enacted National Forest Policy of 1952. It strongly suggested the idea of empowering  and involving local communities in the protection and development of forests. Hence,  statement 1 is not correct.

IASBABA’S DAY 24 – 60 DAYS PLAN DONE 

• India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is a biennial publication of Forest Survey of India  (FSI), an organization under the Ministry of Environment Forest & Climate Change. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 

• Forest cover includes all lands having trees of more than one hectare in an area with a  tree canopy density of more than 10%, irrespective of ownership, the legal status of  the land, and species composition of trees. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an  international agreement which aims to ensure the safe handling, transport and use of  living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology that may have  adverse effects on biological diversity, taking also into account risks to human health.  It was adopted on 29 January 2000 and entered into force on 11 September 2003.  Hence, option b is the correct option.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is the landmark  multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption  of nearly 100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS).  Under the Kigali Amendment; Parties to the Montreal Protocol will phase down  production and consumption of Hydrofluorocarbons, commonly known as HFCs.  Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

• At the Kigali meeting, the world agreed to reduce the use of HFCs and move to  refrigerants that neither cause global warming nor create an ozone hole. Notably,  unlike Paris Agreement (where there are no repercussions for non-compliance), the  Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol is legally binding with mandatory targets  for countries. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• The triple planetary crisis refers to the three main interlinked issues that humanity  currently faces: climate change, pollution and biodiversity loss. This term underscores  the interdependence of these issues and their collective impact on the planet’s  ecosystems, societies, and economies. Each of these issues has its own causes and  effects and each issue needs to be resolved if we are to have a viable future on this  planet. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• According to ISFR 2021, The total forest and tree cover of the country is 80.9 million  hectare which is 24.62 percent of the geographical area of the country. Area-wise  Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover in the country followed by Arunachal  Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Maharashtra. In terms of forest cover as percentage  of total geographical area, the top five States are Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal  Pradesh (79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%) and Nagaland (73.90%).  Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• 30 by 30 (or 30×30) is a worldwide initiative was launched by the High Ambition  Coalition for Nature and People (HAC) in 2020 for governments to designate 30% of  Earth’s land and ocean area as protected areas by 2030. The High Ambition Coalition  (HAC) for Nature and People was launched in 2019 by Costa Rica, France and Britain  as an intergovernmental group to champion a global deal for nature and people that 

can halt the accelerating loss of species, and protect vital ecosystems. Hence, option  c is the correct answer.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• Carbon markets are a tool for putting a price on carbon emissions. It allows the trade  of carbon credits with the overall objective of bringing down emissions. These markets  create incentives to reduce emissions or improve energy efficiency. For example, an  industrial unit which outperforms the emission standards stands to gain credits.  Another unit which is struggling to attain the prescribed standards can buy these  credits and show compliance to these standards. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Article 6 of the Paris Agreement provides for the use of international carbon markets  by countries to fulfil their NDCs (Nationally Determined Contributions). NDCs are  climate commitments by countries setting targets to achieve net-zero emissions. For  example, India aims to reach the target of net zero by 2070. Hence, statement 2 is  correct. 

• A carbon credit is a kind of tradable permit that, per United Nations standards, equals  one tonne of carbon dioxide removed, reduced, or sequestered from the atmosphere.  In Carbon trading, one credit gives the country or a company the right to emit one  tonne of CO2. Carbon credits are traded at various exchanges across the world. Hence,  statement 3 is not correct.

 Solution (d) 

Explanation: 

• The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change. It  provides a durable framework guiding the global effort for decades to come. It marks  the beginning of a shift towards a net-zero emissions world. Implementation of the  Agreement is also essential for the achievement of the Sustainable Development  Goals. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The Paris Agreement was adopted by 196 Parties at the UN Climate Change  Conference (COP21) in Paris, France, on 12 December 2015. It entered into force on 4  November 2016. Today, 195 Parties (194 States plus the European Union) have joined  the Paris Agreement. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

• The Paris Agreement sets long-term goals to guide all nations to substantially reduce  global greenhouse gas emissions to hold global temperature increase to well below  2°C above pre-industrial levels and pursue efforts to limit it to 1.5°C above pre industrial levels, recognizing that this would significantly reduce the risks and impacts  of climate change. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• The Government of India articulated and put across the concerns of developing  countries at the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP26) to the United  Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Glasgow, United  Kingdom. Further, India presented the following five nectar elements (Panchamrit) of  India’s climate action: 

o Reach 500 GW non-fossil energy capacity by 2030. 

o 50 per cent of its energy requirements from renewable energy by 2030. o Reduction of total projected carbon emissions by one billion tonnes from now  to 2030. 

o Reduction of the carbon intensity of the economy by 45 per cent by 2030, over  2005 levels. 

o Achieving the target of net zero emissions by 2070. Hence, option c is the  correct answer.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• Mission LiFE was introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi—at COP26 in Glasgow  on 1 November 2021—as a mass movement for “mindful and deliberate utilization, 

IASBABA’S DAY 24 – 60 DAYS PLAN DONE 

instead of mindless and destructive consumption” to protect and preserve the  environment. According to the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), if 1  out of 8 billion people worldwide adopt environment-friendly behaviours in their daily  lives, global carbon emissions could drop up to 20%. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 

• Mission LiFE aims to nudge individuals and communities to practice a lifestyle that is  synchronous with nature and does not harm it. Those who practice such a lifestyle are  recognised as Pro Planet People. India is the first country to include LiFE in its  Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• Eco Mark is a voluntary labelling scheme for consumer products meeting Indian  environmental criteria and quality standards. The Scheme covers various product  categories like Soaps and Detergents, Paints, Food Items, Lubricating Oils,  Packing/Packaging Materials, Architectural Paints and Powder Coatings, Batteries,  Electrical and Electronic Goods, Food Additives, Wood Substitutes, Cosmetics,  Aerosols and Propellants, Plastic Products, Textiles, Fire-extinguisher, Leather and Coir  & Coir Products. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

• ECO Mark Scheme was instituted by the Government of India for labeling of  environment friendly products. It is being administered by the Bureau of Indian  Standards. The presence of ECO Logo along with ISI Mark on a product indicates that  the product meets certain Environmental criteria along with the Quality requirements  as specified in the relevant Indian Standard. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d) 

Explanation: 

• The Government of Gujarat in 2019 launched the world’s first-ever market for trading  in particulate matter emissions in the city of Surat. The project called the Emission  Trading Scheme, aims to reduce air pollution by allowing industries to ‘buy and sell’ permits for emitting particulate matter. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organisation constituted in  September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974.  Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention  and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. It also provides technical services to the Ministry  of Environment, Forests, and Climate Change (MOEFCC) under the provisions of the  Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) of India comes under the Ministry of  Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It is the apex organization in  country in the field of pollution control, as a technical wing of MoEFCC. The board is  led by its chairperson appointed by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet of  the Government of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
• The headquarter of Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is located in New Delhi,  with seven zonal offices and 5 laboratories. The board conducts environmental 

assessments and research. It is responsible for maintaining national standards under a  variety of environmental laws, in consultation with zonal offices, tribal, and local  governments. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

 Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) was designed and published  under the guidance of Prime Minister’s Council on Climate Change (PMCCC) in 2008  to mitigate and adapt to the adverse impact of climate change. Hence, statement 1 is  not correct. 
• NAPCC outlines a national strategy that aims to enable the country to adapt to climate  change and enhance the ecological sustainability of India’s development path. It  stresses that maintaining a high growth rate is essential for increasing living standards  of the vast majority of people of India and reducing their vulnerability to the impacts  of climate change. It also co-ordinates the activities of the State Board and resolve  disputes among them. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
• There are eight National Missions which form the core of the National Action Plan.  They focus on promoting understanding of climate change, adaptation and mitigation,  energy efficiency and natural resource conservation. These are: 

o National Solar Mission. 

o National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency. 

o National Mission on Sustainable Habitat. 

o National Water Mission. 

o National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan Eco-system. 

o National Mission for a Green India. 

o National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture 8. National Mission on Strategic  Knowledge for Climate Change. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Solution (b) 

Statement Analysis: 

Context: The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) held a conference of Buddhist monks  and scholars in Colombo on bequeathing Pali the status of a classical language by the Indian  government. 

• The Indian Council for Cultural Relations (ICCR) is an autonomous body  under the Ministry of External Affairs. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
• It is involved in India’s external cultural relations through cultural exchange with other  countries and their people. 
• It promotes, through its network of cultural centres, Indian culture abroad. • It was founded by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad in 1950. Hence statement 2 is correct. • Its objectives: 

o to actively participate in the formulation and implementation of policies and  programmes pertaining to India’s external cultural relations; 

o to foster and strengthen cultural relations and mutual understanding between India  and other countries; 

o to promote cultural exchanges with other countries and people; 

• It administers various scholarship programs annually under 21 different schemes to  foreign students from about 180 countries. Hence statement 3 is correct. • Amongst these 21 schemes, six are funded by ICCR from its grant, and others are  administered on behalf of MEA and the Ministry of Ayush. 

• The scholarships offer studies in a variety of courses from undergraduate to  postdoctoral level in different leading universities and educational institutions spread  all over India.

Solution (c) 

Statement Analysis: 

Context: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) said its polar-orbiting satellite EOS 06 and geostationary satellite INSAT-3DR had been tracking the cyclone, Dana. 

• EOS-06 is an Earth observation satellite developed by the Indian Space Research  Organisation (ISRO). Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
• It is part of the Oceansat series of satellites, which are designed to monitor and study  various aspects of the Earth’s oceans and coastal zones. 
• The primary objective of EOS-06 is to provide continuity to the services  of its predecessors (Oceansat-1 and Oceansat-2) with enhanced payload capabilities  to support oceanographic and atmospheric studies. 
• It was launched using ISRO’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV-C54). Hence  statement 2 is correct. 

• It has applications in ocean surface studies, coastal zone management, and marine  weather forecasting. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c) 

Statement Analysis: 

Context: Scurvy is often considered a historical ailment, conjuring images of sailors on long  sea voyages suffering from a lack of fresh fruit and vegetables. 

Hence option c is correct.

Solution (d) 

Statement Analysis: 

Context: The Kadar tribe of Vazhachal, Kerala, has taken on active restoration of natural forests  degraded by invasive alien species. 

• Kadar Tribes are an indigenous community residing primarily in the southern parts of  India. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• They are predominantly found in the forests of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. • They are classified as a particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) by the Government  of India. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• They are traditionally a nomadic group, known for their hunter-gatherer lifestyle. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• They have a profound knowledge of the forest and its resources, relying on gathering  honey, fruits, tubers, and medicinal plants for their sustenance. 
• They are traditionally a nomadic group, known for their hunter-gatherer lifestyle. • They are known for their traditional medicinal knowledge, particularly in the use of  herbs and plants for healing. 
• They have a symbiotic relationship with nature, and they believe in the coexistence  of Kadar and Kaadu (forest). 
• They speak a Dravidian language known as Kadar or Kadars, which is influenced by  Tamil and Malayalam. Hence statement 4 is correct. 

• They live in small settlements called “hamlets” or “oorus,” usually comprising a  few huts made of bamboo, leaves, and other forest materials.

 Solution (c) 

Statement Analysis: 

Context: The Union Ministry of Culture is set to “revive and relaunch” the National Mission  for Manuscripts (NMM) and is mulling the formation of an autonomous body to help preserve  ancient texts in India. 

• The National Mission for Manuscripts (NMM) was established by the Ministry of  Tourism and Culture, Government of India. Hence statement 1 is correct. • Its motto is ‘Conserving the past for the future’. 
• It seeks to unearth and preserve the vast manuscript wealth of India. • Its mandate is to document, conserve, and disseminate the knowledge preserved  in the manuscripts. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• Its objectives are: 

o Locate manuscripts through a national-level survey and post-survey. o Document every manuscript and manuscript repository, for a National Electronic  Database that currently contains information on four million manuscripts making this  the largest database on Indian manuscripts in the world. 

o Conserve manuscripts incorporating both modern and indigenous methods of  conservation and training a new generation of manuscript conservators. o To train the next generation of scholars in various aspects of Manuscript Studies like  languages, scripts critical editing and cataloguing of texts, and conservation of  manuscripts. 

o To promote access to manuscripts by digitizing the rarest and most endangered  manuscripts. 

o To promote access to manuscripts through the publication of critical editions of  unpublished manuscripts and catalogues. 

o To facilitate the public’s engagement with manuscripts through lectures, seminars,  publications, and other outreach programmes.

Solution (c) 

Statement Analysis: 

Context: The birth of a great Indian bustard through artificial insemination at the Sudasari  Great Indian Bustard Breeding Centre in Rajasthan’s Jaisalmer district is an “extremely  important step” in the conservation of the critically endangered species, authorities said. 

• Great Indian Bustard is a bustard found in India and Pakistan. Hence statement 1 is  incorrect. 
• It is the State bird of Rajasthan. 
• It inhabits dry grasslands and scrublands. Hence statement 2 is correct. • It is considered the flagship grassland species, representing the health of the grassland  ecology. 
• It is protected under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection)Act of 1972. Hence  statement 3 is correct. 
• It is kept under the species recovery programme under the Integrated Development  of Wildlife Habitats of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change  (MoEFCC). 
• Project Great Indian Bustard has been launched by the Rajasthan government to  construct breeding enclosures for the species and develop infrastructure to reduce  human pressure on its habitats. 

• It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (d) 

Statement Analysis: 

Context: Triton is one of the major islands in the Paracel group, which is roughly equidistant  from the coast of Vietnam and China’s island province of Hainan. 

Triton Island is a tiny island that’s part of the Paracel Islands chain located in the South China  Sea. Although Triton Island is uninhabited, it plays a strategic role due to its location in the  South China Sea, an area known for its rich fishing grounds and potential oil and gas reserves. Hence option d is correct.

Solution (c) 

Statement Analysis: 

Context: Union Minister for Power and New and Renewable Energy (NRE) recently presided  over a high-profile meeting to review the results of a study conducted by IIT-Delhi on ambient  atmospheric sulphur dioxide (SO2) concentrations and the effect of installing flue gas  desulphurisation (FGD) technology on SO2 emissions in various categories of cities, as defined  by them. 

• Flue gas is the emitted material produced when fossil fuels such as coal, oil, natural  gas, or wood are burned for heat or power. 
• Flue Gas Desulphurisation is a technology to eliminate sulphur compounds from  exhaust emissions. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• It is done through the addition of absorbents, which can remove up to 95% of the  sulphur dioxide from the flue gas. 

• It uses absorbents like ammonia, sodium sulphite, lime, and limestone slurry. Hence  statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d) 

Statement Analysis: 

Context: Recently, a Delhi-based developer registered the domain, ‘JioHotstar,’ which ignited  a debate on cybersquatting. 

Here the question is asking for an incorrect answer. 

• Cybersquatting is an act of registering or using a domain name to profit from a  trademark or corporate or personal name of an individual. Hence statement 1 is  correct. 
• It is seen as a form of extortion or even as an attempt to take over business from its  rival. 
• In India, there are no specific laws that condemn, prohibit, or penalize the act of  cybersquatting. Hence statement 2 is correct. 

• However, domain names are considered trademarks under the Trademark Act, of  1999.

Solution (b) 

Statement Analysis: 

Context: Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying launched the Pandemic  Fund Project on “Animal Health Security Strengthening in India for Pandemic Preparedness  and Response” in New Delhi. 

• The Pandemic Fund Project is a $25 million initiative funded by the G20 Pandemic  Fund. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
• It is to be implemented in partnership with the Asian Development Bank (ADB),  the World Bank, and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) and is to be utilized by August 2026. 
• It is designed to enhance the country’s animal health security. Hence statement 2 is  correct. 
• It supports the existing initiatives of the department by enhancing disease  surveillance, including genomic and environmental surveillance for early warning,  laboratory infrastructure development, and cross-border collaboration, and will create  a more integrated system for monitoring and managing zoonotic diseases. 

• It is aimed at developing human capacity-building initiatives to enhance the skills and  capabilities of animal health human resources.

Solution (c) 

Explanation 

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage is about the evolving interpretations of empathy.  However, this option focuses on solving the issues of the sufferer based on the understanding  of empathy which is not the main theme of the passage. This context of solving issues of the  sufferer is not covered in the passage. So, this does not best reflect the crux of the passage.  

Option (b) is incorrect: The given option focuses that society must accept different  interpretations of empathy which is not the core theme of the passage. The passage is about  the evolving interpretations of empathy. It is nowhere indicated that society is not open to  different interpretations of empathy. Also, the concept of morality has not been discussed in  the passage. Hence, this is not the crux of the passage.  

Option (c) is correct: The given option captures the essence of the passage which is the  evolving interpretation of the term empathy. The following lines show that interpretations  have evolved and are varied: “In a new book, The Other Side of Empathy, author Jade E. Davis  argues that we should be sceptical of the recent cultural focus on empathy and its  accompanying strategies and methods.” These lines show that author Jade presents empathy  from different perspective. So, its interpretations are not limited to only one view.  

Option (d) is incorrect: The passage is on the evolving interpretations of empathy. To state  that the concept is not understood would not be correct. The passage describes how the  author has given a new interpretation of empathy. Also, to say that the value of empathy will  never be understood is rather an extreme statement. So, this is not the best crux of the  passage. 

 Solution (a) 

Explanation 

Option (a) is correct: The passage is about how the current economic growth model is  impacting the environment, which is not sustainable in the long term. This is visible in the  lines “The present economic system is destroying our natural resources and thereby eroding  the prosperity of future generations.” These lines show that if the current exploitation of  resources is continued then it will impact the future generations, and hence there is a need  to change the current model of economic development. These arguments are  comprehensively captured in this answer option.  

Option (b) is incorrect: The given option only focuses on one aspect of the passage which is  the energy and material resources; environmental aspects are not discussed. Therefore, it  cannot be the crux of the passage.  

Option (c) is incorrect: The stated claim that the race for green future markets has picked up  momentum is not correct because the passage does not state any such momentum. The  passage only mentions that a green economy is the need of the hour. Whether or not it has  picked up momentum is not covered in the passage. So, this is not the best crux of the passage.

Solution (b)  

Explanation 

(7/10) part of the water tank is filled with water. It means that (3/10) part of water tank is  empty and when we throw a stone of size 3x3x1 m3(which is 9m3) in the water tank, it gets  completely full.  

So, (3/10)th part of tank is equal to 9 m3.  

Capacity or total volume of tank = (9×10)/3 = 30 m3  

Volume of cuboidal water tank = L x B x H  

Or 30 = 5 x 2 x H  

Or H = 30/(5×2)  

Or H = 3 m  

Thus, the height of the cuboidal water tank is 3 m. Hence, option (b) is the right answer. 

 Solution (b)  

Explanation 

According to the question:  

Students who scored more than 100 marks = 22%  

And students who scored more than 200 = 6%  

Hence, students who scored between 100 and 200 = 22 – 6 = 16%  

Now, students who scored less than 30 = 12%  

Students who scored between 30 and 100 = 100 – (22 + 12) = 66% = 990  So, Total number of students = 990 × (100/66) = 1500  

Students who scored between 100 and 200 = 16% = (16/100) × 1500 =  240 Hence, option (b) is the right answer. 

Solution (b)  

Explanation 

Let the original price of petrol be Rs. x.  

According to the question,  

Increased price of Petrol = 130% of x = (130/100) ×(x) = 13x/10  

Decreased price of Petrol = 80% of (13x/10) = (80/100) × (13x/10) = 104x/100  

Increase in price of petrol = (104x/100) – x =  

(4x/100) Increase% = (4x/100) × (100/x) = 4%  

Hence, option (b) is the right answer.