[DAY 35] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

 Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic bacterium which causes typhoid fever in human  beings. These pathogens generally enter the small intestine through food and water  contaminated with them and migrate to other organs through blood. Hence,  statement 1 is correct. 
• Typhoid fever can be confirmed by Widal test, which is an indirect agglutination test  for enteric fever or undulant fever whereby bacteria causing typhoid fever is mixed  with a serum containing specific antibodies obtained from an infected  individual. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

• Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache  and loss of appetite are some of the common symptoms of typhoid. The disease  pneumonia infects the alveoli (air filled sacs) of the lungs. Hence, statement 3 is not  correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• The overall ability of the host to fight the disease-causing organisms, conferred by the  immune system is called immunity. Immunity is of two types- Innate immunity and  Acquired immunity. Acquired immunity is pathogen specific and it is characterized by  memory. This means when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time it  produces a response called primary response which is of low intensity. Subsequent  encounter with the same pathogen elicits a highly intensified secondary or anamnestic  response. This is ascribed to the fact that our body appears to have memory of the  first encounter. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

 Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• Cervavac is the first indigenous vaccine against cervical cancer in India. The vaccine  against cervical cancer is only the second rDNA vaccine in the world using the  techniques of the early 1970s, the first being the vaccine against Hepatitis-B. Hence,  statement 1 is correct. 
• Cervavac is developed and manufactured by Serum institute of India. Cervavac is  manufactured by deploying virus-like particles (VLPs) produced using recombinant  deoxyribose nucleic acid (rDNA) techniques to generate an immune response against  HPV infections. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 

• Cervavac Vaccine is a vaccine used to prevent cervical, vulvar, and vaginal cancers  associate with human papillomavirus (HPV) in women. it works by initiating a mild  infection to stimulate the body’s immune system to produce antibodies to protect  against any future infections. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

 Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• Karl Landsteiner was an Austrian biologist and physician. He is noted for having first  distinguished the main blood groups in 1900, and developing the modern system of  classification of blood groups, thus enabling physicians to transfuse blood without  endangering the patient’s life. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Blood group AB individuals have both A and B antigens on the surface of their RBCs  and their blood plasma does not contain any antibodies. Therefore, an individual with  type AB blood can receive blood from any group (with AB being preferable), but cannot  donate blood to any group other than AB. They are known as universal recipients.  Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 

• Individuals with blood group ‘O’ are a universal donor because their red blood cells  have neither A nor B antigens on their surface. So, the blood of a person having O  group can be given to people with any blood group. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (d) 

Explanation: 

• The liver is a reddish-brown gland situated in the upper part of the abdomen on the  right side. It is the largest gland in the body. It secretes bile juice that is stored in a sac 

called the gall bladder. The bile plays an important role in the digestion of fats. Hence,  option d is the correct answer.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• The basic components of a cell are cell membrane, cytoplasm and nucleus. The  cytoplasm and nucleus are enclosed within the cell membrane, also called the plasma  membrane. And cytoplasm is the jelly-like substance present between the cell  membrane and the nucleus. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

• The cell membrane gives shape to the cell. In addition to the cell membrane, there is  an outer thick layer in cells of plants called cell wall. This additional layer surrounding  the cell membrane is required by plants for protection. Notably, the cell wall is present  only in plant cells and not in animal cells. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• Fertilisation which takes place inside the female body is called internal fertilisation.  Internal fertilisation occurs in many animals including humans, cows, dogs and hens.  On the other hand, when a male organism’s sperm fertilizes a female organism’s egg outside of the female’s body, it is known as external fertilisation. It is very common in  aquatic animals such as fish, starfish, etc. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• Endocrine glands release hormones into the bloodstream to reach a particular body  part called target site. There are many endocrine glands or ductless glands in the body.  And the sex hormones are under the control of hormones from the pituitary gland.  Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The male hormone or testosterone begins to be released by the testes at the onset of  puberty. This causes changes in boys about which you have just learnt, for example,  the growth of facial hair. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 

• Once puberty is reached in girls, ovaries begin to produce the female hormone or  estrogen which makes the breasts develop. Milk secreting glands or mammary glands  develop inside the breasts. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• Digestion of carbohydrates, like starch, begins in the buccal cavity. The digestion of  protein starts in the stomach. The bile secreted from the liver, the pancreatic juice  from the pancreas and the digestive juice from the intestinal wall complete the  digestion of all components of food in the small intestine. The digested food is  absorbed in the blood vessels from the small intestine. The absorbed substances are  transported to different parts of the body. Water and some salts are absorbed from  the undigested food in the large intestine. The undigested and unabsorbed residues  are expelled out of the body as faeces through the anus. Hence, option c is the correct  answer.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• The restriction endonucleases are used in genetic engineering to form ‘recombinant’  molecules of DNA, which are composed of DNA from different sources/genomes.  When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments have the same  kind of ‘sticky-ends’ and, these can be joined together (end-to-end) using DNA ligases.  Hence, Statement-I is correct.

• The cutting of DNA by restriction endonucleases results in the fragments of DNA.  These fragments can be separated by a technique known as gel electrophoresis. Since  DNA fragments are negatively charged molecules, they can be separated by forcing  them to move towards the anode under an electric field through a medium/matrix.  Hence, Statement-II is not correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• In our body, cell growth and differentiation are highly controlled and regulated. In  cancer cells, there is breakdown of these regulatory mechanisms. Normal cells show a  property called contact inhibition by virtue of which contact with other cells inhibits  their uncontrolled growth. Cancer cells appear to have lost this property. As a result of  this, cancerous cells just continue to divide giving rise to masses of cells called  tumours. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissue and  blood and bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in the case of leukaemia. In  biopsy, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined  under microscope (histopathological studies) by a pathologist. Techniques like  radiography (use of X-rays), CT (computed tomography) and MRI (magnetic resonance  imaging) are very useful to detect cancers of the internal organs. ELISA test is  performed to diagnose AIDS in a human body. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 

• The common approaches for treatment of cancer are surgery, radiation therapy and  immunotherapy. In radiotherapy, tumour cells are irradiated lethally, taking proper  care of the normal tissues surrounding the tumour mass. Several chemotherapeutic  drugs are used to kill cancerous cells. Some of these are specific for particular tumours.  Majority of drugs have side effects like hair loss, anaemia, etc. Hence, statement 3 is  correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• Vitamin K is necessary for blood clotting and it prevents excessive bleeding. This is  because vitamin K helps to produce proteins required for blood coagulation. If a person  has a deficiency of vitamin K it increases the time taken by the blood to clot. Hence,  option a is the correct answer.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• Trans fats are unsaturated fatty acids which have been partially saturated with  hydrogen. They are considered as the worst type of fats (bad fat). Regular use of trans  fats increases the level of the bad cholesterol in the body. And bad cholesterol can  build up in the walls of arteries, making them hard and narrow, it increases the risk of  heart attack or stroke. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
• The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) reduced the permissible limit  of trans fatty acids (TFA) in oils and fats to 3% for 2021 and 2% by 2022, against the  earlier cap of 5%. The decision was affected by an amendment to the Food Safety and  Standards (Prohibition and Restriction on Sales) Regulations. Hence, statement 2 is  not correct.

• REPLACE action framework by WHO (2018) provides a strategic approach to  eliminating industrially produced trans fats from national food supplies. WHO also calls  for best-practice policies in countries that together account for at least 90% of the total  global TFA burden and at least 70% of the total TFA burden within each region by the  end of 2025. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• Intellectual Property Rights are outlined in Article 27 of the Universal Declaration of  Human Rights, which provides for the right to benefit from the protection of moral and  material interests resulting from authorship of scientific, literary or artistic  productions. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

• The importance of intellectual property was first recognized in the Paris Convention  for the Protection of Industrial Property (1883) and the Berne Convention for the  Protection of Literary and Artistic Works (1886). Both treaties are administered by the  World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). The Budapest Treaty on the  International Recognition of the Deposit of Microorganisms for the Purposes of Patent  Procedure was signed much later in 1977. Hence, statement 2 is INCORRECT.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• The National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy 2016 was adopted in May 2016  as a vision document to guide future development of IPRs in the country. It  encompasses and brings to a single platform all IPRs, taking into account all inter linkages and thus aims to create and exploit synergies between all forms of intellectual  property (IP), concerned statutes and agencies. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
• Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion (DIPP), Ministry of Commerce,  Government of India, has been appointed as the nodal department to coordinate,  guide and oversee the implementation and future development of IPRs in India. The  ‘Cell for IPR Promotion & Management (CIPAM)’, setup under the aegis of DIPP, is to  be the single point of reference for implementation of the objectives of the National  IPR Policy. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

• India is a member of the World Trade Organisation and committed to the Agreement  on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property (TRIPS Agreement). And India’s IPR  regime is in compliance with the WTO’s agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of  Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS). Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• A geographical indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific  geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. In 

order to function as a GI, a sign must identify a product as originating in a given place.  Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

• The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 is the  main law in India that oversees the registration and protection of geographical  indications. According to the Act, the duration of protection is initially 10 years but can be renewed indefinitely. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 

• The Geographical Indication Registry, a division of the Ministry of Commerce and  Industry’s Department of Industry Promotion and Internal Trade (DIPIT), is responsible  for issuing GI tags, further safeguarding these unique products and their geographical  origins. And the first product to get GI tag in India was Darjeeling Tea. Hence,  statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• Compulsory Licensing (CL) allows governments to license third parties (that is, parties  other than the patent holders) to produce and market a patented product or process  without the consent of patent owners. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 

• Compulsory Licencing is regulated under the Indian Patent Act, 1970. The Trade  Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS Agreement) does not specifically  list the reasons that might be used to justify compulsory licensing. However, the Doha  Declaration on TRIPS and Public Health confirms that countries are free to determine  the grounds for granting compulsory licences, and to determine what constitutes a  national emergency. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• Parthenogenesis is the process of ‘asexual’ reproduction that involves the  development of female gametes without fertilization. Hence, statement 1 is not  correct. 
• In this mode of reproduction, a female can produce an embryo without fertilizing an  egg with sperm. Parthenogenetic lineages occur in many insect species, but are  widespread among other invertebrate taxa also. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

• Animals such as bees, wasps, ants have no sex chromosomes and thus reproduce by  parthenogenesis. A few plants, reptiles and fish are also capable of reproducing in this  manner. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• Antimicrobial resistance is the resistance acquired by any microorganism (bacteria,  viruses, fungi, parasites, etc.) against antimicrobial drugs (such as antibiotics,  antifungals, antivirals, antimalarials, and anthelmintics) that are used to treat 

infections. As a result, standard treatments become ineffective, infections persist, and  may spread to others. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 

• It is a natural phenomenon as bacteria evolve, making drugs used to treat infections  less effective. Microorganisms that develop antimicrobial resistance are sometimes  referred to as superbugs. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

• Excessive use of antibiotics is just one of the reasons behind antimicrobial resistance.  The other reasons include high prevalence of communicable diseases, poor infection  control practices, lack of awareness about AMR, limited surveillance and monitoring  systems, etc. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation 

Context: The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), under the  Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) has developed a newer version of its own Search and  Rescue Aid Tool (SARAT) for ‘better accuracy and utility’ to aid the Indian Search and Rescue  (SAR) agencies such as the Indian Coast Guard in their operations at sea. 

• The Search and Rescue Aid Tool (SARAT) was launched by the Indian National Center  for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS) under the Make in India programme. Hence  statement 1 is correct. 
• It was launched in 2016 to facilitate search and rescue operations in the seas to  locate individuals/vessels in distress in the shortest possible time. 
• It uses ensemble modelling to account for uncertainties in the initial location and  time of the missing object. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• The movements of the missing objects are governed mainly by the currents and  winds.

• The tool is based on model currents derived from a very high-resolution Regional  Ocean Modelling System run operationally on High-Performance Computers at  INCOIS. 

• It can simulate the probable search area of a range of objects lost at sea, including  humans. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation 

Context: The 16th Conference of the Parties (COP16) to the United Nations Convention to  Combat Desertification (UNCCD) concluded in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia. 

• The 16th Conference of the Parties (COP16) to the United Nations Convention to  Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the first UNCCD COP held in the Middle East and  North Africa region, which knows first-hand the impacts of desertification, land  degradation, and drought. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• It provided an opportunity to shine a light on the specific challenges facing the region  and bring to the fore innovative solutions to land degradation and drought. • The UNCCD COP16 Presidency also announced the launch of an international sand  and dust storm monitoring initiative. This effort, part of a regional early warning  system, aims to complement existing efforts overseen by the World Meteorological  Organization (WMO). 
• It launched the Riyadh Global Drought Resilience Partnership which is committed to  supporting 80 vulnerable countries. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• It attracted USD 12.15 billion to support 80 of the world’s most vulnerable countries  in building their resilience to drought, including a USD 10 billion pledge from the  Arab Coordination Group.

Note: 

The Great Green Wall (GGW), an African-led initiative to restore 100 million hectares of  degraded land, also mobilized EUR 11 million from the Italian Government for landscape  restoration in the Sahel and EUR 3.6 million from the Austrian Government to strengthen  the coordination and implementation of the initiative across 22 African countries.

Solution (c) 

Explanation 

Context: The Paris Agreement was supposed to save the world from the worst impacts of  climate change. But nine years after it was finalized, it is perhaps more fragile than ever,  appearing increasingly ineffective and helpless in containing the rapidly worsening climate  situation. 

• The Paris Agreement is a legally binding global agreement under the United Nations  Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Hence statement 1 is correct. • It was adopted in 2015 in COP 21 of the UNFCCC. 
• It aims to combat climate change and limit global warming to well below 2 °C above  pre-industrial levels, with an ambition to limit warming to 1.5 °C. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 
• It replaced the Kyoto Protocol which was an earlier agreement to deal with climate  change. 
• Under the Paris Agreement, each country is required to submit and update  their Nationally Determined Contribution (NDCs) every 5 years. Hence statement 3 is  correct. 
• It outlines their plans for reducing greenhouse gas emissions and adapting to climate  change.

• NDCs are pledges made by countries to reduce their greenhouse gas emissions and  to adapt to the impacts of climate change.

Solution (d) 

Explanation 

Context: In a landmark moment in India’s TB elimination efforts, the Union Minister of  Health and Family Welfare launched the intensified 100 Day TB elimination campaign. 

The 100-Day Campaign is a part of the broader framework of the National TB Elimination  Programme (NTEP) under the aegis of the National Health Mission (NHM), which is aligned  with the National Strategic Plan (NSP) for TB Elimination 2017–2025. The NSP focuses on  reducing TB incidence, enhancing diagnostic and treatment capabilities, and addressing the  socio-economic impact of the disease. This ambitious initiative reflects the vision set by  Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the 2018 End TB Summit, where he pledged to achieve a  TB-free India by 2025. Hence option d is correct.

Solution (d) 

Explanation 

Context: The interplay between climate change, water availability, and energy demand  represents one of the most critical challenges in sustainability research. 

Climate change affecting energy demand as below: 

• Global warming caused by greenhouse gas emissions leads to higher demand for  cooling systems like air conditioners, especially in warmer regions. Hence statement  1 is correct. 
• Some regions might experience increased heating demand due to extreme  temperature fluctuations, creating uneven energy requirements globally. Hence  statement 2 is correct. 
• The surge in cooling demand due to global warming creates increased energy  production. It further leads to higher emissions of air pollutants and greenhouse  gases. Hence statement 3 is correct. 

• High temperatures reduce the carrying capacity of transmission lines. Hence  statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation 

Context: For the first time, a court in the US has held Israel’s NSO Group liable for its  intrusive spyware Pegasus, which could set up a measure of accountability for the company  that it has, for long, allegedly downplayed. 

• Pegasus is a spyware capable of hacking iOS and Android devices to extract  data. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
• It uses zero-day vulnerabilities to jailbreak iOS devices remotely while the Android  version uses software like Framaroot for rooting devices.

• A zero-day vulnerability is an undiscovered security flaw in software with no available  defense or patch. 
• Rooting is the process of unlocking or jailbreaking a device, such as a smartphone or  tablet to gain administrative control. 

• It operates covertly, with no visible signs except for the browser closing after clicking  a phishing link. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation 

Context: Union Home Minister and Minister of Cooperation Shri Amit Shah attended the  61st Raising Day function of Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) at Siliguri in West Bengal. 

• The Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) was established in the aftermath of the Chinese  aggression in 1962. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• It was the first central paramilitary force that included women in its ranks. • It is one of the seven paramilitary forces in India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. • The other six forces are Assam Rifles, Border Security Force, Central Industrial  

Security Force, Central Reserve Police Force, Indo Tibetan Border Police, and National  Security Guard. 

• It comes under the aegis of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Hence statement 3 is  correct. 
• SSB was awarded the President’s Colours for its key role in national security in March  2004. 
• The President’s Colours is the highest honour that can be bestowed upon any  military unit.  

• It guards India’s border with Nepal and Bhutan. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (c) 

Explanation 

Context: The bilateral naval exercise SLINEX 2024 (Sri Lanka–India Exercise) will be  conducted from 17 to 20 Dec 24 at Visakhapatnam under the aegis of the Eastern Naval  Command. 

Hence option c is correct.

 Solution (b) 

Explanation 

Context: Fifty-five MPs of the Rajya Sabha have submitted a motion, for removing Allahabad  High Court Judge, Justice Shekhar Kumar Yadav, to Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 

Procedure for Removal of a High Court Judge: 

• According to the Indian Constitution, a High Court judge can be removed by  the President on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Hence statement 1 is  incorrect. 
• The Constitution does not define the terms ‘proved misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’.  However, the Supreme Court has clarified through its judgments that actions such  as wilful misconduct, corruption, lack of integrity, or offences involving moral  turpitude constitute misbehaviour. 
• The motion must be passed in both Houses of Parliament by a majority of the total membership of the House. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• The procedure for removal of judges is elaborated in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968,  which requires: 
• A motion for removal is to be signed by at least 50 members of the Rajya  Sabha or 100 members of the Lok Sabha. 
• The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or the Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the discretion  to admit or reject the motion after consultation. 
• If admitted, a three-member committee is constituted, comprising: o A Supreme Court Judge, 

o A High Court Judge, and 

o A distinguished jurist. 

• The committee investigates the allegations. If the judge is cleared of misconduct or  incapacity, the motion is dropped and not pursued further. 
• If the committee finds the judge guilty of misbehaviour or incapacity, the report is  tabled in both Houses of Parliament, where the motion must be passed by a special  majority.

Solution (d) 

Explanation 

Context: Aimed at facilitating advanced research on diabetes, the variations of the Indian  type, and other related disorders, the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) in  collaboration with the Madras Diabetes Research Foundation (MDRF) has set up the  country’s first diabetes biobank. 

• India’s First Diabetes Biobank is set up by the Indian Council of Medical Research  (ICMR) in collaboration with the Madras Diabetes Research Foundation (MDRF). Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• It also houses blood samples from the ICMR Young Diabetes Registry which has  different types of diabetes like Type 1 diabetes, Type 2 diabetes in the young, and  gestational diabetes all of which Indians have unique clinical features. 
• It plays a critical role in biomedical research, collecting, processing, storing, and  distributing biospecimens to support scientific research. Hence statement 2 is  correct. 

• It will also support longitudinal studies to track the progression of diabetes and its  complications over time, leading to better management and prevention strategies. • It could help in the identification of novel biomarkers for early diagnosis and the  development of personalized treatment strategies. Hence statement 3 is correct.

 Solution (c)  

Explanation: 

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage states the impact of culture on women, but how women  affect the culture is not discussed in the passage. So, the context that culture and women  molding each other is not a part of the passage. Hence, this option is not the best crux of the  passage.  

Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does talk about the discrimination faced by girls, but the  main theme of the passage is how culture impacts men and women. Inculcating the values of  equality and respect for girls could be a peripheral argument. It is not the best crux of the passage. Therefore, this answer option is incorrect.  

Option (c) is correct: The passage is about the impact of culture on men and women. This is  visible in the lines “However, many Asian, Indian, Hispanic, and Latino cultures believe that  girls (even if the youngest) should take care of the males in the family. It’s often acceptable  for boys to bend the rules whereas girls are expected to follow the rules.” These lines show  that it is the culture which shapes the values of boys and girls, and hence, we can state that  culture has a deep impact on men and women in society. So, this is the best crux of the  passage. 

Q.32) Solution (c)  

Explanation: 

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage mainly focuses on how technology would aid in meeting  future food requirements. However, GMO crops are not mentioned or indicated in the passage  in any context. The use of technology could mean other interventions like farm mechanization and food processing. Therefore, this option is beyond the scope of the passage, and is  therefore incorrect.  

Option (b) is incorrect: Refer to the line: “…but the changing dietary patterns would mandate  the … able to meet the nutritional requirements of consumers…” There is an indication towards  the changing nutritional needs. However, this option states that there is a total absence of  nutritional awareness, which is incorrect. So, this option does not quite capture the best  rational inference from the passage. 

Option (c) is correct: The passage is about the role of technology in addressing the changing  food demands of the consumers, as seen in the lines – “Significant disruptions would be  required at the supply end to manage evolving food demands, to which technology will serve  as a key enabler.” The other context of food safety is also covered in the lines “Additionally,  production systems need to be geared towards addressing food safety and ensuring  traceability of the product to meet evolved consumer demands.” These lines validate that  technology would help in addressing the changing food demands as well as ensure food safety  for consumers. So, this is the logical inference from the passage.  

Option (d) is incorrect: The context of food safety and limited agriculture resources is  discussed in the passage, but the context of lack of awareness is not covered in the passage.  Consumer awareness is not a part of the passage and does not reflect the best logical  inference of the passage. 

Solution (d)  

Explanation: 

Notice that the difference between the numerator and the denominator in each fraction is  equal to 3. Since all of the numbers are positive and less than 1, we know that the larger the  denominator, the larger the fraction.  

E.g. 1/4 < 2/5 < 3/6 < 4/7 < 5/8 < 6/9 < 7/10  

Using this logic, we can see that the largest fraction is  

1883491/1883494 Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. 

 Solution (d)  

Explanation: 

Given:  

Least number of bottles of equal size will be possible, when the size of the bottles is  maximum. Maximum bottle size can be found by finding HCF of 261, 377 and 435.  261 = 9×29; 377 = 13×29; 435 = 15×29  

So, the HCF = 29, i.e. size of each bottle should be 29 litres. 

So, the total number of bottles required = 9 + 13 + 15 = 37.  

Hence 37 bottles of 29 litres each are  

required. Hence, option (d) is correct. 

Solution (c)  

Explanation: 

Letters are written in reverse order and moved +2 alphabetically.  

Reverse of CUTTER is RETTUC.  

Now, add 2 to each letter. R+2=T, E+2=G, T+2=V, and so on.  

So, code of CUTTER is TGVVWE.  

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.