IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends,
The most beloved 60 Days for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 has finally begun 🙂
Once again the time has come for the battle (Prelims). And who else than your best companion in the last preparatory phase for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 i.e 60 days plan.
It does not matter how slowly you go as long as you do not stop.
Hope the message given above makes sense to you all.
The productive utilization of this programme demands consistency, honesty, faith and strong determination to be in the process of learning and unlearning. You might not be fully prepared to solve all the questions but the learning and unlearning through these questions will prepare you for the real battle on 2nd June 2019.
You have to unlearn your repetitive mistakes, gut feeling on which you mark doubtful questions. You have to learn new things and also those concepts that you were very sure of but somehow because of traps in the option, got it wrong. You have to learn ‘how to convert knowledge into marks’ (Because most of the times, after ending the exam, you regret making mistakes in known concepts).
Secondly, keep a long distance from following too many things at this point. It will always backfire. Once you are here, put complete faith and follow this initiative along with whatever you were doing. It is very important to consolidate your preparation with many revisions. Simply following many things will leave you in despair. You can cross check this with veterans.
Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. Be wise!
Let us pledge to make it a big game changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days of this plan!
Importance of Self – Tracking: Learning from Last Year
Last year, aspirants used to type/post their answers in the comment box on a daily basis. There were huge participation and discussion below the test post. Putting answers in the comment box has been very effective to self-track yourself after updating the score. In the end, you can cross check your performance through Disqus profile.
It was highly effective in the last edition of 60 Days that propelled aspirants to monitor their performance and learn through discussion. Let you solve these questions with full honesty and write your result in the comment box. Interact with peers to know your mistakes.
The importance of this initiative stands time-bound and aggressive reverse engineering to learn the concepts. Many of you must be busy with your own strategy but let us tell you honestly that in the last few months, it is very important to revise and consolidate your learning. Just reading won’t suffice.
So, take out a few hours from your schedule and make it a revision exercise.
How can you make the best use of it?
Be honest to your effort and do not start competing with XYZ aspirants just for the sake of marks. It is more important for you to introspect and check your learning than focusing on others. Try to answer the questions in 25 minutes only.
Do not get into negative feeling that I don’t have enough knowledge to answer these questions. Feel like you are taking the real exam. What would be your response then?
The same will be replicated in the UPSC exam. Here, you get marks only and nothing else matters. So, make effort to know the answers to all questions. Do not cheat 😛
DETAILED MICRO ANALYSIS MATRIX SAMPLE– is given here. You can download this and do an assessment for yourself (the excel sheet must be modified as per this years planning. The provided excel sheet is only for reference). DOWNLOAD
- You can copy paste the same format/modify as per your need in Google Spreadsheet and update it on daily basis.
- Feedback talks about daily test results.
- Follow-up talks about daily target achieved from sources and the number of revisions to do/done and dates. Sources column is to ensure that aspirants do not run behind various sources and follow the same throughout.
Would like to end on this quote:
Either you run the day or the day runs you.
Are you ready? Let’s start!
Important Note
- Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
With reference to Lorentz curve consider the following statements:
- It is plotted with Population of a country vs Income
- It helps in the calculation of Gini coefficient
- In Gini coefficient, Maximum inequality is signified by 0 and absolute equal societies are shown by 1
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Lorenz Curve (the actual distribution of income curve), a graphical distribution of wealth developed by Max Lorenz in 1906, shows the proportion of income earned by any given percentage of the population. The line at the 45º angle shows perfectly equal income distribution, while the other line shows the actual distribution of income. The further away from the diagonal, the more unequal the size of distribution of income.
Statement 3 is wrong: In Gini coefficient, Maximum inequality is signified by 1 and absolute equal societies are shown by 0.
Incorrect
The Lorenz Curve (the actual distribution of income curve), a graphical distribution of wealth developed by Max Lorenz in 1906, shows the proportion of income earned by any given percentage of the population. The line at the 45º angle shows perfectly equal income distribution, while the other line shows the actual distribution of income. The further away from the diagonal, the more unequal the size of distribution of income.
Statement 3 is wrong: In Gini coefficient, Maximum inequality is signified by 1 and absolute equal societies are shown by 0.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
With reference to the Gender Inequality Index (GII), consider the following statements:
- Its dimensions include Health, Empowerment, Employment
- It is published as part of Human Development Report
Which of the given statements is/ are correct?
Correct
Both the given statements are correct.
Incorrect
Both the given statements are correct.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Aajevika Grameen Express Yojana is related to?
Correct
“Aajeevika Grameen Express Yojana (AGEY)” as part of the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM):
The Self Help Groups under DAY-NRLM will operate road transport service in backward areas. This will help to provide safe, affordable and community monitored rural transport services to connect remote villages with key services and amenities (such as access to markets, education and health) for the overall economic development of backward rural areas. This will also provide an additional avenue of livelihood for SHGs.
Incorrect
“Aajeevika Grameen Express Yojana (AGEY)” as part of the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM):
The Self Help Groups under DAY-NRLM will operate road transport service in backward areas. This will help to provide safe, affordable and community monitored rural transport services to connect remote villages with key services and amenities (such as access to markets, education and health) for the overall economic development of backward rural areas. This will also provide an additional avenue of livelihood for SHGs.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Which of the following was/were features of the Mahalanobis growth model?
- Emphasis on Self-Reliance
- Indicative planning
- Emphasis on heavy goods industries
Select the correct option from below:
Correct
The Mahalanobis Growth Model had to components;
(i) more emphasis on industrialization and
(ii) emphasis on heavy goods industries which was believed to help us attain self-sustained/ self-reliant growth and also leading to a consequent trickledown effect.
Indicative Planning (8th Five Year Plan) was not a part of Mahalanobis Growth Model.
Incorrect
The Mahalanobis Growth Model had to components;
(i) more emphasis on industrialization and
(ii) emphasis on heavy goods industries which was believed to help us attain self-sustained/ self-reliant growth and also leading to a consequent trickledown effect.
Indicative Planning (8th Five Year Plan) was not a part of Mahalanobis Growth Model.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Which of the following is/are characteristics of a capitalist system of economy?
- Income equality
- Production for profit
- Minimal government intervention
Select the correct answer from below
Correct
Statement 1 is wrong: Capitalist economy creates income inequalities not equalities
Incorrect
Statement 1 is wrong: Capitalist economy creates income inequalities not equalities
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Which of the following factors can be attributed to growth of unemployment in India?
- Slow growth in agricultural and industrial productivity.
- Slow expansion of manufacturing sector
- Concentration of investment in capital goods industry.
Select the correct answer from below:
Correct
Unemployment in India is caused by a range of factors:
(1) Slow growth in agricultural and industrial productivity.
(2) Slow expansion of manufacturing sector
(3) Concentration of investment in capital goods industry.
One of the most important objectives of economic planning in India was to create employment
opportunities for the rising labour force. To meet this goal several initiatives were undertaken –
expansion of heavy industries, cottage and small industries, agriculture and related activities etc.Incorrect
Unemployment in India is caused by a range of factors:
(1) Slow growth in agricultural and industrial productivity.
(2) Slow expansion of manufacturing sector
(3) Concentration of investment in capital goods industry.
One of the most important objectives of economic planning in India was to create employment
opportunities for the rising labour force. To meet this goal several initiatives were undertaken –
expansion of heavy industries, cottage and small industries, agriculture and related activities etc. -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which of the following are the consequences of the policy of protectionism?
- More choice for domestic consumers
- Higher cost of domestic good
- Helps domestic industries to compete against foreign players.
- Reduction in forex reserves of the nation.
Select the correct option from below:
Correct
Statement 1 is wrong: Since foreign good in the market will be reduced in the market, the choice for domestic consumers will be limited.
Statement 4 is wrong: Since import goods will be restricted, the forex will be saved.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is wrong: Since foreign good in the market will be reduced in the market, the choice for domestic consumers will be limited.
Statement 4 is wrong: Since import goods will be restricted, the forex will be saved.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Which of the following is a correct definition of unemployment in India?
Correct
Unemployment is a phenomenon that occurs when a person who is capable of working and is actively searching for the work is unable to find work.
Incorrect
Unemployment is a phenomenon that occurs when a person who is capable of working and is actively searching for the work is unable to find work.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Which of the following statements is not correct?
Correct
The minimum amount of unemployment that prevails in an economy due to workers quitting their previous jobs and are searching for the new jobs is called Frictional Unemployment.
Cyclical unemployment is due to deficiency or fall in effective demand from consumers which leads to fall in production and low demand for labour.
Voluntary unemployment refers to a situation where workers are either not seeking for work or are in transition from one job to another (quitting one job in search of another better job).
Involuntary unemployment refers to a situation where workers are seeking work and are willing to work but are unable to get work.
Structural unemployment refers to a situation which arises due to change in the structure of the economy. Example: An economy transforms itself from a Labour intensive economy to a Capital intensive economy.
Seasonal unemployment occurs during certain seasons of the year. In some industries and occupations like agriculture, holiday resorts etc., production activities take place only in some seasons.
Incorrect
The minimum amount of unemployment that prevails in an economy due to workers quitting their previous jobs and are searching for the new jobs is called Frictional Unemployment.
Cyclical unemployment is due to deficiency or fall in effective demand from consumers which leads to fall in production and low demand for labour.
Voluntary unemployment refers to a situation where workers are either not seeking for work or are in transition from one job to another (quitting one job in search of another better job).
Involuntary unemployment refers to a situation where workers are seeking work and are willing to work but are unable to get work.
Structural unemployment refers to a situation which arises due to change in the structure of the economy. Example: An economy transforms itself from a Labour intensive economy to a Capital intensive economy.
Seasonal unemployment occurs during certain seasons of the year. In some industries and occupations like agriculture, holiday resorts etc., production activities take place only in some seasons.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Service Sector Employment.
- The share of services in global employment has decreased in the past decade.
- The percentage contribution of India’s service sector to its GDP is greater than that of China.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is wrong. As per the World Bank, the share of services in global employment has
increased by 15 pp from 35.9 per cent in 2001 to 50.9 per cent in 2010. Among the top 15 services producer countries, the share of services in employment is high, contributing more than two-thirds of total employment in 2014.Statement 2 is Correct. As per the economic survey 2016-17, the percentage contribution of India’s
service sector to its GDP is 53%. The percentage contribution of China’s service sector to its GDP is 49.7%.Incorrect
Statement 1 is wrong. As per the World Bank, the share of services in global employment has
increased by 15 pp from 35.9 per cent in 2001 to 50.9 per cent in 2010. Among the top 15 services producer countries, the share of services in employment is high, contributing more than two-thirds of total employment in 2014.Statement 2 is Correct. As per the economic survey 2016-17, the percentage contribution of India’s
service sector to its GDP is 53%. The percentage contribution of China’s service sector to its GDP is 49.7%. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Which among the following correctly defines the term dependency ratio?
Correct
In economics, geography, demography and sociology, the dependency ratio is an age-population ratio of those typically not in the labor force (the dependent part ages 0 to 14 and 65+) and those typically in the labor force (the productive part ages 15 to 64). It is used to measure the pressure on the productive population.
Consideration of the dependency ratio is essential for governments, economists, bankers, business, industry, universities and all other major economic segments which can benefit from understanding the impacts of changes in population structure. A low dependency ratio means that there sufficient people working who can support the dependent population. A lower ratio could allow for better pensions and better health care for citizens. A higher ratio indicates more financial stress on working people. While the strategies of increasing fertility and of allowing immigration especially of younger working age people have been formulas for lowering dependency ratios, future job reductions through automation may impact the effectiveness of those strategies.
Incorrect
In economics, geography, demography and sociology, the dependency ratio is an age-population ratio of those typically not in the labor force (the dependent part ages 0 to 14 and 65+) and those typically in the labor force (the productive part ages 15 to 64). It is used to measure the pressure on the productive population.
Consideration of the dependency ratio is essential for governments, economists, bankers, business, industry, universities and all other major economic segments which can benefit from understanding the impacts of changes in population structure. A low dependency ratio means that there sufficient people working who can support the dependent population. A lower ratio could allow for better pensions and better health care for citizens. A higher ratio indicates more financial stress on working people. While the strategies of increasing fertility and of allowing immigration especially of younger working age people have been formulas for lowering dependency ratios, future job reductions through automation may impact the effectiveness of those strategies.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Labour force participation rate is defined as the section of working population in the age group of 16-64 in the economy currently employed or seeking employment.
- In recent years, the Female labour force participation rate has been on the decline.
Which of the given statements is/are correct with respect to labour force participation rate in India?
Correct
The share of women in India’s workforce has fallen dramatically— from about 35% to 25% since 2004. The fall is even sharper if you look at women in the age group of 15-24. According to a report of the International Labour Organization, India’s female labour force participation rate (LFPR) fell from 35.8% in 1994 to merely 20.2% in 2012. It has fallen for other age groups as well.
Incorrect
The share of women in India’s workforce has fallen dramatically— from about 35% to 25% since 2004. The fall is even sharper if you look at women in the age group of 15-24. According to a report of the International Labour Organization, India’s female labour force participation rate (LFPR) fell from 35.8% in 1994 to merely 20.2% in 2012. It has fallen for other age groups as well.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
With reference to the similarities and differences between Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) and Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), consider the following statements:
- MDGs get us half way to the goal of ending hunger and poverty while SDGs are Zero goals which means to get the statistical zero of hunger and poverty.
- MDGs were created by a top-down process while SDGs creation was more participatory
- Poverty and Hunger are separate in both MDGs and SDGs
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 3 is wrong: Poverty and Hunger were joined in MDG but they are separated in SDGs
Incorrect
Statement 3 is wrong: Poverty and Hunger were joined in MDG but they are separated in SDGs
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
___________ has been entrusted with the responsibility of developing the National Indicator Framework (NIF) which will help in monitoring the progress of the SDGs and associated targets?
Correct
Self explanatory
Incorrect
Self explanatory
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Baba Kalyani committee recently submitted its report on?
Correct
The Baba Kalyani committee constituted by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry to study the existing SEZ (Special Economic Zone) policy of India submitted its report to the government recently.
Incorrect
The Baba Kalyani committee constituted by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry to study the existing SEZ (Special Economic Zone) policy of India submitted its report to the government recently.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
With reference to the Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP), consider the following statements:
- It comes under the National Health Mission.
- The scheme seeks to set up a Central Disease Surveillance Unit and a State Surveillance Unit in each State where data is collected and analyzed.
- It is assisted World Bank.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)
- IDSP is a disease surveillance scheme under National Health Mission, under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in India, assisted by the World Bank.
- The scheme seeks to set up a Central Disease Surveillance Unit and a State Surveillance Unit in each State where data is collected and analyzed.
- The IDSP portal is a one stop portal which has facilities for data entry, view reports, outbreak reporting, data analysis, training modules and resources related to disease surveillance.
Incorrect
Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (IDSP)
- IDSP is a disease surveillance scheme under National Health Mission, under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in India, assisted by the World Bank.
- The scheme seeks to set up a Central Disease Surveillance Unit and a State Surveillance Unit in each State where data is collected and analyzed.
- The IDSP portal is a one stop portal which has facilities for data entry, view reports, outbreak reporting, data analysis, training modules and resources related to disease surveillance.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Which of the following is not a sub-scheme of National Social Assistance Programme (NSAP)?
Correct
Presently NSAP comprises of the following five schemes:-
- Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS): Under the scheme, BPL persons aged 60 years or above are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/- up to 79 years of age and Rs.500/- thereafter.
- Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme (IGNWPS): BPL widows aged 40-59 years are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/-.
- Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme (IGNDPS): BPL persons aged 18-59 years with severe and multiple disabilities are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/-.
- National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS): Under the scheme a BPL household is entitled to lump sum amount of money on the death of primary breadwinner aged between 18 and 64 years. The amount of assistance is Rs. 10.000/-.
- Annapurna: Under the scheme, 10 kg of food grains per month are provided free of cost to those senior citizens who, though eligible, have remained uncovered under NOAPS
Incorrect
Presently NSAP comprises of the following five schemes:-
- Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme (IGNOAPS): Under the scheme, BPL persons aged 60 years or above are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/- up to 79 years of age and Rs.500/- thereafter.
- Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme (IGNWPS): BPL widows aged 40-59 years are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/-.
- Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme (IGNDPS): BPL persons aged 18-59 years with severe and multiple disabilities are entitled to a monthly pension of Rs. 200/-.
- National Family Benefit Scheme (NFBS): Under the scheme a BPL household is entitled to lump sum amount of money on the death of primary breadwinner aged between 18 and 64 years. The amount of assistance is Rs. 10.000/-.
- Annapurna: Under the scheme, 10 kg of food grains per month are provided free of cost to those senior citizens who, though eligible, have remained uncovered under NOAPS
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the following Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) is not matched correctly?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Niryat Bandhu scheme is related to:
Correct
It was launched Directorate General of Foreign Trade.
The objective of the Niryat Bandhu Scheme is to reach out to the new and potential exporters and mentor them through orientation programmes, counselling sessions, individual facilitation, etc., for being able to get into international trade and boost exports from India.
Incorrect
It was launched Directorate General of Foreign Trade.
The objective of the Niryat Bandhu Scheme is to reach out to the new and potential exporters and mentor them through orientation programmes, counselling sessions, individual facilitation, etc., for being able to get into international trade and boost exports from India.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements
- GNI (Gross National Income) has seen a steady increase in the last 5 years.
- Net National Income has seen a steady increase in the last 5 years.
- Per capita Income has not seen a steady increase in the last 5 years.
Which of the above statement are correct?
Correct
Table 1.1. Gross National Income and Net National Income Gross national income Net national income Per capita net national income (` crore) ( ` crore) ( `) Year Current Constant Current Constant Current Constant prices prices prices prices prices prices (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) 2011-12 8659505 8659505 7742330 7742330 63462 63462 2012-13 9827250 9104662 8766345 8094001 70983 65538 2013-14 11093638 9679027 9897663 8578417 79118 68572 2014-15 12297698 10412280 10953761 9231556 86454 72862 2015-16 13522256 11246305 12076882 9982112 94130 77803 2016-17 (PE) 14994109 12034713 13408211 10686776 103219 82269 2017-18(FAE) 16438895 12835004 14710563 11404413 111782 86660 - Statement 1 is correct. GNI (Gross National Income) refers to income generated by Nationals of a country. The above table indicates that the GNI in both constant and current prices has seen a gradual increase in the last 5 years based on 2011-12 seris.
- Statement 2 is correct. NNI (Net National Income) refers to the National Income calculated after subtracting the depreciation of the fixed capital. NNI has seen a steady increase in both constant and current prices in the last 5 years.
- Statement 3 is wrong. As per the above table Per capita income has seen a steady increase in the last 5 years.
Note: The questions in Prelims from National Income chapter are mostly based on trends. Hence, look out for the trends of National Income measures for the last 5 years.
Incorrect
Table 1.1. Gross National Income and Net National Income Gross national income Net national income Per capita net national income (` crore) ( ` crore) ( `) Year Current Constant Current Constant Current Constant prices prices prices prices prices prices (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) 2011-12 8659505 8659505 7742330 7742330 63462 63462 2012-13 9827250 9104662 8766345 8094001 70983 65538 2013-14 11093638 9679027 9897663 8578417 79118 68572 2014-15 12297698 10412280 10953761 9231556 86454 72862 2015-16 13522256 11246305 12076882 9982112 94130 77803 2016-17 (PE) 14994109 12034713 13408211 10686776 103219 82269 2017-18(FAE) 16438895 12835004 14710563 11404413 111782 86660 - Statement 1 is correct. GNI (Gross National Income) refers to income generated by Nationals of a country. The above table indicates that the GNI in both constant and current prices has seen a gradual increase in the last 5 years based on 2011-12 seris.
- Statement 2 is correct. NNI (Net National Income) refers to the National Income calculated after subtracting the depreciation of the fixed capital. NNI has seen a steady increase in both constant and current prices in the last 5 years.
- Statement 3 is wrong. As per the above table Per capita income has seen a steady increase in the last 5 years.
Note: The questions in Prelims from National Income chapter are mostly based on trends. Hence, look out for the trends of National Income measures for the last 5 years.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following terms
- Aitken basin
- Von Kármán
- Engel’gardt
The above terms are associated with
Correct
The South Pole–Aitken basin is an impact crater on the far side of the Moon.
Von Kármán is a large lunar impact crater that is located in the southern hemisphere on the far side of the Moon.
Engel’gardt is a lunar impact crater on the far side of the Moon, located to the north of the huge walled plain Korolev.
Source: In news due Chinese unmanned lunar probe Chang’e 4 on the far side of the Moon.
Incorrect
The South Pole–Aitken basin is an impact crater on the far side of the Moon.
Von Kármán is a large lunar impact crater that is located in the southern hemisphere on the far side of the Moon.
Engel’gardt is a lunar impact crater on the far side of the Moon, located to the north of the huge walled plain Korolev.
Source: In news due Chinese unmanned lunar probe Chang’e 4 on the far side of the Moon.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
- Gaia Telescope – European Space Agency
- Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope – Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
- Spitzer Space Telescope – NASA
Select the correct code:
Correct
The Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT), located near Pune (Narayangaon) in India, is an array of thirty fully steerable parabolic radio telescopes of 45 metre diameter, observing at metre wavelengths. It is operated by the National Centre for Radio Astrophysics, a part of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Mumbai. At the time it was built, it was the world’s largest interferometric array offering a baseline of up to 25 kilometres (16 mi).
Gaia is a space observatory of the European Space Agency (ESA) designed for astrometry. It consists of two space telescopes and ten mirrors of different shapes and sizes to collect, focus and direct light into Gaia’s science instruments for detection.
The Spitzer Space Telescope (SST), formerly the Space Infrared Telescope Facility (SIRTF), is an infrared space telescope launched in 2003 and still operating as of 2019. It is operated by NASA and Caltech.
Incorrect
The Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope (GMRT), located near Pune (Narayangaon) in India, is an array of thirty fully steerable parabolic radio telescopes of 45 metre diameter, observing at metre wavelengths. It is operated by the National Centre for Radio Astrophysics, a part of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Mumbai. At the time it was built, it was the world’s largest interferometric array offering a baseline of up to 25 kilometres (16 mi).
Gaia is a space observatory of the European Space Agency (ESA) designed for astrometry. It consists of two space telescopes and ten mirrors of different shapes and sizes to collect, focus and direct light into Gaia’s science instruments for detection.
The Spitzer Space Telescope (SST), formerly the Space Infrared Telescope Facility (SIRTF), is an infrared space telescope launched in 2003 and still operating as of 2019. It is operated by NASA and Caltech.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Ecological footprint is the impact of a person or community on the environment, expressed as the amount of land required to sustain their use of natural resources.
- Bio capacity refers to the capacity of a given biologically productive area to generate an on-going supply of renewable resources and to absorb its spill over wastes.
Select the correct statements
Correct
The ecological footprint measures human demand on nature, i.e., the quantity of nature it takes to support people or an economy. It tracks this demand through an ecological accounting system. The accounts contrast the biologically productive area people use for their consumption to the biologically productive area available within a region or the world (biocapacity, the productive area that can regenerate what people demand from nature). In short, it is a measure of human impact on Earth’s ecosystem and reveals the dependence of the human economy on natural capital.
The biocapacity or biological capacity of an ecosystem is an estimate of its production of certain biological materials such as natural resources, and its absorption and filtering of other materials such as carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. “Useful biological
Biocapacity are expressed in terms of global hectares per person, thus is dependent on human population. A global hectare is an adjusted unit that represents the average biological productivity of all productive hectares on Earth in a given year (because not all hectares produce the same amount of ecosystem services). Biocapacity is calculated from United Nations population and land use data, and may be reported at various regional levels, such as a city, a country, or the world as a whole.
Incorrect
The ecological footprint measures human demand on nature, i.e., the quantity of nature it takes to support people or an economy. It tracks this demand through an ecological accounting system. The accounts contrast the biologically productive area people use for their consumption to the biologically productive area available within a region or the world (biocapacity, the productive area that can regenerate what people demand from nature). In short, it is a measure of human impact on Earth’s ecosystem and reveals the dependence of the human economy on natural capital.
The biocapacity or biological capacity of an ecosystem is an estimate of its production of certain biological materials such as natural resources, and its absorption and filtering of other materials such as carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. “Useful biological
Biocapacity are expressed in terms of global hectares per person, thus is dependent on human population. A global hectare is an adjusted unit that represents the average biological productivity of all productive hectares on Earth in a given year (because not all hectares produce the same amount of ecosystem services). Biocapacity is calculated from United Nations population and land use data, and may be reported at various regional levels, such as a city, a country, or the world as a whole.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Which of the following statements i/are correct with respect to ‘PARIVESH’?
- It is an innovative project in e-governance and good governance
- It is aimed at addressing common man’s grievances, and simultaneously monitoring and reviewing important programmes and projects of the Government of India as well as projects flagged by State Governments.
Select the correct statements
Correct
PARIVESH (Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by Interactive, Virtuous and Environmental Single-window Hub) is a Single-Window Integrated Environmental Management System.
It has been rolled out for online submission, monitoring and management of proposals submitted by Project Proponents to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC), as well as to the State Level Environmental Impact Assessment Authorities (SEIAA), to seek various types of clearances.
The system has been designed, developed and hosted by the MOEFCC with technical support from National Informatics Centre, (NIC).
Incorrect
PARIVESH (Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by Interactive, Virtuous and Environmental Single-window Hub) is a Single-Window Integrated Environmental Management System.
It has been rolled out for online submission, monitoring and management of proposals submitted by Project Proponents to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MOEFCC), as well as to the State Level Environmental Impact Assessment Authorities (SEIAA), to seek various types of clearances.
The system has been designed, developed and hosted by the MOEFCC with technical support from National Informatics Centre, (NIC).
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
‘India Wage Report: Wage policies for decent work and inclusive growth’ is published by
Correct
While India’s economy in the past two decades has seen an annual average GDP rate of 7% – low pay and inequality persist according to the India Wage Report: Wage policies for decent work and inclusive growth, published by the International Labour Organization.
Incorrect
While India’s economy in the past two decades has seen an annual average GDP rate of 7% – low pay and inequality persist according to the India Wage Report: Wage policies for decent work and inclusive growth, published by the International Labour Organization.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Bartaman Bharat meaning “Present Day India” is an essay written by X.
- According to Subhas Chandra Bose, a proponent of armed struggle for Indian independence, X was “the maker of modern India”
- Rabindranath Tagore told French Nobel laureate Romain Rolland, “If you want to know India, study ‘X’
Who is being referred in the above statements as ‘X’?
Correct
Vivekananda was born Narendranath Datta in a Bengali family. He was a chief disciple of the 19th-century Indian mystic Ramakrishna.
Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Math and the Ramakrishna Mission.
Bartaman Bharat meaning “Present Day India” is an erudite Bengali language essay written by him, which was first published in the March 1899 issue of Udbodhan, the only Bengali language magazine of Ramakrishna Math and Ramakrishna Mission. The essay was reprinted as a book in 1905 and later compiled into the fourth volume of The Complete Works of Swami Vivekananda.
Vivekananda was one of the main representatives of Neo-Vedanta, a modern interpretation of selected aspects of Hinduism in line with western esoteric traditions, especially Transcendentalism, New Thought and Theosophy.
In the words of social reformer Charles Freer Andrews, “The Swami’s intrepid patriotism gave a new colour to the national movement throughout India. More than any other single individual of that period Vivekananda had made his contribution to the new awakening of India”
Sri Aurobindo regarded Vivekananda as the one who awakened India spiritually.
Mahatma Gandhi counted him among the few Hindu reformers “who have maintained this Hindu religion in a state of splendor by cutting down the dead wood of tradition”
Chakravarti Rajagopalachari, said “Vivekananda saved Hinduism, saved India”
According to Subhas Chandra Bose, a proponent of armed struggle for Indian independence, Vivekananda was “the maker of modern India”.
Rabindranath Tagore told French Nobel laureate Romain Rolland, “If you want to know India, study Vivekananda.
His main work, Raja Yoga, consists of talks he delivered in New York
In 2012, a 3-day World Congress of Religions conference was organised by the Institute of World Religions (of the Washington Kali Temple), Burtonsville, Maryland, in association with the Council for A Parliament of World Religions, Chicago, Illinois to commemorate 150th birthday of Swami Vivekananda.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/society/history-and-culture/the-footprints-of-the-youth-icon/article24817062.ece
Incorrect
Vivekananda was born Narendranath Datta in a Bengali family. He was a chief disciple of the 19th-century Indian mystic Ramakrishna.
Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Math and the Ramakrishna Mission.
Bartaman Bharat meaning “Present Day India” is an erudite Bengali language essay written by him, which was first published in the March 1899 issue of Udbodhan, the only Bengali language magazine of Ramakrishna Math and Ramakrishna Mission. The essay was reprinted as a book in 1905 and later compiled into the fourth volume of The Complete Works of Swami Vivekananda.
Vivekananda was one of the main representatives of Neo-Vedanta, a modern interpretation of selected aspects of Hinduism in line with western esoteric traditions, especially Transcendentalism, New Thought and Theosophy.
In the words of social reformer Charles Freer Andrews, “The Swami’s intrepid patriotism gave a new colour to the national movement throughout India. More than any other single individual of that period Vivekananda had made his contribution to the new awakening of India”
Sri Aurobindo regarded Vivekananda as the one who awakened India spiritually.
Mahatma Gandhi counted him among the few Hindu reformers “who have maintained this Hindu religion in a state of splendor by cutting down the dead wood of tradition”
Chakravarti Rajagopalachari, said “Vivekananda saved Hinduism, saved India”
According to Subhas Chandra Bose, a proponent of armed struggle for Indian independence, Vivekananda was “the maker of modern India”.
Rabindranath Tagore told French Nobel laureate Romain Rolland, “If you want to know India, study Vivekananda.
His main work, Raja Yoga, consists of talks he delivered in New York
In 2012, a 3-day World Congress of Religions conference was organised by the Institute of World Religions (of the Washington Kali Temple), Burtonsville, Maryland, in association with the Council for A Parliament of World Religions, Chicago, Illinois to commemorate 150th birthday of Swami Vivekananda.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/society/history-and-culture/the-footprints-of-the-youth-icon/article24817062.ece
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
In 1907, Bombay-born British author was announced as the winner of the Nobel Prize in literature. He then aged forty-two, remains the youngest winner of the award till date. He is also the first English-language recipient of the honour. Who is being referred to here?
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Which of the following diseases are linked with genetic disorder?
- Brittle bone disease
- Sickle Cell Anemia
- Cystic Fibrosis
Select the correct answer using the codes:
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Match the following
Folk Tradition Associated State
- Bhavageete:: Karnataka
- Kummi Paatu:: Kerala
- Gondhala:: Maharashtra
Which of the given options is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Kummi Pattu is of Tamil Nadu.
Source:
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The battle was fought between a Southern-kingdom and the Dutch East India Company.
- It was the first time in Indian history that a native army defeated a European force.
Which battle is being referred here?
Correct
The Battle of Colachel was fought on 10 August 1741 between the Indian kingdom of Travancore and the Dutch East India Company, during the Travancore-Dutch War.
Travancore, under Raja Marthanda Varma, defeated the Dutch East India Company. The defeat of the Dutch by Travancore is considered the earliest example of an organised power from Asia overcoming European military technology and tactics.
The Dutch never recovered from the defeat and no longer posed a large colonial threat to India.
It was the first time in Indian history that a native army defeated a European force. It was even more unique because an army with firearms lost to an army without one.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/society/history-and-culture/chennai-sees-battle-of-colachel-re-enactment/article24689975.ece
Incorrect
The Battle of Colachel was fought on 10 August 1741 between the Indian kingdom of Travancore and the Dutch East India Company, during the Travancore-Dutch War.
Travancore, under Raja Marthanda Varma, defeated the Dutch East India Company. The defeat of the Dutch by Travancore is considered the earliest example of an organised power from Asia overcoming European military technology and tactics.
The Dutch never recovered from the defeat and no longer posed a large colonial threat to India.
It was the first time in Indian history that a native army defeated a European force. It was even more unique because an army with firearms lost to an army without one.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/society/history-and-culture/chennai-sees-battle-of-colachel-re-enactment/article24689975.ece