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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Saturday)
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Which of the following is provided to plants by their roots?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
Correct | Correct | Correct | Correct |
Nitrogen | Water | Sulphur | Potassium |
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
Correct | Correct | Correct | Correct |
Nitrogen | Water | Sulphur | Potassium |
Which of the following statements regarding the adaptation is/are correct?
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
Many tribes live in the high altitude of Himalayas have a higher red blood cell count, is an example of the physiological adaptation. | According to Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection, the organisms adapt to their environment so that they could persist and pass their genes onto the next generation. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
Many tribes live in the high altitude of Himalayas have a higher red blood cell count, is an example of the physiological adaptation. | According to Charles Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection, the organisms adapt to their environment so that they could persist and pass their genes onto the next generation. |
In which of the following ways disposal of Phosphorous affect the trophic food web of a lake?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
It will cause an algal bloom. | Big zooplankton would increase because a lot of phytoplankton would be available. | It will increase turbidity in water. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
It will cause an algal bloom. | Big zooplankton would increase because a lot of phytoplankton would be available. | It will increase turbidity in water. |
In the context of forests of India, Deorais, Kavus and Dervara Kadus are:
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Sacred Grove:
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Sacred Grove:
With reference to ecological pyramids, consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect |
The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton. | An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community contains a few producers with very large biomass that support a larger number of smaller consumers. | Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Incorrect | Incorrect |
The pyramid of biomass in the sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton. | An inverted pyramid of numbers can be found in an ecosystem where the community contains a few producers with very large biomass that support a larger number of smaller consumers. | Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step. |
Recently, scientists have witnessed Noctiluca Scintillans, along the sea coast of Karnataka. What is Noctiluca Scintillans?
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Noctiluca Scintillans:
Bioluminescence:
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Noctiluca Scintillans:
Bioluminescence:
Consider the following statements with regard to photochemical smog:
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
The primary components are ozone, nitric oxide, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). | Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. | Certain plants e.g., Pinus, Juniparus, Quercus, Pyrus and Vitis can metabolise nitrogen oxide and therefore, their plantation could help in preventing its formation. |
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
The primary components are ozone, nitric oxide, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). | Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. | Certain plants e.g., Pinus, Juniparus, Quercus, Pyrus and Vitis can metabolise nitrogen oxide and therefore, their plantation could help in preventing its formation. |
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
Overall, the agreement is expected to reduce HFC use by 85 per cent by 2045. | The Agreement upholds the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities. The agreement recognises the development imperatives of high-growth economies like India and provides a realistic and viable roadmap for the implementation of a phase-out schedule. | The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol came into force on 1 January 2019. The threshold for the agreement to enter into force was met on 17 November 2017, when it was ratified by 20 parties. |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Correct |
Overall, the agreement is expected to reduce HFC use by 85 per cent by 2045. | The Agreement upholds the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities. The agreement recognises the development imperatives of high-growth economies like India and provides a realistic and viable roadmap for the implementation of a phase-out schedule. | The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol came into force on 1 January 2019. The threshold for the agreement to enter into force was met on 17 November 2017, when it was ratified by 20 parties. |
Consider the following statements about ‘Fly Ash’:
Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
Incorrect | Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
Fly ash is a type of Suspended Particulate Matter, not a gaseous pollutant. | Fly ash includes substantial amounts of oxides of Si, Al and Ca. Heavy toxic elements like Arsenic, Boron, Chromium, lead etc. are also found in trace concentration. | Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction and as a replacement for some of the Portland cement.
Fly ash bricks are light in weight and offer high strength and durability. |
Power ministry has launched ASH TRACK Mobile App to monitor fly ash generation and utilization. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 | Statement 4 |
Incorrect | Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
Fly ash is a type of Suspended Particulate Matter, not a gaseous pollutant. | Fly ash includes substantial amounts of oxides of Si, Al and Ca. Heavy toxic elements like Arsenic, Boron, Chromium, lead etc. are also found in trace concentration. | Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction and as a replacement for some of the Portland cement.
Fly ash bricks are light in weight and offer high strength and durability. |
Power ministry has launched ASH TRACK Mobile App to monitor fly ash generation and utilization. |
Consider the following statements regarding carbon sequestration:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Incorrect |
Carbon disclosure project examines carbon reduction activities. | Coastal ecosystems have the highest carbon sequestration rate. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Incorrect |
Carbon disclosure project examines carbon reduction activities. | Coastal ecosystems have the highest carbon sequestration rate. |
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Global Warming Potential (GWP)?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
GWP is expressed as a factor of carbon dioxide. | The Global Warming Potential of Carbon Dioxide is standardized to 1. | A GWP is calculated over a specific time interval of 20, 100, or 500 years. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
GWP is expressed as a factor of carbon dioxide. | The Global Warming Potential of Carbon Dioxide is standardized to 1. | A GWP is calculated over a specific time interval of 20, 100, or 500 years. |
Consider the following statements:
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the only legally binding international framework to address desertification. | UNCCD analyses desertification holistically and does not restrict itself with only desert ecosystems. | UNGA has declared 2010-2020 as the United Nations Decade for Deserts. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the only legally binding international framework to address desertification. | UNCCD analyses desertification holistically and does not restrict itself with only desert ecosystems. | UNGA has declared 2010-2020 as the United Nations Decade for Deserts. |
Consider the following statements regarding Convention on Conservation of Migratory Species (CMS):
Select the correct option using the codes given below:
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme. | It is the only global convention that specializes in the conservation of migratory species. | India, in February (2020), hosted the 13th Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS COP13), in Gujarat. The theme of the conference was ‘Migratory species connect the planet and together we welcome them home’. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
It is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme. | It is the only global convention that specializes in the conservation of migratory species. | India, in February (2020), hosted the 13th Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS COP13), in Gujarat. The theme of the conference was ‘Migratory species connect the planet and together we welcome them home’. |
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Rotterdam Convention?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Correct |
It built on the voluntary Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure, initiated by UNEP and FAO in 1989. | The parties of the Convention have ensured to share responsibilities and cooperative efforts while trading certain hazardous chemicals internationally. |
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Correct |
It built on the voluntary Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure, initiated by UNEP and FAO in 1989. | The parties of the Convention have ensured to share responsibilities and cooperative efforts while trading certain hazardous chemicals internationally. |
Consider the following statements about the National Wild Life Action Plan for 2017-2031:
Which of the above statements are correct?
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
This is the first time that an action plan on wildlife is recognizing the impact of climate change on wildlife. | This is third National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) released by Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC). | Plan also suggests private sector participation in the wildlife conservation process. |
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Incorrect | Correct |
This is the first time that an action plan on wildlife is recognizing the impact of climate change on wildlife. | This is third National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) released by Union Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC). | Plan also suggests private sector participation in the wildlife conservation process. |
Consider the following statements regarding the National Wastelands Development Board:
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Correct |
National Wasteland Development Board was established in 1985 under the Ministry of Forests and Environment. | During the Seventh Five Year Plan, the strategy adopted by it emphasised more on tree planting activities rather than Community Participation for wasteland development. |
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Correct |
National Wasteland Development Board was established in 1985 under the Ministry of Forests and Environment. | During the Seventh Five Year Plan, the strategy adopted by it emphasised more on tree planting activities rather than Community Participation for wasteland development. |
Consider the following statements about Wild Life Protection Act 1972:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
It helped India become a party to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). | The National Board for Wildlife was constituted as a statutory organization under the provisions of this Act. | The Act also provided for the establishment of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
It helped India become a party to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). | The National Board for Wildlife was constituted as a statutory organization under the provisions of this Act. | The Act also provided for the establishment of the National Tiger Conservation Authority. |
Which of the given statements is/are correct regarding Environment Protection Act 1986?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
In the wake of the Bhopal Tragedy, the Government of India enacted the Environment Protection Act of 1986. | The purpose of the Act is to implement the decisions of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment of 1972. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
In the wake of the Bhopal Tragedy, the Government of India enacted the Environment Protection Act of 1986. | The purpose of the Act is to implement the decisions of the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment of 1972. |
Consider the following statements regarding Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016:
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
The Rules aim at promoting use of plastic waste for road construction. | The Rules do not mention plastic material for packaging gutkha, pan masala and tobacco. |
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
The Rules aim at promoting use of plastic waste for road construction. | The Rules do not mention plastic material for packaging gutkha, pan masala and tobacco. |
Which of the following are associated with Kyoto protocol?
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
Clean Development Mechanism | Adaptation Fund | International Emissions Trading |
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Correct | Correct | Correct |
Clean Development Mechanism | Adaptation Fund | International Emissions Trading |
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Geomagnetic Storms’
Select the correct statement(s):
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
The frequency of geomagnetic storms increases and decreases with the sunspot cycle. During solar maximum, geomagnetic storms occur more often, with the majority driven by CMEs(Coronal Mass Ejections). | Several space weather phenomena tend to be associated with or are caused by a geomagnetic storm. These include solar energetic particle (SEP) events, geomagnetically induced currents (GIC), ionospheric disturbances that cause radio and radar scintillation, disruption of navigation by magnetic compass and auroral displays at much lower latitudes than normal |
Context – Earth was hit by a geomagnetic storm
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Correct |
The frequency of geomagnetic storms increases and decreases with the sunspot cycle. During solar maximum, geomagnetic storms occur more often, with the majority driven by CMEs(Coronal Mass Ejections). | Several space weather phenomena tend to be associated with or are caused by a geomagnetic storm. These include solar energetic particle (SEP) events, geomagnetically induced currents (GIC), ionospheric disturbances that cause radio and radar scintillation, disruption of navigation by magnetic compass and auroral displays at much lower latitudes than normal |
Context – Earth was hit by a geomagnetic storm
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance(RAMP) Programme’:
Select the correct statement(s):
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Incorrect |
“Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance” (RAMP) is a World Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme. It has been launched to support various Resilience and Recovery Interventions of the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME). | The programme aims at improving access to market and credit, strengthening institutions and governance at the Centre and State, improving Centre-State linkages and partnerships, addressing issues of delayed payments and greening of MSMEs. But there is no mention of interest free long term loans anywhere. |
Context – The Union Cabinet approved a USD 808 million or Rs 6,062.45 crore, World Bank assisted programme on “Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance” (RAMP
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Correct | Incorrect |
“Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance” (RAMP) is a World Bank assisted Central Sector Scheme. It has been launched to support various Resilience and Recovery Interventions of the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MoMSME). | The programme aims at improving access to market and credit, strengthening institutions and governance at the Centre and State, improving Centre-State linkages and partnerships, addressing issues of delayed payments and greening of MSMEs. But there is no mention of interest free long term loans anywhere. |
Context – The Union Cabinet approved a USD 808 million or Rs 6,062.45 crore, World Bank assisted programme on “Raising and Accelerating MSME Performance” (RAMP
With reference to ‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi Program’
Select the correct statement(s):
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Incorrect |
The program aims to provide social security benefits to street vendors for their holistic development and socioeconomic upliftment. It is an additional program of PMSVANidhi launched under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. | Under the program, socio-economic profiling of PMSVANidhi beneficiaries and their families is conducted to assess their eligibility for 8 Government of India’s welfare schemes and facilitate sanctions of eligible schemes. These schemes include Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana, PM Suraksha Bima Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, Registration under Building and other Constructions Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act (BOCW), Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana, National Food Security Act (NFSA) portability benefit – One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC), Janani Suraksha Yojana, and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY). Quality Council of India (QCI) is the implementing partner for the programme. |
Context – The Union Government has launched the ‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi’ program in additional 126 cities across 14 States/ UTs.
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 |
Incorrect | Incorrect |
The program aims to provide social security benefits to street vendors for their holistic development and socioeconomic upliftment. It is an additional program of PMSVANidhi launched under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. | Under the program, socio-economic profiling of PMSVANidhi beneficiaries and their families is conducted to assess their eligibility for 8 Government of India’s welfare schemes and facilitate sanctions of eligible schemes. These schemes include Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana, PM Suraksha Bima Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana, Registration under Building and other Constructions Workers (Regulation of Employment and Conditions of Service) Act (BOCW), Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Yojana, National Food Security Act (NFSA) portability benefit – One Nation One Ration Card (ONORC), Janani Suraksha Yojana, and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY). Quality Council of India (QCI) is the implementing partner for the programme. |
Context – The Union Government has launched the ‘SVANidhi se Samriddhi’ program in additional 126 cities across 14 States/ UTs.
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Veto Power of UN Security Council Permanent Members’
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
Although the “power of veto” is not mentioned by name in the UN Charter, Article 27 requires concurring votes from the permanent members. For this reason, the “power of veto” is also referred to as the principle of “great power unanimity” and the veto itself is sometimes referred to as the “great power veto” | A permanent member that abstains or is absent from the vote will not block a resolution from being passed. | Decisions of the UNSC on procedural matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members. Decisions of the UNSC on all other matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring votes of the permanent members. |
Context – Liechtenstein is convening the UN General Assembly to debate a draft resolution — backed by the US — requiring the five permanent members of the UN Security Council to justify their use of the veto.
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 | Statement 2 | Statement 3 |
Incorrect | Correct | Incorrect |
Although the “power of veto” is not mentioned by name in the UN Charter, Article 27 requires concurring votes from the permanent members. For this reason, the “power of veto” is also referred to as the principle of “great power unanimity” and the veto itself is sometimes referred to as the “great power veto” | A permanent member that abstains or is absent from the vote will not block a resolution from being passed. | Decisions of the UNSC on procedural matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members. Decisions of the UNSC on all other matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring votes of the permanent members. |
Context – Liechtenstein is convening the UN General Assembly to debate a draft resolution — backed by the US — requiring the five permanent members of the UN Security Council to justify their use of the veto.
Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi (PM-DAKSH) Yojana is being implemented by
Solution (a)
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched ‘PM-DAKSH’ (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Portal and ‘PM-DAKSH’ Mobile App to make the skill development schemes accessible to the target groups – Backward Classes, Scheduled Castes and Safai Karamcharis. The scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment from the year 2020-21
Context –The scheme was in news
Solution (a)
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched ‘PM-DAKSH’ (Pradhan Mantri Dakshta Aur Kushalta Sampann Hitgrahi) Portal and ‘PM-DAKSH’ Mobile App to make the skill development schemes accessible to the target groups – Backward Classes, Scheduled Castes and Safai Karamcharis. The scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment from the year 2020-21
Context –The scheme was in news
Akarsh and Bobby started a business with Rs. 1500 and Rs. 2500 and got a profit of Rs. 800. Half of the profit is shared equally the remaining is shared according to their investment. Find their profits respectively.
Solution (d)
The ratio of investment of Akarsh and Bobby = 1500: 2500
⇒ 15: 25
⇒ 3: 5
According to the question, Profit shared equally = 800/2 = Rs. 400
Share of Akarsh and Bobby = Rs. 200 and Rs. 200
Remaining profit = 800 – 400 = Rs. 400
Share of profit of Akarsh according to investment = 400 × (3/8) ⇒ Rs. 150
Share of profit of Bobby according to investment = 400 × (5/8) ⇒ Rs. 250
Total share of Akarsh = 200 + 150 = Rs. 350
Total share of Bobby = 200 + 250 = Rs. 450
∴ The profit of Akarsh and Bobby are Rs. 350 and Rs. 450 respectively.
Solution (d)
The ratio of investment of Akarsh and Bobby = 1500: 2500
⇒ 15: 25
⇒ 3: 5
According to the question, Profit shared equally = 800/2 = Rs. 400
Share of Akarsh and Bobby = Rs. 200 and Rs. 200
Remaining profit = 800 – 400 = Rs. 400
Share of profit of Akarsh according to investment = 400 × (3/8) ⇒ Rs. 150
Share of profit of Bobby according to investment = 400 × (5/8) ⇒ Rs. 250
Total share of Akarsh = 200 + 150 = Rs. 350
Total share of Bobby = 200 + 250 = Rs. 450
∴ The profit of Akarsh and Bobby are Rs. 350 and Rs. 450 respectively.
If a sales man gets successive gain of 15% and 20% then his actual gain?
Solution (b)
We have Gain 1 = 15% and gain 2 = 20%.
Then to find the overall gain
We need to use the formula for successive gains as Total gain = a + b + ab/100
Hence, total gain = 20 + 15 + 15 × 20/100
⇒ 20 + 15 + 3
⇒ 38
Solution (b)
We have Gain 1 = 15% and gain 2 = 20%.
Then to find the overall gain
We need to use the formula for successive gains as Total gain = a + b + ab/100
Hence, total gain = 20 + 15 + 15 × 20/100
⇒ 20 + 15 + 3
⇒ 38
On an Rs.10, 000 payment order, a person has a choice between 3 successive discounts of 10%, 10% and 30% and 3 successive discounts of 40%, 5% and 5%. By choosing the better one he can save (in Rupees)
Solution (c)
Given there are successive discounts, second discount is to be applied on first discounted amount and third discount on second discounted amount and so on.
Solving first choice of discounts:
Amount after first discount = 90 % of 10000 (10% is the discount) = 0.90 × 10000 = Rs.9000 Amount after second discount = 90% of 9000 (10% discount and 9000 is amount after first discount) = 0.90 × 9000 = Rs.8100
Amount after third discount = 70% of 8100 (30% discount and 8100 is amount after second discount) = 0.70 × 8100 = Rs.5670
Total savings = 10000 – 5670 = Rs.4330
Solving second choice of discounts:
Amount after first discount = 60 % of 10000 (40% is the discount) = 0.60 × 10000 = Rs.6000 Amount after second discount = 95% of 6000 (5% discount and 6000 is amount after first discount) = 0.95 × 6000 = Rs.5700
Amount after third discount = 95% of 5700 (5% discount and 5700 is amount after second discount) = 0.95 × 5700 = Rs.5415
Total savings = 10000 – 5415 = Rs.4585
Maximum amount can be saved by second choice i.e. Rs.4585
Solution (c)
Given there are successive discounts, second discount is to be applied on first discounted amount and third discount on second discounted amount and so on.
Solving first choice of discounts:
Amount after first discount = 90 % of 10000 (10% is the discount) = 0.90 × 10000 = Rs.9000 Amount after second discount = 90% of 9000 (10% discount and 9000 is amount after first discount) = 0.90 × 9000 = Rs.8100
Amount after third discount = 70% of 8100 (30% discount and 8100 is amount after second discount) = 0.70 × 8100 = Rs.5670
Total savings = 10000 – 5670 = Rs.4330
Solving second choice of discounts:
Amount after first discount = 60 % of 10000 (40% is the discount) = 0.60 × 10000 = Rs.6000 Amount after second discount = 95% of 6000 (5% discount and 6000 is amount after first discount) = 0.95 × 6000 = Rs.5700
Amount after third discount = 95% of 5700 (5% discount and 5700 is amount after second discount) = 0.95 × 5700 = Rs.5415
Total savings = 10000 – 5415 = Rs.4585
Maximum amount can be saved by second choice i.e. Rs.4585
A fuel dealer mixes two brands of fuel which cost in the ratio 2 : 3. A solution containing 30% brand A and remaining brand B yields profit of 10% when sold at Rs. 297. What is cost of brand B?
Solution (b)
Ratio of cost of brand A and brand B fuel = 2 : 3
Percentage of brand A in new solution = 30%
Percentage of brand B in new solution = (100 – 30)% = 70%
Concept used: CP = SP × [(100)/(100 + profit%)]
Individual cost × Quantity = Total cost
Calculation:
CP of of solution = Rs. 297 × 100/(100+10)
⇒ Rs. 297 × (100/110) ⇒ Rs. 270
Let the cost of brand A and brand B be 2y and 3y respectively
So, 2y × 30% + 3y × 70% = 270
⇒ 0.6y + 2.1y = 270
⇒ 2.7y = 270
⇒ y = 100
Cost of Brand B = 3 × 100 ⇒ Rs. 300
∴ Cost of brand B is Rs. 300
Solution (b)
Ratio of cost of brand A and brand B fuel = 2 : 3
Percentage of brand A in new solution = 30%
Percentage of brand B in new solution = (100 – 30)% = 70%
Concept used: CP = SP × [(100)/(100 + profit%)]
Individual cost × Quantity = Total cost
Calculation:
CP of of solution = Rs. 297 × 100/(100+10)
⇒ Rs. 297 × (100/110) ⇒ Rs. 270
Let the cost of brand A and brand B be 2y and 3y respectively
So, 2y × 30% + 3y × 70% = 270
⇒ 0.6y + 2.1y = 270
⇒ 2.7y = 270
⇒ y = 100
Cost of Brand B = 3 × 100 ⇒ Rs. 300
∴ Cost of brand B is Rs. 300
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.
Around the world, capital cities are disgorging bureaucrats. In the post-colonial fervor of the 20th century, coastal capitals picked by trade-focused empires were spurned for “regionally neutral” new ones. But decamping wholesale is costly and unpopular; governments these days prefer piecemeal dispersal. The trend reflects how the world has changed. In past eras, when information travelled at a snail’s pace, civil servants had to cluster together. But now desk-workers can ping emails and video-chat around the world. Travel for face-to-face meetings may be unavoidable, but transport links, too, have improved.
Proponents of moving civil servants around promise countless benefits. It disperses the risk that a terrorist attack or natural disaster will cripple an entire government. Wonks in the sticks will be inspired by new ideas that walled-off capitals cannot conjure up. Autonomous regulators perform best far from the pressure and lobbying of the big city. Some even hail a cure for ascendant cynicism and populism. The unloved bureaucrats of faraway capitals will become as popular as firefighters once they mix with regular folk.
Beyond these sunny visions, dispersing central-government functions usually has three specific aims: to improve the lives of both civil servants and those living in clogged capitals; to save money; and to redress regional imbalances. The trouble is that these goals are not always realised.
The first aim—improving living conditions has a long pedigree. After the Second World War Britain moved thousands of civil servants to “agreeable English country towns” as London was rebuilt. But swapping the capital for somewhere smaller is not always agreeable. Attrition rates can exceed 80%. The second reason to pack bureaucrats off is to save money. Office space costs far more in capitals. Agencies that are moved elsewhere can often recruit better workers on lower salaries than in capitals, where well-paying multinationals mop up talent.
The third reason to shift is to rebalance regional inequality. Norway treats federal jobs as a resource every region deserves to enjoy, like profits from oil. Where government jobs go, private ones follow. Sometimes the aim is to fulfill the potential of a country’s second-tier cities. Unlike poor, remote places, bigger cities can make the most of relocated government agencies, linking them to local universities and businesses and supplying a better-educated workforce. The decision in 1946 to set up America’s Centres for Disease Control in Atlanta rather than Washington D.C. has transformed the city into a hub for health-sector research and business.
The dilemma is obvious. Pick small, poor towns, and areas of high unemployment get new jobs, but it is hard to attract the most qualified workers; opt for larger cities with infrastructure and better-qualified residents, and the country’s most deprived areas see little benefit. Others contend that decentralisation begets corruption by making government agencies less accountable. A study in America found that state-government corruption is worse when the state capital is isolated—journalists, who tend to live in the bigger cities, become less watchful of those in power.
The “dilemma” mentioned in the passage refers to:
Solution (d)
Paragraph 6 explains the dilemma. Small, poor towns = new jobs in areas of high employment, but it is hard to attract the most qualified workers; Larger cities = infrastructure and better-qualified residents, but deprived areas do not benefit.
Option d simply paraphrases this.
Solution (d)
Paragraph 6 explains the dilemma. Small, poor towns = new jobs in areas of high employment, but it is hard to attract the most qualified workers; Larger cities = infrastructure and better-qualified residents, but deprived areas do not benefit.
Option d simply paraphrases this.
All the Best
IASbaba