Solution (b)

The Government of India Act of 1935 abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place. The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres. The Act introduced responsible governments in provinces. The governor was required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature.  (Hence Statement 1 is correct)

The Government of India Act of 1935 provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the currency and credit of the country. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)

The Government of India Act of 1919 created a new office of the High Commissioner for India in London and transferred to him some of the functions hitherto performed by the Secretary of State for India. (Hence Statement 3 is incorrect)

Solution (b)

• The Indian Councils Act 1909 established a distinct electorate for Muslims, which was later expanded to include Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans by the Government of India Act 1919 (not by Communal Award). The Communal Award not only continued separate electorates for the Muslims, Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans but also extended it to the depressed classes (Scheduled Castes). (Hence Statement 1 is incorrect)
• Mahatma Gandhi was distressed over this extension of the principle of communal representation to the depressed classes and undertook fast unto death in Yerawada Jail (Poona) to get the award modified. This led to an agreement between the leaders of the Congress and the depressed classes which is known as Poona Pact. The pact retained the Hindu joint electorate and gave reserved seats to the depressed classes. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)

The Communal Award, also known as the MacDonald Award, was a scheme for representation of minorities. The Communal Award was based on the findings of the Indian Franchise Committee also called the Lothian Committee. (Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Indian Independence Act dropped the title of ‘Emperor of India’ from the royal titles of the king of England. (Hence Statement 1 is correct)

• The act proclaimed the lapse of British paramountcy over the Indian princely states and treaty relations with tribal areas from August 15, 194. (Hence Statement 2 is incorrect)

 The act granted freedom to the Indian princely states either to join the Dominion of India or Dominion of Pakistan or to remain independent. (Hence Statement 3 is correct)

Solution (c)

The Government of India Act 1919, also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms came into force in 1921 with the sole purpose to ensure Indians of their representation in the Government. The Act divided the provincial subjects into two parts – transferred and reserved, this dual scheme of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’.

 “Reserved Subjects”: The reserved list includes subjects such as Law and Order, Finance, Land Revenue, Administration of Justice, Police, irrigation etc. and the subjects were to be administered by the governor through his executive council of bureaucrats. All-important subjects were kept in the reserved subjects of the Provincial Executive. Option. 1,3 and 4 are correct.

 “Transferred Subjects”: The transferred subjects were to be administered by ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council and it included subjects such as education, health, Local Self-Government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc. Option 2 is wrong.

Solution (d)

The term social capital was popularised by Robert Putnam. As per OECD, it can be defined as “networks together with shared norms, values and understandings that facilitate co-operation within or among groups”. It consists of trust, mutual understanding, shared values and behaviour that bind together the members of a community and make cooperative action possible. Such interaction enables people to build communities, to commit themselves to each other, and to knit the social fabric. Option (d) is correct.

The proportion of literates in the population and the size of population in the working age group are the examples of human capital. Option (a) is incorrect.

The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines is the example of physical capital. Option (b) is incorrect.

The size of population in the working age group are example of Demograhic Dividend. Option (c) is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Article 3 relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states including increasing or diminishing the area of the states, altering the boundaries of the state or altering the name of the state. A bill contemplating the changes under Article 3 can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

It is mandatory for the President, before giving such recommendation, to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Article 4 of the Constitution declares that laws made for formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments under article 368. This also includes laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2). This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

The term ‘federation’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution of India. Instead, Constitution describes India as a ‘Union of States’. The term ‘Union’ has been preferred to ‘Federation’ to indicate two things: 

• the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American federation; and 
• the states have no right to secede from the federation. Hence Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

The word ‘Union’ does not signify that the regional governments are subordinate to the Central government or derive their authority from the Central government. Both Central and state governments are independent in their own sphere. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

The Census is a statutory exercise conducted under the provisions of the Census Act 1948 and Rules made there under. On the other hand, the NPR is being created under the provisions of the Citizenship Act and Rules. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

The NPR database would contain demographic as well as biometric particulars. The NPR would have the data of every person enumerated during the Census operations irrespective of age. It would also have the biometric data and UID Number of every person of age 15 years and above. National Identity Cards will be given in a phased manner to all usual residents by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

The NPR is a comprehensive identity database that helps in better targeting of the benefits and services under the Government schemes/programmes, improve planning and help strengthen security of the country. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

The Charter Act of 1853 separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor- General’s council. It provided for addition of six new members called legislative councillors to the council. In other words, it established a separate Governor-General’s legislative council which came to be known as the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. (Hence Statement 1 is incorrect)

The Government of India Act of 1858 ended the system of double Government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)

The Government of India Act of 1858 created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. The secretary of state was a member of the British Cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British Parliament. It established a 15-member council of India to assist the Secretary of State for India. (Hence Statement 3 is correct)

The Government of India Act of 1919 provided for the establishment of a public service commission. (Hence Statement 4 is incorrect)

Solution (a) 

The Charter Act of 1833 ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body and made East India Company a purely administrative body. (Hence Statement 1 is incorrect)

The Charter Act of 1833 deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. Also, the act made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. (Hence Statement 2 is correct)

The Charter Act of 1853 for the first time successfully introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants.  Previously the Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants but this provision was negated after opposition. (Hence Statement 3 is incorrect)

Solution (b)

The authority of the constitution is higher than that of the parliament because the constitution specifies how parliament is to be formed and what are its powers. Constitution is the source of authority for the parliament and not the vice-versa. Although Parliament can amend the constitution, but even the procedure for amendment is provided by the Constitution itself. Hence, Statement I is correct.

The constitution was framed before the parliament came into being, but this is not the correct reason. Hence, Statement II is correct. But Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I.

Solution (b)

H.V.R. Iyengar was the Secretary to the Constituent Assembly.Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Sir B.N. Rau was appointed as the constitutional advisor (Legal advisor) to the Constituent Assembly. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

S.N. Mukerjee (and not Dr. B. R Ambedkar) was the chief draftsman of the constitution in the Constituent Assembly. B.R Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee.Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

 Solution (c)

The Constituent Assembly performed various functions in addition to the making of the Constitution and enacting of ordinary laws. It ratified the India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

It adopted both the national flag on July 22, 1947 and the national anthem on January 24, 1950. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

It adopted the national song on January 24, 1950.

It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1950. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

 Solution (c)

Explanation:

The constitution sets some limits on what a government can impose on its citizens. These limits are fundamental in the sense that government may never trespass them. Constitutions limit the power of government in many ways. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

The Constitution provides a framework for the government to do certain positive things like, express the aspirations and goals of society. It is much needed for a country like India to overcome the forms of inequality or deprivation. The Indian Constitution enables the government to take positive welfare measures some of which are legally enforceable. Hence Statement 2 is correct

Solution (b)

One of the features of parliamentary government in India is the presence of both nominal and real executives. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Indian Parliament is not a sovereign body like the British Parliament. In India, the people are sovereign. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

Membership of the ministers in the legislature is also a feature of the Indian parliamentary system. They are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Majority party rule is a feature of the Indian parliamentary system. The political homogeneity is maintained when the council of ministers belong to the same party or in case of coalition government, it is maintained when ministers are bound by consensus. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

The lower house can be dissolved before its expiry by the President on the recommendation of Prime minister. Thus, dissolution of lower house by the executive is a feature of Parliamentary form of government. Hence, Statement 5 is correct.

 Solution (c)

The Indian Independence Act of 1947 made the changes in the position of the Constituent Assembly. It was made a fully sovereign body, which could frame any Constitution it pleased. The act empowered the Assembly to abrogate or alter any law made by the British Parliament in relation to India. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Of these, 296 seats were to be allotted to British India and 93 seats to the princely states. Each province and princely state (or group of states in case of small states) were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Assembly. Similarly, both H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari were elected as the Vice-Presidents of the Assembly. In other words, the Assembly had two Vice-Presidents. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

The Assembly also became a legislative body. In other words, two separate functions were assigned to the Assembly, that is, making of a constitution for free India and enacting of ordinary laws for the country. Whenever the Assembly met as the Constituent body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad and when it met as the legislative body, it was chaired by G V Mavlankar. Hence Statement 4 is correct.

 Solution (b)

The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron (kesaria) at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion. The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly of India on 22 July 1947.

The Constituent Assembly ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949. Choosing to remain in the Organization was India’s first major foreign policy decision after Independence. Commonwealth is a free association of sovereign states.

‘Jana Gana Mana’ was adopted as the national anthem of India on January 24, 1950, by the Constituent Assembly. 

The National Emblem of India is a representative seal of the Republic of India that is adapted from the Lion Capital of Ashoka Pillar (based in Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh.) India adopted it as the State Emblem on 26th January 1950. The motto of the Indian National Emblem is ‘Satyamev Jayate’ or ‘Truth Alone Triumphs.’

Solution (a)

Quasi federal refers to a system of government where the distribution of powers between the Center and the state are not equal. India is a federation with a unitary bias and is referred as a quasi-federal state because of strong central machinery. According to K Santhanam, factor like dominance of the centre in the financial sphere and the dependence of states upon the central grants responsible for unitary bias. Hence Statement a is correct.

Bicameralism is a federal feature of Indian constitution. Bicameralism means there are two houses of Parliament lower house or Lok Sabha having representatives elected directly by the people and the upper house namely the council of states or Rajya Sabha which represents the federating units. Hence Statement b is incorrect.

India follows dual polity at the centre and state. This constitutes as a federal feature of Indian state. Dual polity means centre and state are endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the constitution. Hence Statement c is incorrect.

The main principle on which the parliamentary system operates is responsibility of executive to the legislature. Hence Statement d is incorrect.

Solution (d)

While elections to the Constituent Assembly were still in progress, on July 8, 1946, the Congress Party (Indian National Congress) appointed an Experts Committee for the purpose of preparing material for the Constituent Assembly. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

The Experts Committee held two sittings in July and submitted its recommendations that contained procedures for the election of the Assembly’s top functionaries and the setting up of important Assembly committees. But the most significant part of the recommendations was a section titled ‘Declaration of Objectives’ – the very first version of what would later become the Objectives Resolution. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Jawaharlal Nehru was the Chairman of the Committee. Later, on the Chairman’s proposal, it was resolved that Krishna Kriplani be co-opted as a member and convener of the committee. Hence Statement 3 is correct

Solution (b)

India follows a Single constitution for both the Centre and states. Although there are federal features in the Indian Polity, including a Division of Powers, both the Centre and the states share a common constitution.  Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Indian constitution is heavily influenced by a long tradition of constitutional legislations, originating since the times of British Rule in India. In particular, the Government of India Act, 1935 has a great influence on the Indian constitution. GoI Act, 1935 was itself a very detailed and lengthy document, which is why under its influence, Indian constitution has itself become lengthy too. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Many matters like functions and membership of constitutional bodies, creation of local bodies, structure and procedures of Parliament, etc have been explicitly written down in the Indian constitution. It is one of the reasons that the Indian constitution is so lengthy. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

India is a very huge and diverse country – in terms of its geography, religions, languages, society, etc.  In order to encapsulate all such situations and needs to the very best, the Indian constitution has detailed provisions and multiple systems. All this contributes to making the Indian constitution a lengthy document. Hence Statement 4 is correct.

The makers of the Indian constitution were wise and understood that a constitution is an organic document, which needs to be living, rather than set in stone,they made provisions for amending the constitution, as per the requirements of the times in which people are living. Although the constitution does try to provide details of governance and administration wherever possible, it does not overstress on keeping itself unchanged and avoiding amendments is certainly not the reason to have its detailed and lengthy provisions. Hence Statement 5 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• The Colombo Process is a regional consultative forum comprising 12 member states of Asia. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• It serves as a forum for the exchange of best practices on overseas employment.
• Its members are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, China, Cambodia, India, Indonesia, Nepal, Pakistan, the Philippines, Sri Lanka, Thailand, and Vietnam.
• Its process is non-binding and decision-making is by consensus. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The process is coordinated through the Permanent Missions of Member States at the United Nations in Geneva. 
• The process is governed by Ministerial Consultations wherein recommendations and action plans are discussed and adopted by the Ministers of the participating countries.
• The International Organization for Migration (IOM) has provided technical support to the Colombo Process since its inception and serves as its Secretariat.
• India has been a member of the Colombo Process since its inception in 2003. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-assumes-chair-of-colombo-process-for-2024-26-9359983/

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• The Exit Poll is a post-election survey that shows how many seats a political party will likely win. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• It is not the same as the official election results.
• It is conducted immediately after voters have cast their ballots.
• It can be released by media houses only after the voting ends for an election. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It is regulated by Section 126A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• It stipulates that no person shall conduct or publish exit polls via print or electronic media, or disseminate the results in any manner, during a period specified by the Election Commission of India.
• Any person who contravenes the provisions of Section 126A shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years or with a fine or both.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/political-pulse/exit-polls-2009-2014-2019-lok-sabha-elections-9364231/

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis

• Tobacco is native to North and South America.
• Red Sanders is a native of India and is only present in the southern Eastern Ghats. Hence, option a is correct.
• Papaya is native to tropical America.

Note:

• World No Tobacco Day is an annual campaign to raise awareness of the harmful and deadly effects of tobacco use and second-hand smoke exposure and to discourage the use of tobacco in any form.
• The theme for 2024 was “Protecting Children from Tobacco Industry Interference”.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2022317

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• The term “two-state solution” is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of Israel-Palestine. It would see an independent Palestinian state established

alongside the existing one of Israel – giving both peoples their territory. Hence, option c is correct.

Note:

The Abraham Accords are a series of agreements signed in 2020 between Israel and several Arab states. The primary countries involved are Israel, UAE, Morocco, Bahrain, and Sudan. It was mediated by the United States.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/international/is-a-future-palestine-state-possible/article68241006.ece

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

• Ahilya Bai Holkar (31 May 1725 – 13 August 1795) was the Holkar Queen of the Maratha Malwa kingdom, India.
• She is regarded as one of the most visionary female rulers of India. She is widely known for her wisdom, courage, and administrative skills. 
• Ahilyabai’s husband, Khanderao Holkar, was killed in the battle of Kumbher in 1754.
• Twelve years later, her father-in-law, Malhar Rao Holkar, died.
• A year after that, she was crowned the queen of the Malwa kingdom. For the next 28 years, Ahilyabai ruled over Malwa in a just, wise, and knowledgeable manner.
• Under Ahilyabai’s rule, Malwa enjoyed relative peace, prosperity, and stability, and her capital, Maheshwar, was turned into an oasis of literary, musical, artistic, and industrial pursuits.
• She welcomed stalwarts such as Marathi poet Moropant, Shahir Ananta Gandhi, and Sanskrit scholar Khushali Ram into her capital.
• She was instrumental in spreading the message of dharma and propagating 

industrialization.

• She established a textile industry in Maheshwar, which today is very famous for its Maheshwari sarees. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• She contributed to the repair of the famous Kashi Vishwanath Temple in 1780. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• She built hundreds of temples and Dharmashalas throughout India.
• She was military-trained and personally led armies into battle. She appointed Tukojirao Holkar as the Chief of Army.
• She removed a traditional law confiscating the property of childless widows. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• She held daily public audiences to help redress the problems of the common man.
• She was given the title ‘The Philosopher Queen’ by the British historian, John Keay. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/when-a-holkar-queen-gave-india-ram-rajya-9362764/

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

The ‘State of the Ocean Report’ is released by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission – United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (IOC-UNESCO). It serves as an accessible overview of the ocean’s current status. It supports the monitoring of the UN Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development (2021–2030) and encourages actions towards a sustainable ocean future. Hence, option c is correct.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/climate-change/unesco-s-state-of-ocean-report-highlights-key-knowledge-gaps-in-research-data-on-spiking-oceanic-warming-96534

 Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• The Aditya-L1 Mission is India’s first space-based solar mission to study the Sun. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• It would provide an uninterrupted view of the Sun for prolonged periods, overcoming the limitations of Low Earth Orbits where the view is frequently blocked by the Earth itself.
• It carries seven payloads to examine the Sun’s properties using visible and X-ray spectrometers, a coronagraph, analysers for solar winds and energetic particles, and magnetometers.
• It was launched into a halo orbit around the Sun-Earth Lagrange point 1 (L1). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The L1 point is perhaps the most immediately significant of the Lagrangian points, which were discovered by mathematician Joseph Louis Lagrange. It lies 1.5 million kilometres inside the Earth’s orbit, partway between the Sun and the Earth.
• It will facilitate India to establish its solar observatory in space, which would have numerous applications in day-to-day life.
• Its success would place ISRO into an elite space club along with NASA and ESA.
• It helps to understand the initiation of Coronal Mass Ejection (CME), solar flares, and near-earth space weather. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• It helps to understand coronal heating, solar wind acceleration, coupling and dynamics of the solar atmosphere, solar wind distribution, and temperature anisotropy.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/isro-releases-images-of-sun-captured-by-aditya-l1-during-may-solar-storm/article68273124.ece

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) is an extra-constitutional body headed by the Prime Minister. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• It deals with all issues related to the law and order and national security of India.
• It discusses different initiatives to take to enhance the national security of India.
• It deals with policy matters of foreign affairs that may have a bearing on internal or external security implications, including cases relating to agreements with other countries on security-related issues.
• It is the apex body for the appointment of officials in national security bodies. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It makes all the important decisions on defence policy and expenditure and, generally, all matters of India’s security.
• Its members include the Prime Minister along with the Ministry of Home Affairs, the Ministry of Defence the Ministry of Finance, and the Ministry of External Affairs. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/everyday-explainers/narendra-modi-cabinet-committees-ccs-explained-9381592/

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• Nagarahole Tiger Reserve is spread over two districts in Karnataka and is named after a small river.
• It is situated in the districts of Mysore and Kodagu in Karnataka, covering an area of 847.981 sq km.
• It is named after a small river, ‘Nagarahole’ (literally a snake stream in Kannada), which meanders within the habitat before joining the river Kabini. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• It was set up in 1955 as a wildlife sanctuary by Coorg State.
• It was upgraded to a national park in 1988 and brought under the fold of Project Tiger by declaring it a Tiger Reserve in 1999.
• It is contiguous with Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary to its south and Bandipur Tiger Reserve to its southeastern parts. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It also forms part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.
• The Kabini and Taraka reservoirs are large water bodies located towards the west and southeastern parts of the reserve, respectively.
• Its predominant vegetation is of southern tropical, moist, and mixed deciduous type. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• Its flora includes rosewood, teak, sandalwood, and silver oak.

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/bangalore/mysuru-dasara-elephant-ashwatthama-dies-of-electrocution-in-nagarhole-tiger-reserve-9386342/

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

• JIMEX- 2024 is the eighth edition of the bilateral Japan-India Maritime Exercise. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The exercise involves harbour and sea phases, with professional, sports, and social activities at the harbour, followed by joint naval war drills at sea to improve their interoperability across various operations.
• During the exercise, the navies of both countries will jointly hone their warfighting skills at sea and enhance their interoperability.
• Indian Navy’s Indigenous Stealth Frigate INS Shivalik is participating in the bilateral maritime exercise. Japan is being represented by the Guided Missile Destroyer JS Yugiri.
• It provides an opportunity to learn from each other’s best practices and facilitates operational interactions between India and Japan.
• The exercise also reaffirms their shared commitment towards maritime security in the Indo-Pacific region.
• It took place in Yokosuka, Japan. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2024261

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Prime numbers between 1 and 1111 are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11,…

There is no other prime no. ending with 5 as unit digit, except one '5'

2 x 5 = 10 gives only one zero in the product of all prime numbers

So, number of zeros at the end of the product = 1

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Remember: The difference between the numbers too leaves the same remainder!

Let N be the 3 digit number.

Let R be the remainder.

So, 573921 – R and 575713 – R will be divisible by N

This means the difference between them is also divisible by N.

Difference = (575713 – R – 573921 + R) is divisible by N

Or 1792 divisible by N

N can be 256 from the answer choices.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Since the product is involved, we will keep the numbers as close as possible

bc = 96 and c = 9

b c

12 × 8 = 96

16 × 6 = 96

24 × 4 = 96

ab = 432

a b

12 × 36 = 432

16 × 27 = 432
24 × 18 = 432

So possible values of a = 36, b = 12, c = 8 Sum = 58

a = 27, b = 16, c = 6 Sum = 49

a = 18, b = 24, c = 4 Sum = 46

Least possible value = 46

Consider two statements followed by a Question:

Statement I: y – x = 2

Statement II: z – y = 2

Question: x, y, and z are three positive odd integers, is x+z divisible by 4?

Explanation:

If only first statement is taken into consideration: y-x = 2 where x, y and z are three odd

integers.

Nothing absolute can be said about divisibility of x+z with 4.

Now if only second statement is taken into consideration: z-y = 2 and nothing absolute can be

said about divisibility of x+z with 4.

If we consider both statement simultaneously then

We get x+z = 2y; Now as we know y is an odd integer, so 2y will never get a factor of 4

Hence x+z is not divisible by 4.

As we find an absolute answer by using both statements, answer will be option c.

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these items

should be based on the passages only

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Refer these lines, “Another bold and much-sought-after change introduced in the budget is

the abolition of taxation of dividend in the hands of the shareholder…. We can clearly infer

from the 2nd last sentence of the last paragraph of the passage that the abolition of taxation

of dividend in the hands of shareholder was a major change in the budget for 2004-05.

Hence, option b is the correct answer.