Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Salient features of The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013:
• Institutional mechanism: Establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States to inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries.
• Composition: Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a maximum of eight members, of which 50% shall be judicial members and 50% shall be from SC/ST/OBCs, minorities and women.
• Appointment process: It is a two-stage process.
• A search committee which recommends a panel of names to the high-power selection committee.
• The selection committee comprises the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition, the Chief Justice of India (or his nominee) and an eminent jurist (nominated by President based on the recommendation of other members of the panel).
• President will appoint the recommended names.
• The Chairperson and every Member hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office or until he attains the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.
• Jurisdiction: The jurisdiction of Lokpal extends to
• Anyone who is or has been Prime Minister, or a Minister in the Union government, or a Member of Parliament, as well as officials of the Union government under Groups A, B, C and D.
• The chairpersons, members, officers and directors of any board, corporation, society, trust or autonomous body either established by an Act of Parliament or wholly or partly funded by the Centre.
• Any society or trust or body that receives foreign contribution above ₹10 lakh.
• Salaries, allowances and service conditions of the Lokpal chairperson will be the same as those for the Chief Justice of India; those for other members will be the same as those for a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Inquiry wing and prosecution wing: Inquiry Wing for conducting preliminary inquiry and Prosecution Wing for the purpose of prosecution of public servants in relation to any complaint by the Lokpal under this Act.
• The administrative expenses of the Lokpal, including all salaries, allowances and pensions of the Chairperson, Members or Secretary or other officers or staff of the Lokpal, will be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and any fees or other money taken by the Lokpal shall form part of that Fund. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The First Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) of India (1966–1970) recommended the setting up of two special authorities designated as ‘Lokpal’ and ‘lokayukta’ for the redressal of citizens’ grievances. Hence option (b) is the correct answer.
• These institutions were to be set up on the pattern of the institution of Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries and the parliamentary commissioner for investigation in New Zealand. The Lokpal would deal with complaints against ministers and secretaries at Central and state levels, and the Lokayukta (one at the Centre and one in every state) would deal with complaints against other specified higher officials.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Central Vigilance Commission (CVC): The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government. It is apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilant work.
• It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64). In 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.
• It consists of a Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more than two Vigilance Commissioner.
• The Central Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) is the Chairperson and the Vigilance Commissioners (Members) of the Committee, on whose recommendations, the Central Government appoints the Director of Enforcement. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The appointment process of a CBI director has been provided in Section 4A (as amended upon the enactment of The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013) of the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946. According to the said section, a CBI director shall be appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee consisting of:
• Chairperson – Prime Minister
• Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha/leader of the single largest party in Lok SabhaThe Chief Justice of India or a judge of the Supreme Court nominated by the CJI. .Hence Statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• State Information Commission: The Right to Information Act 2005, provides for the creation of Central information Commission (at central level) and State Information Commission at the state level.
• The State Information Commission is a high-powered independent body which interalia looks into the complaints made to it and decide the appeals. It entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions, public sector undertakings, etc., under the concerned state government.
• The State Information Commission consists of a State Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten State Information Commissioners. They are appointed by the Governor on the recommendation of a committee consisting of
• the Chief Minister as Chairperson,
• the Leader of Opposition in the Legislative Assembly
• a State Cabinet Minister nominated by the Chief Minister.
• The Parliament enacted the Right to Information (Amendment) Act, 2019. Amendments brought in the RTI Act:
• Removal of fixed term- As per the RTI Act 2005, the CIC and ICs (at the central and state level) will hold office for a term of five years. The Amendment removes this provision and states that the central government will notify the term of office for the CIC and the ICs (at the central and state level).
• Determination of Salary- As per the RTI Act 2005, the salary of the CIC and ICs (at the central level) will be equivalent to the salary paid to the Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners, respectively. Similarly, the salary of the CIC and ICs (at the state level) will be equivalent to the salary paid to the Election Commissioners and the Chief Secretary to the state government, respectively. The Amendment empowers the Central Government to determine the salaries, allowances, and other terms and conditions of service of the central and state CIC and ICs.
• Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Central Information commission: It is a statutory body constituted under Right to Information Act, 2005.
• It consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners.
• Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT) under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions is the nodal ministry for the Central Information Commission. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• As per section 25 of the RTI Act, the Commission is required to prepare an annual report after the end of each year on the implementation of the provisions of the Act during that year which is to be forwarded to the appropriate Government, which, in turn, is required to lay the report before each House of Parliament. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a multi-member body consisting of a chairperson and five members.
• The chairperson  should   be retired   chief   justice   of   India   or   a   judge   of   the   Supreme Court and members should be a serving or retired judge of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief  justice  of  a  high  court and  three  persons (out  of  which  at  least  one  should  be   a  woman) having knowledge or practical experience with respect to human rights. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• In addition to these full-time members, the commission also has seven ex-officio members–the chairpersons of the National Commission for Minorities, the National Commission for SCs, the National Commission for STs, the National Commission for Women, the National Commission for BCs and the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities.
• Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019 included Chairperson of the National Commission for Backward Classes, Chairperson of the National Commission for the Protection of Child Rights and the Chief Commissioner for Persons with Disabilities as ex-officio Members of the Commission. Chairperson of National Commission for Minorities was already an ex-officio member of NHRC. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Central Information Commission has been constituted with effect from 12-10-2005 under the Right to Information Act, 2005. The jurisdiction of the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The powers and functions of the Central Information Commission are:
• It is the duty of the Commission to receive and inquire into a complaint from any person who has been refused information, not been able to submit application due to non-appointment of PIO, etc.
• It can order an inquiry into any matter if there are reasonable grounds (suo-moto power).
• While inquiring, the commission has the powers of a civil court. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• all public records must be given to the Commission during inquiry for examination
• seeking an annual report from the public authority on compliance with this Act;
• Imposing penalties under this Act. It can impose a penalty on the Public Information Officer (PIO) at the rate of ₹250 per day up to a maximum of ₹25,000.
• It can also recommend (cannot initiate by itself) for disciplinary action against the errant official. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was set up in 1963 by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs. Later, it was transferred to the Ministry of Personnel and now it enjoys the status of an attached office.

Statement 2 is correct: The CBI is not a statutory body. It derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, of 1946.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

The functions of the Commission are:

1. To inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in preventing such violation by a public servant, either Suo motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a court.
2. To intervene in any proceeding involving an allegation of violation of human rights pending before a court. Hence option 1 is correct.
3. To visit jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and make recommendations thereon. Hence option 3 is correct.
4. To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
5. To review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and recommend remedial measures. Hence option 2 is correct.
6. To study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The salary and other service conditions of the State Chief Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Election Commissioner.

Statement 2 is correct: The salary and other service conditions of the State Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Secretary of the State Government.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The state information commissioner holds office till the age of 65 or 5 years. The information commissioner is eligible for the post of state chief information commissioner but can be in office for a maximum of 5 years including his tenure of information commissioner.

Solution (d)

Explanation

• The objectives of the NITI Aayog are;
• To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities with the active involvement of States.
• To foster cooperative federalism.
• To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government. (Integrate villages institutionally into the development process)
• To focus on technology up-gradation and capacity building
• To design strategic and long-term policy and programme frameworks and initiatives, and monitor their progress and their efficacy
• To provide advice and encourage partnerships between key stakeholders
• To offer a platform for the resolution of inter-sectoral and interdepartmental issues in order to accelerate the implementation of the development agenda.
• To leverage India’s demographic dividend. Hence option (d) is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• NITI Aayog, like that of the Planning Commission, was also created by an executive resolution of the Government of India (i.e., Union Cabinet). Hence it is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. In other words, it is an extra-constitutional non-statutory body. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs.
• While designing strategic and long-term policies and programs for the Government of India, NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Unlike the Planning Commission era, NITI Aayog provides a collaborative setting and a “bottom-up” approach. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Commission is made up of three members: a chairperson and two members.

Statement 2 is correct: The governor appoints the chairperson and members of a State Human Rights Commission, they can only be removed by the President

Statement 3 is incorrect: The State Human Rights Commission submits its annual report to the state government. These reports are presented to the state legislature, together with a memorandum of action taken on the Commission’s recommendations and the reasons for rejecting any of them.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Chairman and members of the SATs are appointed by the President after consultation with the Governor of the state concerned.

Statement 2 is incorrect:  The SATs have been set up in the nine states of Andhra Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, Odisha, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, and Kerala.

Statement 3 is correct: Article 323A empowers the Parliament to set up Central Administrative Tribunals and State Administrative Tribunals for adjudication of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed in Public services.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Under Article 323B, the Parliament and the State Legislatures are authorized to provide for the establishment of tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to the following matters: 1. Taxation.  2. Foreign exchange, import, and export.  3. Industrial and labor.  4. Land reforms.  5. Ceiling on urban property.  6. Elections to Parliament and State Legislatures.  7. Foodstuffs.  8. Rent and tenancy rights (added by the 75th Amendment Act of 1993).

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India is a Statutory public body constituted under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
• The various human rights issues taken up by the Commission are as follows:
• Abolition of Bonded Labor
• Issues Concerning Right to Food
• Protocols to the Convention on the Rights of the Child
• Abolition of Child Labor
• Trafficking in Women and Children
• Maternal Anemia and Human Rights
• Combating Sexual Harassment of Women at the Work Place
• Abolition of Manual Scavenging
• Dalits issues including Atrocities perpetrated on them
• Problems faced by De-notified and Nomadic Tribes.
• Rights of the Disabled Persons
• Issues related to Right to Health.
• Rights of persons affected by HIV / AIDS
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The President  has specified the following  functions of the commission about the protection, welfare and development, and advancement of the STs :

1. Measures to be taken over conferring ownership rights in respect of minor forest produce to STs living in forest areas. Hence option 2 is correct.
2. Measures to be taken to safeguard the rights of the tribal communities over mineral resources, water resources, etc., as per law.
3. Measures are to be taken for the development of tribals and to work for more viable livelihood strategies. Hence option 4 is correct.
4. Measures to be taken to improve the efficacy of relief and rehabilitation measures for tribal groups displaced by development projects.
5. Measures to be taken to prevent alienation of tribal people from land and to effectively rehabilitate such people in whose case alienation has already taken place.
6. Measures to be taken to elicit maximum cooperation and involvement of tribal communities for protecting forests and undertaking social afforestation.
7. Measures to be taken to ensure full implementation of the Provisions of Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996. Hence option 3 is correct.
8. Measures to be taken to reduce and ultimately eliminate the practice of shifting cultivation by tribals that lead to their continuous disempowerment and degradation of land and the environment. Hence option 1 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Article 46 requires the State ‘to promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, and to protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Article 15(4) empowers the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward SC/STs
• Article 16(4A) speaks of “reservation in matters of promotion to any class or classes of posts in the services under the State in favor of SCs/STs, which are not adequately represented in the services under the State’.
• Article 335 provides that the claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State. Hence all are correct.

Solution: (b)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The act defines a child as any person below eighteen years of age and regards the best interests and welfare of the child as a matter of paramount importance at every stage, to ensure the healthy physical, emotional, intellectual, and social development of the child.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The Act stipulates that a case of child sexual abuse must be disposed of within one year from the date the offense is reported.

Statement 3 is correct: Rule 7 provides further details about the payment of this compensation. It specifies that the Special Court may order that the compensation be paid not only at the end of the trial but also on an interim basis, to meet the immediate needs of the child for relief or rehabilitation at any stage after registration of the First Information Report.

Solution: (c)

Explanation:

Provisions of Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Amendment Act 2021:

Non-cognizable Offence:

• 1. Crimes against children which are mentioned in the chapter “Other Offences Against Children” of the JJ Act, 2015 that allow imprisonment between three and seven years will be deemed “non-cognizable”.

Adoption:

• 1. The amendment provides strength to the provision of protection and adoption of children. Many adoption cases are pending before the court and to make proceedings of the court faster now the power is transferred to the district magistrate.
  2. The amendment provides that the district magistrate has the authority to issue such adoption orders.

Statement 1 is correct: Serious offenses will also include offenses for which maximum punishment is imprisonment of more than seven years, and minimum punishment is not prescribed or is less than seven years.

Statement 2 is correct: The District Magistrates have been further empowered under the Act to ensure its smooth implementation, as well as garner synergized efforts in favor of children in distress conditions. It means that DMs and ADMs will monitor the functioning of various agencies under the JJ Act in every district- including the Child Welfare Committees, the Juvenile Justice Boards, the District Child Protection Units, and the Special Juvenile Protection Units. Instead of the court, the District Magistrate (including Additional District Magistrate) will now issue adoption orders.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• VAIBHAV Fellowship scheme offers Non-Resident Indian (NRI) researchers an opportunity to work for a minimum of one month to a maximum of two months a year with a research institution or an academic institution in India. The scheme aims to Improve the research ecosystem of India’s Higher Educational Institutions by facilitating academic and research collaborations between Indian Institutions and the best institutions in the world. Statement 1 is incorrect
• Researchers from institutions featuring in the top 500 QS World University Rankings will be eligible for the fellowship. The applicant should be a Non-Resident Indian (NRI), Person of Indian Origin (PIO) or Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) and she or he must have obtained Ph.D/M.D/M.S degree from a recognized University. Statement 2 is incorrect

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (b)

India and Australia signed a Framework Mechanism for Mutual Recognition of Qualifications that will help ease the mobility of students and professionals between the two countries.   This agreement is part of the commitment by Prime Ministers of both countries at the 2nd India-Australia Virtual Summit held on 21st March 2022, wherein they had agreed to establish a Joint Taskforce for mutual recognition of qualifications. A Task Force was accordingly set up consisting of senior officials of education and skill ministries and regulators on both sides.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Through the LEAN journey, MSMEs can reduce wastages substantially, increase productivity, improve quality, work safely, expanding their markets, and finally becoming competitive and profitable. Under the scheme, MSMEs will implement LEAN manufacturing tools like 5S, Kaizen, KANBAN, Visual workplace, Poka Yoka etc under the able guidance of trained and competent LEAN Consultants to attain LEAN levels like Basic, Intermediate and Advanced. Statement 1 is correct
• The government will contribute 90% of implementation cost for handholding and consultancy fees. There will be an additional contribution of 5% for the MSMEs which are part of SFURTI clusters, owned by Women/SC/ST and located in Northeast region. Statement 2 is incorrect
• National Productivity Council has been appointed as one of the Implementing Agency which will assist Ministry of MSME in the implementation of MSME Competitive (Lean) Scheme. Statement 3 is incorrect

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Fluorescence microscopy requires intense, near-monochromatic, illumination which some widespread light sources, like halogen lamps cannot provide. Four main types of light source are used, including xenon arc lamps or mercury-vapor lamps with an excitation filter, lasers, supercontinuum sources, and high-power LEDs. Statement 1 is incorrect
• A fluorescence microscope views an object by studying how it re-emits light that it has absorbed, i.e., how it fluoresces. This is its basic principle. The object is illuminated with light of a specific wavelength. Particles in the object absorb this light and re-emit it at a higher wavelength (i.e., different color). These particles are called fluorophores. When the fluorophores fluoresce, a fluorescent microscope can track them as they move inside the object, revealing the object’s internal shape and other characteristics. Statement 2 is correct
• Fluorescence microscopy is used to image specific features of small specimens such as microbes. It allows the use of multicolor staining, labeling of structures within cells, and the measurement of the physiological state of a cell. It is the most popular method for studying the dynamic behavior exhibited in live-cell imaging. Statement 3 is correct

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• There is no provision under the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, 1958 to declare a site as a “Water Heritage Site” under Archaeological Survey of India (ASI). However, the Ministry of Jal Shakti had constituted a Committee to identify 75 Water Heritage Structure (WHS) in reference to 75 years of India’s Independence. Statement 1 is incorrect
• At present there is no central fund allocated/disbursed for maintenance of these sites. The Committee has recommended 75 water heritage structures, which includes 5 Water Heritage Structure from Gujarat and 4 Water Heritage Structure from Andhra Pradesh respectively. Statement 2 is correct

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (c)

Formula for simple interest is I = Prt (P= Principal, R = rate of interest, T = time period )

Substitute P = 6000, t = 4, r = 6%.

I = 6000 * 6/100 * 4

I = 1440

Accumulated value = Principal + Interest = 6000 + 1440 = 7440

Solution (b)

Let x be the amount invested at 6% rate.

Then, the amount invested in 7.5% account is = 16500 – x

Given : After two years, total interest earned in both the accounts is $2,442.

Interest at 6% rate + Interest at 7.5% rate = 2442

Interest at 6% rate + Interest at 7.5% rate = 2442

x * 6/100 * 2 + (16500 – x) *7.5/100 *2 = 2442

x * 0.06 * 2 + (16500 – x) *0.075 * 2 = 2442

0.12x + (16500 – x) ⋅ 0.15 = 2442

0.12x + 2475 – 0.15x = 2442

2475 – 0.03x = 2442

2475 – 2442 = 0.03x

33 = 0.03x

Divide both sides by 0.03.

33/0.03 = x

3300/3 = x

x=1100

Solution (a)

Formula for C.I = P( 1 + r/n)^nt

Where P = initial principal balance

r = interest rate

n=number of times interest rate has been applied

t= number of time periods elapsed.

Amount = [ 1600 * ( 1 + 5/(2 * 100))² + 1600 * ( 1 + 5/2*100 )]

= [ 1600 * 41/40 * 41/40 + 1600 * 41/40 ]

= [ 1600 * 41/40(41/40 + 1)]

= [ 1600 * 41 * 81/(40 * 40)]

= 3321

Therefore, compound interest = 3321 – 3200 = 121.

Solution (d)

Let the sum be Rs. x.

1 gives, S.I.  Rs. 7000 and T = 7 years.

2 gives, Sum + S.I. for 5 years = 2 x Sum

From 2, Sum = S.I. for 5 years.

Now, S.I. for 7 years = Rs. 7000.

S.I. for 1 year = Rs.7000/7= Rs. 1000.

Thus, 1 and 2 both are needed to get the answer.

Solution (c)

Refer to, “There are good reasons why the ‘Heart of Asia’ conference, part of a 14-nation process begun in 2011 to facilitate the development and security of Afghanistan, is so named.” The Heart of Asia process thus remains critical to forging cooperation to realise Afghanistan’s potential to be a vibrant Asian “hub”.

Hence, option c is correct.