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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2018 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 5]

  • IASbaba
  • March 7, 2018
  • 671
IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 

Welcome to Day-5.


Importance of Self – Tracking: Learning from Last Year

Last year, aspirants used to comment their answers in the comment box on daily basis. There were huge participation in discussion. Putting answers in comment box has been very effective to self-track yourself after updating the score. In the end, you can cross check your performance through Disqus profile.

It was highly effective in the last edition of 60 Days that propelled aspirants to monitor their performance and learn through discussion. Let you solve these questions with full honesty and write your result in the comment box. Interact with peers to know your mistakes.

The importance of this initiative stands time-bound and aggressive reverse engineering to learn the concepts. Many of you must be busy with your own strategy but let us tell you honestly that in the last two months, it is very important to revise and consolidate your learning. Just reading won’t suffice.

So, take out few hours from your schedule and make it a revision exercise.

How can you make the best use of it?

Be honest to your effort and do not start competing with XYZ aspirants here just for the sake of marks. It is more important for you to introspect and check your learning than focusing on others. Try to answer the questions in 20 minutes only. 

Do not get into negative feeling that I don’t have enough knowledge to answer these questions. Feel like you are taking the real exam. What would be your response then?

The same will be replicated in UPSC exam. Here, you get marks only and nothing else matters. So, make effort to know the answers to all questions. Do not cheat 😛

 

DETAILED MICRO ANALYSIS MATRIX SAMPLEis given here. You can download this and do an assessment for yourself.  DOWNLOAD

  • You can copy paste the same format/modify as per your need in Google Spreadsheet and update it on daily basis.
  • Feedback talks about daily test results.
  • Follow-up talks about daily target achieved from sources and the number of revisions to do/done and dates. Sources column is to ensure that aspirants do not run behind various sources and follow the same throughout.

 

Are you ready? Let’s start!


[Day 5]: POLITY AND CURRENT AFFAIRS


Q.1) The provisions of the Constitution which are related to the federal structure of the polity can be amended by a special majority of the Parliament and with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. Which of the following provisions can be amended this way?

  1. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
  2. Representation of states in Parliament.
  3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
  4. Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. All the above

Q.2) Supreme court in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) laid down a new doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ (‘basic features’) of the Constitution. Consider the following statements about basic structure of constitution.

  1. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980) defined what constitutes basic structure.
  2. Welfare state is a component of basic structure.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None

Q.3) In India the Parliament is not supreme (sovereign body) and enjoys
limited and restricted powers. Which of the following features are responsible for this limitation on Parliament?

  1. Written Constitution.
  2. Federal system.
  3. Judicial review.
  4. Fundamental rights.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. All the above

Q.4) The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the Constitution’. Consider the following statements.

  1. Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase ‘violation of the Constitution’.
  2. Constitution does not provide the procedure for impeachment of president and left the Parliament to frame a law.
  3. Parliament enacted President Act 1950 for the impeachment of President.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All the above

Q.5) Consider the following statements about the amendment of constitution.

  1. For amendments which affect the federal provisions of the constitution, the state legislatures can also initiate the amendment.
  2. Amendments regarding abolition or creation of legislative councils in states requires special majority.
  3. President’s recommendation is required in case of amendments relating to Fifth Schedule.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. None

Q.6) Which of the following amendments affected the executive authority of the President?

  1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
  2. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act.
  3. 91st Constitutional Amendment Act.
  4. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. All the above

Q.7) Who among the below is qualified to be appointed as Attorney General?

  1. He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years.
  2. He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years.
  3. He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. All the above

Q.8) Which of the following statements about the cabinet committees are incorrect?

  1. They are setup by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  2. No minister can be part of these committees
  3. They are not mentioned in the Constitution

Select the code from following:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. Only 3
  4. 1 and 3

Q.9) Which of the following amendments are correctly matched?

  1. 89th Amendment Act – The National Commission for SC and ST was bifurcated
  2. 61st Amendment Act – Reduce age of voting from 21 years to 18 years
  3. 92nd Amendment Act – Changed anti-defection laws
  4. 69th Amendment Act – Establishment of legislative assembly and council of ministers for Federal National Capital of Delhi

Select the code from following:

  1. 1,2 and 3
  2. 2,3 and 4
  3. 1,2 and 4
  4. All of the above

Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding Constitution Amendment Bill:

  1. It cannot be initiated in State Legislatures.
  2. It cannot be initiated by a Private member in Parliament.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.11) Indian President has got the power of ‘Absolute Veto’ i.e. he can withhold his assent to the bill passed by the Parliament. In which of the following cases can he use ‘Absolute Veto’?

  1. With respect to Private Members’ bill
  2. With respect to the government bill when the cabinet has resigned.
  3. With respect to the bill making changes in the name and boundary of a state.
  4. With respect to a Constitutional Amendment Bill

Select the code from below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 3 and 4
  3. 1,2 and 3
  4. All of the above

Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding the Ordinance making power of President:

  1. An ordinance can be promulgated even if one house is in session.
  2. If no action is taken by the parliament, the maximum life of an ordinance is six months and six weeks.
  3. If the ordinance is approved by both the houses, it becomes an Act.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All of the above

Q.13) Which of the following constitutes the electoral college of Vice – President?

  1. Elected and nominated members of the Parliament.
  2. Elected members of the State Legislatures
  3. Elected members of Union territories of Delhi and Pondicherry

Select the code from following:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. All of the above
  4. None of the above

Q.14) The Vice President of India can be removed by a resolution passed in Rajya Sabha by an absolute majority. According to constitution on what grounds can he be removed?

  1. Violation of Constitution
  2. Discharged insolvent
  3. If he loses majority in Rajya Sabha
  4. None of the above

Q.15) Consider the following statements with respect to Constitutional Amendment Bill:

  1. Such bill can be introduced by a private member, but require prior permission of the president.
  2. There is no provision for holding a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament if there is a deadlock over the passage of such bill.
  3. President cannot withhold his assent to such bill, he can only return the bill for reconsideration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.16) Consider the below statements and identify the appropriate Constitutional Amendment Act which made the following changes in the constitution –

  1. It made the right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right.
  2. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies.
  3. It added a new Part IX-B in the constitution, entitled as “The Co-operative societies”.

Choose correct answer:

  1. Ninety-Seventh Amendment Act, 2011
  2. Ninety-First Amendment Act, 2003
  3. Ninety-Fourth Amendment Act, 2006
  4. Eighty-Sixth Amendment Act, 2002

Q.17) The case of dispute in the presidential election is referred to

  1. Chief Election Commissioner
  2. Supreme Court
  3. Parliament
  4. None of these

Q.18) Consider the following statements with respect to vacancy in the President’s office is going to be caused by the expiration of the term of the sitting President

  1. An election to fill the vacancy must be held before the expiration of the term.
  2. In case of any delay in conducting the election of new President by any reason, the Vice-President gets an opportunity to act as President or to discharge the functions of the President.
  3. In case the office of Vice-President is vacant, the Chief Justice of India (or if his office is also vacant, the senior most judge of the Supreme Court available) acts as the President or discharges the functions of the President.

Choose the correct statement/s from below options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.19) Which among the following type of bills require prior recommendation or permission of the President to be introduced in the Parliament?

  1. a bill involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
  2. a bill for the alteration of boundaries of states
  3. a bill for the creation of a new state

Choose the appropriate answer:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.20) Which among the following are correct with regard to Council of Ministers and Cabinet?

  1. Council of Ministers does not meet, as a body, to transact government business. It has no collective functions.
  2. Cabinet meets, as a body, frequently and usually once in a week to deliberate and take decisions regarding the transaction of government business. Thus, it has collective functions.
  3. Council of Ministers enforces the collective responsibility of the council of ministers to the Lower House of Parliament.
  4. Cabinet is collectively responsible to the Lower House of the Parliament.

Choose the correct code from below options:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.21) Consider the following statements:

  1. The Ministries/Departments of the Government of India are created by the Parliament on the Prime Minister.
  2. Each of the Ministries is assigned to a Minister by the Prime Mininster on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.22) Consider the following statements about ‘Article 244A of the Indian Constitution’

  1. It provides for an autonomous state for certain tribal areas in Assam with its own legislature and council of ministers
  2. It was inserted by the Twenty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India

Select the correct statements

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.23) The term ‘ISDS’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of trade. It refers to

  1. Individual companies suing countries for alleged discriminatory practices
  2. Curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies
  3. Exploitation of genetic resources of a country by multinational companies
  4. Lack of consideration of environmental costs in the planning and implementation of developmental projects

Q.24) Consider the following statements about ‘Portugal’

  1. It is the westernmost country of mainland Europe
  2. It borders the Catalonia region of Spain
  3. Tyrrhenian Sea is to the west of Portugal

Select the correct statements

  1. 1 Only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and

Q.25) With reference to ‘The Global Science and Innovation Advisory Council (GSIAC)’, consider following statements.

  1. It is an initiative of the European Union
  2. ‘Scientists without Borders’ is led by the GSIAC
  3. It is headquartered in Geneva

Which of the following statements are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All of the above

Q.26) Consider the following statements

  1. The Indian Antarctic Program is under the aegis of Ministry of Earth Sciences
  2. India has acceded to the Antarctic Treaty System and it has consulting status reserving the right to make a territorial claim

Select the correct statements

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

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