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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan- Prelims Test 2018 POLITY & CURRENT AFFAIRS [Day 24]

  • IASbaba
  • April 3, 2018
  • 397
IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 

Welcome to Day-24.


Importance of Self – Tracking: Learning from Last Year

Last year, aspirants used to comment their answers in the comment box on daily basis. There were huge participation in discussion. Putting answers in comment box has been very effective to self-track yourself after updating the score. In the end, you can cross check your performance through Disqus profile.

It was highly effective in the last edition of 60 Days that propelled aspirants to monitor their performance and learn through discussion. Let you solve these questions with full honesty and write your result in the comment box. Interact with peers to know your mistakes.

The importance of this initiative stands time-bound and aggressive reverse engineering to learn the concepts. Many of you must be busy with your own strategy but let us tell you honestly that in the last two months, it is very important to revise and consolidate your learning. Just reading won’t suffice.

So, take out few hours from your schedule and make it a revision exercise.

How can you make the best use of it?

Be honest to your effort and do not start competing with XYZ aspirants here just for the sake of marks. It is more important for you to introspect and check your learning than focusing on others. Try to answer the questions in 20 minutes only. 

Do not get into negative feeling that I don’t have enough knowledge to answer these questions. Feel like you are taking the real exam. What would be your response then?

The same will be replicated in UPSC exam. Here, you get marks only and nothing else matters. So, make effort to know the answers to all questions. Do not cheat 😛

 

DETAILED MICRO ANALYSIS MATRIX SAMPLEis given here. You can download this and do an assessment for yourself.  DOWNLOAD

  • You can copy paste the same format/modify as per your need in Google Spreadsheet and update it on daily basis.
  • Feedback talks about daily test results.
  • Follow-up talks about daily target achieved from sources and the number of revisions to do/done and dates. Sources column is to ensure that aspirants do not run behind various sources and follow the same throughout.

 

Are you ready? Let’s start!


[Day 24]: POLITY AND CURRENT AFFAIRS


Q.1) Which of the following are the powers and functions of governor?

  1. Executive
  2. Legislative
  3. Emergency
  4. Judicial

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. All the above

Q.2) Consider the following statements.

  1. The Constitution envisages the possibility of the governor acting at times in his discretion, no such possibility has been envisaged for the President.
  2. After the 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976), ministerial advice has been made binding on the President, but no such provision has been made with respect to the governor.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None

Q.3) The Constitution has assigned a dual role to the office of a governor in the Indian federal system. He is the constitutional head of the state as well as the representative of the Centre.

  1. For peace and for ensuring social and economic advancement of the different sections of the population in Sikkim state.
  2. Establishment of a separate development board for Hyderabad-Karnataka region in Karnataka state.
  3. Determining the amount payable by the Government of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram to an autonomous Tribal District Council as royalty accruing from licenses for mineral exploration.

Which of the above provisions supports the governor as the representative of the center?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. None

Q.4) Consider the following statements.

  1. Some members of the legislative assemblies in Sikkim and Nagaland are elected indirectly.
  2. The governor can nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community, if the community is not adequately represented in the council.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None

Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding an ordinary bill in state legislature:

  1. At the most, the council can detain or delay the bill for a period of four months.
  2. The bill, which has originated in the council and was sent to the assembly, if rejected by the assembly, the bill ends and becomes dead.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None

Q.6) Consider the following statements about Constitutional Amendment Bill.

  1. The legislative assembly can initiate the constitutional amendment bill related to federal character of polity only.
  2. Both Vidhan Parishad and Vidhan Sabha has the same power with respect to ratification of constitutional amendment bill.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None

Q.7) Consider the following statements.

  1. Article 356 which deals with the imposition of President’s Rule in the states applies to National Capital territory of Delhi.
  2. The ministers of Delhi assembly hold office during the pleasure of the president.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None

Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding the appointment of Chief Minister:

  1. Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for selection and appointment of a Chief Minister.
  2. When no party has a clear majority, the Governor has to consult the President to select a candidate.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.9) The oath of office and secrecy is administered to the Chief Minister by

  1. Speaker of Legislative Assembly
  2. Governor
  3. Chief Justice of the High Court
  4. Senior most Member of Legislative Assembly

Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding the strength of Council of Ministers in a state:

  1. The total number of Ministers including the Chief Minister shall not exceed 15% of the total membership of the State legislative Assembly.
  2. The total number of Ministers including Chief Minister in a State shall not be less than 50.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.11) Consider the following Statements:

  1. A council of ministers must always exist to advise the governor, even after the dissolution of the state legislative assembly or resignation of a council of ministers.
  2. The governor has to act on the aid and advice of the council of ministers in the exercise of his powers and functions.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding formation of Legislative Council in a State:

  1. A resolution must be passed in State Assembly by majority of total membership of assembly and two thirds of members present and Voting.
  2. The Act of Parliament to constitute a Legislative Council is deemed as a Constitutional Amendment under article 368.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.13) Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding election of Legislative Council?

  1. 1/3rd members are elected by members of State’s local bodies.
  2. 1/12th members are elected by graduates of three years standing and residing within the state.
  3. 1/12th are elected by the members of the legislative assembly of the state from amongst persons who are not members of the assembly.
  4. 1/12 are elected by teachers of three years standing in the state, not lower in standard than secondary school

Q.14) Which of the following Qualifications are given in the Constitution for a person to be able to contest for election for Legislative Assembly?

  1. He must be a citizen of India.
  2. He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election Commission for this purpose.
  3. He must not be less than 25 years of Age.
  4. He must be an elector for an assembly constituency in the concerned state.

Select the code from below:

  1. 1,2 and 3
  2. 2,3 and 4
  3. 1,3 and 4
  4. All of the above

Q.15) Which of the following provisions of the Constitution that deals with the relationship between the Governor and the Chief Minister is incorrect?

  1. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor and other ministers shall be appointed by the governor on the advise of the Chief Minister.
  2. The Chief Minister of Delhi is appointed by the Lt. Governor.
  3. The ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Governor.
  4. The Chief Minister advises the governor with regard to the summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the state legislature.

Q.16) Which one of the following statements regarding the levying, collecting and distribution of Income Tax is correct?

  1. The Union levies, collects and distributes the proceeds.
  2. The Union levies, collects and keeps all the proceeds of income tax to itself.
  3. The Union levies and collects the tax but all the proceeds are distributed among the states.
  4. Only the surcharge levied on income tax is shared between the Union and the states.

Q.17) Consider the below statements with regard to legislative councils in states:

  1. Parliament can abolish a legislative council or create it.
  2. Constitution of India does not provide for the abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
  3. States can have a legislative council or not according to its own willingness and financial strength.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 3 only

Q.18) An administrator of a union territory is

  1. an agent of the President
  2. appointed by the President
  3. head of state like a governor

Select the appropriate code:

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.19) Consider the below legislative procedures in the State Legislature with regard to Ordinary Bills. Select the incorrect statement if any:

  1. It can be introduced either by a minister or by private member.
  2. The Constitution provides for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.
  3. It is deemed to have been passed by the state legislature only when both the Houses have agreed to it, either with or without amendments.
  4. None of the above

Q.20) In which of the following matters, the powers and status of the council are broadly equal to that of the assembly?

  1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills.
  2. In case of disagreement between the two Houses of ordinary bills.
  3. Approval of ordinances issued by the governor.
  4. Selection of ministers including the chief minister.

Choose the correct code from below options:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.21) Constitution has defined the territorial limits of the legislative powers vested in the Centre and the states. Which of the below statement is not true in regard to it?

  1. A state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state.
  2. The laws made by a state legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object.
  3. Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India.
  4. Neither parliament nor state legislature can make ‘extra-territorial legislation’.

Q.22) Consider the following statements about ‘Global Partnership on Wildlife Conservation and Crime Prevention for Sustainable Development’

  1. It is funded by the Global Environment Facility (GEF)
  2. It is focused on countries from Asia, South America and Africa
  3. It was established during the Gaborone Convention

Select the correct statements

  1. 1 Only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1 and 3
  4. None of the above

Q.23) Which of the following is concerned with Israel-Palestine Conflict?

  1. Madrid Conference of 1991
  2. Saudi Initiative
  3. Oslo Accords
  4. The Quartet

Select the correct code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All of the above

Q.24) A dry port is being developed in Wardha District of Maharashtra. Consider the following statements

  1. It will be located in the Marathwada region
  2. It is being developed by the Mumbai Port Trust

Select the correct statements

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.25) Consider the following statements about India Investment Grid (IIG)

  1. It is an interactive web portal showcasing information on various projects across States, Sectors and Schemes for both domestic and international investors
  2. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog

Select the correct statements

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.26) Consider the following statements about ‘Usutu Virus’

  1. It belongs to the poxvirus family
  2. It is the active constituent of the vaccine that eradicated smallpox

Select the correct statements

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

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