IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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PRELIMS CRACKATHON : UPSC Prelims 2019 Discussion Videos from IASbaba Topper’s
HANDLING THE FAILURE!
At IASbaba, we don’t call ourselves teacher, rather ‘Mentor’ is what we are.
As mentors, we try to bring in a positive change in the life of a student. We are closely associated with them, try to be there with each one of you in need. Apart from academics, students come forward to discuss their personal issues and problems and we are more than happy to assist.
The final result of UPSC brings with it an array of mixed emotions. On one hand, our chest swells with pride when students call and mail us to share their success stories and revere us by acknowledging the role played by IASbaba in their success. On the other hand, we feel the pain of students who couldn’t make it despite putting in their best efforts.
One such 3 am frantic call, made us write this article for all those who couldn’t make it this year or struggling with their preparation.
“Sir, there is just darkness in front of me, I don’t know what to do, where to start from, I was so close but yet so far. My life hasn’t got any purpose now.” These were the exact words that were told in a chocked voice.
All of those who are sharing the same feeling, first of all, please be calm. This is not the end of the world.
Think about the moment, when for the first time you thought about preparing/appearing for Civil Services Examination. Half the battle was won at that very moment. Remember, it was your conscious and voluntary decision to start preparing for the toughest exam in India. You, yourself decided not to live a mediocre life and your work should have a meaning. You did not believe in a job, you believed in service (of course the prestige and perks are a part of that service).
Knowing this, did you think that it will be a cake walk? Did you think that you’ll just appear in the exam and qualify?
When you decided to prepare for CSE, you elevated yourself from the general social strata which are occluded by a veil of ignorance in the virtual reality it is living in. You are not a part of that society any more. You have taken a path where you are bound to be enlightened.
Remember, this exam has been designed to fail the candidates, rather than to pass. And failure is just one part of this long journey. The journey is full of ups and downs. Highs and lows. Many a time, you feel a lot more energetic and indulge in studies for long hours of concentration, but at times you feel detached and disturbed.
The journey of UPSC is an ego crusher. It tosses you up, throws you down, thrashes you and asks you, what exactly are you made of? And whenever this question is thrown at you, you should reply that you are a warrior. You might have lost a battle, but you will win this war.
Also, there is a common feeling that despite getting very low marks in various test series in the market, my neighbour/friend got a rank, and I couldn’t qualify (human/natural feeling of being much better than him/her). You should remember that whoever has qualified, is worthy in the eyes of UPSC and its judgement should be respected. Only hundreds are selected every year in a crowd of lakhs, and probably it was not your time this year. You can not eliminate that element of luck.
What you can however do, is to have faith in you. Dust yourself up and get ready for another attempt to a very prestigious prize of rank 1. Do not aim for less than that, as you deserve the best.
Before you start preparing for prelims of 2019, we want you to remember certain facts about yourself –
- You are not a new candidate and you don’t have to start right from scratch. You can revise the static portion entirely in a matter of couple of weeks and it’s just the current affairs that need to be taken care of.
- There is still more than a month left and it is more than sufficient time for you to turn the tables.
- You don’t have to compete with others, but yourself. Be better every single day and learn something new.
- There are many candidates who top this exam in their last attempts. It is just a matter of time and you will be in the list too.
- Don’t forget that we are there for you. If you need any guidance or counselling, feel free to write to us.
- Last but not least, be perseverant and have confidence. Keep telling yourself, that if you won’t qualify, who else will.
Prepare a plan for the coming days. Go through the 60-day plan diligently and cover DNA/Monthly Magazine and daily current affairs quiz. If you are ILP/AIPTS student, then revise babapedia, VAN and the questions of the test series.
Make us and yourself proud. Have a successful journey.
IASBaba
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
With respect to the agriculture, consider the following statements:
- Intensive agriculture: This is a widely-practiced farming technique can be seen all over India. The farmer and/or his family grow grains for themselves or for sale at the local market.
- Subsistence farming: This farming practice can be seen in densely populated areas in India. It is an attempt to maximize the output of the land, through the use of every possible effort.
- Commercial agriculture: This is the modern type of farming that can be seen largely in the developed world and in some parts of India. It relies largely on machinery as opposed to a human labour force and raises one crop per year.
- Extensive agriculture: The goal of extensive agriculture is a high yield in small farms, so that produce can be exported to other countries or areas for profit.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Incorrect
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Agriculture, specifically farming, remains a hazardous industry, and farmers worldwide remain at high risk of work-related injuries.
- The International Labour Organization considers agriculture “one of the most hazardous of all economic sectors”.
Which of the above statements regarding agricultural safety is/are correct?
Correct
Farming, remains a hazardous industry, and farmers worldwide remain at high risk of work-related injuries, lung disease, noise-induced hearing loss, skin diseases, as well as certain cancers related to chemical use and prolonged sun exposure. On industrialized farms, injuries frequently involve the use of agricultural machinery, and a common cause of fatal agricultural injuries in developed countries is tractor rollovers. Pesticides and other chemicals used in farming can also be hazardous to worker health, and workers exposed to pesticides may experience illness or have children with birth defects. As an industry in which families commonly share in work and live on the farm itself, entire families can be at risk for injuries, illness, and death. Ages 0–6 may be an especially vulnerable population in agriculture; common causes of fatal injuries among young farm workers include drowning, machinery and motor accidents, including with all-terrain vehicles.
The International Labour Organization considers agriculture “one of the most hazardous of all economic sectors”.
It estimates that the annual work-related death toll among agricultural employees is at least 170,000, twice the average rate of other jobs. In addition, incidences of death, injury and illness related to agricultural activities often go unreported. The organization has developed the Safety and Health in Agriculture Convention, 2001, which covers the range of risks in the agriculture occupation, the prevention of these risks and the role that individuals and organizations engaged in agriculture should play
Incorrect
Farming, remains a hazardous industry, and farmers worldwide remain at high risk of work-related injuries, lung disease, noise-induced hearing loss, skin diseases, as well as certain cancers related to chemical use and prolonged sun exposure. On industrialized farms, injuries frequently involve the use of agricultural machinery, and a common cause of fatal agricultural injuries in developed countries is tractor rollovers. Pesticides and other chemicals used in farming can also be hazardous to worker health, and workers exposed to pesticides may experience illness or have children with birth defects. As an industry in which families commonly share in work and live on the farm itself, entire families can be at risk for injuries, illness, and death. Ages 0–6 may be an especially vulnerable population in agriculture; common causes of fatal injuries among young farm workers include drowning, machinery and motor accidents, including with all-terrain vehicles.
The International Labour Organization considers agriculture “one of the most hazardous of all economic sectors”.
It estimates that the annual work-related death toll among agricultural employees is at least 170,000, twice the average rate of other jobs. In addition, incidences of death, injury and illness related to agricultural activities often go unreported. The organization has developed the Safety and Health in Agriculture Convention, 2001, which covers the range of risks in the agriculture occupation, the prevention of these risks and the role that individuals and organizations engaged in agriculture should play
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Tillage is the practice of breaking up the soil with tools such as the plow or harrow to prepare for planting, for nutrient incorporation, or for pest control.
- Integrated pest management attempts to use chemical, biological, mechanical and cultural methods to keep pest populations below the number which would cause economic loss, and recommends pesticides as a last resort.
- Nutrient management includes both the source of nutrient inputs for crop and livestock production, and the method of utilization of manure produced by livestock.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Tillage is the practice of breaking up the soil with tools such as the plow or harrow to prepare for planting, for nutrient incorporation, or for pest control. Tillage varies in intensity from conventional to no-till. It may improve productivity by warming the soil, incorporating fertilizer and controlling weeds, but also renders soil more prone to erosion, triggers the decomposition of organic matter releasing CO2, and reduces the abundance and diversity of soil organisms.
Pest control includes the management of weeds, insects, mites, and diseases. Chemical (pesticides), biological (biocontrol), mechanical (tillage), and cultural practices are used. Cultural practices include crop rotation, culling, cover crops, intercropping, composting, avoidance, and resistance. Integrated pest management attempts to use all of these methods to keep pest populations below the number which would cause economic loss, and recommends pesticides as a last resort.
Nutrient management includes both the source of nutrient inputs for crop and livestock production, and the method of utilization of manure produced by livestock. Nutrient inputs can be chemical inorganic fertilizers, manure, green manure, compost and minerals. Crop nutrient use may also be managed using cultural techniques such as crop rotation or a fallow period. Manure is used either by holding livestock where the feed crop is growing, such as in managed intensive rotational grazing, or by spreading either dry or liquid formulations of manure on cropland or pastures.
Incorrect
Tillage is the practice of breaking up the soil with tools such as the plow or harrow to prepare for planting, for nutrient incorporation, or for pest control. Tillage varies in intensity from conventional to no-till. It may improve productivity by warming the soil, incorporating fertilizer and controlling weeds, but also renders soil more prone to erosion, triggers the decomposition of organic matter releasing CO2, and reduces the abundance and diversity of soil organisms.
Pest control includes the management of weeds, insects, mites, and diseases. Chemical (pesticides), biological (biocontrol), mechanical (tillage), and cultural practices are used. Cultural practices include crop rotation, culling, cover crops, intercropping, composting, avoidance, and resistance. Integrated pest management attempts to use all of these methods to keep pest populations below the number which would cause economic loss, and recommends pesticides as a last resort.
Nutrient management includes both the source of nutrient inputs for crop and livestock production, and the method of utilization of manure produced by livestock. Nutrient inputs can be chemical inorganic fertilizers, manure, green manure, compost and minerals. Crop nutrient use may also be managed using cultural techniques such as crop rotation or a fallow period. Manure is used either by holding livestock where the feed crop is growing, such as in managed intensive rotational grazing, or by spreading either dry or liquid formulations of manure on cropland or pastures.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following statements related to push – pull agricultural pest management:
- Push–pull technology is a strategy for controlling agricultural pests by using repellent “push” plants and trap “pull” plants.
- The approach relies on a combination of companion crops to be planted around and among maize or sorghum.
- The “push” in the intercropping scheme is provided by the plants that emit chemicals which repel stemborer moths and drive them away from the main crop (maize or sorghum).
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
THE PULL
The approach relies on a combination of companion crops to be planted around and among maize or sorghum. Both domestic and wild grasses can help to protect the crops by attracting and trapping the stemborers. The grasses are planted in the border around the maize and sorghum fields where invading adult moths become attracted to chemicals emitted by the grasses themselves. Instead of landing on the maize or sorghum plants, the insects head for what appears to be a tastier meal. These grasses provide the “pull” in the “push–pull” strategy.
THE PUSH
The “push” in the intercropping scheme is provided by the plants that emit chemicals (kairomones) which repel stemborer moths and drive them away from the main crop (maize or sorghum). The best candidates discovered so far with the repellent properties are species of leguminous genus Desmodium. Desmodium is planted in between the rows of maize or sorghum. Being a low-growing plant, it does not interfere with the crops’ growth and, furthermore, has the advantage of maintaining soil stability, improving soil fertility through enhanced soil organic matter content and nitrogen fixation.
HOW PUSH PULL WORKS?
Push–pull technology involves use of behaviour-modifying stimuli to manipulate the distribution and abundance of stemborers and beneficial insects for management of stemborer pests. It is based on in-depth understanding of chemical ecology, agro-biodiversity, plant-plant and insect-plant interactions, and involves intercropping a cereal crop with a repellent intercrop such as Desmodium uncinatum (silverleaf) (push), with an attractive trap plant such as Napier grass (pull) planted as a border crop around this intercrop. Gravid stemborer females are repelled from the main crop and are simultaneously attracted to the trap crop.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Push%E2%80%93pull_agricultural_pest_management
Incorrect
THE PULL
The approach relies on a combination of companion crops to be planted around and among maize or sorghum. Both domestic and wild grasses can help to protect the crops by attracting and trapping the stemborers. The grasses are planted in the border around the maize and sorghum fields where invading adult moths become attracted to chemicals emitted by the grasses themselves. Instead of landing on the maize or sorghum plants, the insects head for what appears to be a tastier meal. These grasses provide the “pull” in the “push–pull” strategy.
THE PUSH
The “push” in the intercropping scheme is provided by the plants that emit chemicals (kairomones) which repel stemborer moths and drive them away from the main crop (maize or sorghum). The best candidates discovered so far with the repellent properties are species of leguminous genus Desmodium. Desmodium is planted in between the rows of maize or sorghum. Being a low-growing plant, it does not interfere with the crops’ growth and, furthermore, has the advantage of maintaining soil stability, improving soil fertility through enhanced soil organic matter content and nitrogen fixation.
HOW PUSH PULL WORKS?
Push–pull technology involves use of behaviour-modifying stimuli to manipulate the distribution and abundance of stemborers and beneficial insects for management of stemborer pests. It is based on in-depth understanding of chemical ecology, agro-biodiversity, plant-plant and insect-plant interactions, and involves intercropping a cereal crop with a repellent intercrop such as Desmodium uncinatum (silverleaf) (push), with an attractive trap plant such as Napier grass (pull) planted as a border crop around this intercrop. Gravid stemborer females are repelled from the main crop and are simultaneously attracted to the trap crop.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Push%E2%80%93pull_agricultural_pest_management
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Payments for Ecosystem Services (PES) are incentives offered to farmers or landowners in exchange for managing their land to provide some sort of ecological service.
- Ecosystem services have no standardized definition but might broadly be called “the benefits of nature to households, communities, and economies” or, more simply, “the good things nature does”.
- Twenty-four specific ecosystem services were identified and assessed by the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, a 2005 UN-sponsored report designed to assess the state of the world’s ecosystems.
- Climate change mitigation, watershed services and biodiversity conservation are known as the big three Ecosystem services.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Payments for Ecosystem Services (PES), also known as payments for environmental services (or benefits), are incentives offered to farmers or landowners in exchange for managing their land to provide some sort of ecological service. They have been defined as “a transparent system for the additional provision of environmental services through conditional payments to voluntary providers”. These programmes promote the conservation of natural resources in the marketplace.
Ecosystem services have no standardized definition but might broadly be called “the benefits of nature to households, communities, and economies” or, more simply, “the good things nature does”. Twenty-four specific ecosystem services were identified and assessed by the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, a 2005 UN-sponsored report designed to assess the state of the world’s ecosystems. The report defined the broad categories of ecosystem services as food production (in the form of crops, livestock, capture fisheries, aquaculture, and wild foods), fiber (in the form of timber, cotton, hemp, and silk), genetic resources (biochemicals, natural medicines, and pharmaceuticals), fresh water, air quality regulation, climate regulation, water regulation, erosion regulation, water purification and waste treatment, disease regulation, pest regulation, pollination, natural hazard regulation, and cultural services (including spiritual, religious, and aesthetic values, recreation and ecotourism). Notably, however, there is a “big three” among these 24 services which are currently receiving the most money and interest worldwide. These are climate change mitigation, watershed services and biodiversity conservation, and demand for these services in particular is predicted to continue to grow as time goes on.
Incorrect
Payments for Ecosystem Services (PES), also known as payments for environmental services (or benefits), are incentives offered to farmers or landowners in exchange for managing their land to provide some sort of ecological service. They have been defined as “a transparent system for the additional provision of environmental services through conditional payments to voluntary providers”. These programmes promote the conservation of natural resources in the marketplace.
Ecosystem services have no standardized definition but might broadly be called “the benefits of nature to households, communities, and economies” or, more simply, “the good things nature does”. Twenty-four specific ecosystem services were identified and assessed by the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment, a 2005 UN-sponsored report designed to assess the state of the world’s ecosystems. The report defined the broad categories of ecosystem services as food production (in the form of crops, livestock, capture fisheries, aquaculture, and wild foods), fiber (in the form of timber, cotton, hemp, and silk), genetic resources (biochemicals, natural medicines, and pharmaceuticals), fresh water, air quality regulation, climate regulation, water regulation, erosion regulation, water purification and waste treatment, disease regulation, pest regulation, pollination, natural hazard regulation, and cultural services (including spiritual, religious, and aesthetic values, recreation and ecotourism). Notably, however, there is a “big three” among these 24 services which are currently receiving the most money and interest worldwide. These are climate change mitigation, watershed services and biodiversity conservation, and demand for these services in particular is predicted to continue to grow as time goes on.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Aeroponics is the process of growing plants in an air or mist environment without the use of soil or an aggregate medium (known as geoponics).
- Unlike hydroponics, which uses a liquid nutrient solution as growing medium and essential minerals to sustain plant growth; or aquaponics which uses water and fish waste, aeroponics is conducted without a growing medium.
- It is sometimes considered a type of hydroponics, since water is used in aeroponics to transmit nutrients.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
The basic principle of aeroponic growing is to grow plants suspended in a closed or semi-closed environment by spraying the plant’s dangling roots and lower stem with an atomized or sprayed, nutrient – rich water solution.
Ideally, the environment is kept free from pests and disease so that the plants may grow healthier and more quickly than plants grown in a medium. However, since most aeroponic environments are not perfectly closed off to the outside, pests and disease may still cause a threat.
Due to the sensitivity of root systems, aeroponics is often combined with conventional hydroponics, which is used as an emergency “crop saver” – backup nutrition and water supply – if the aeroponic apparatus fails.
Incorrect
The basic principle of aeroponic growing is to grow plants suspended in a closed or semi-closed environment by spraying the plant’s dangling roots and lower stem with an atomized or sprayed, nutrient – rich water solution.
Ideally, the environment is kept free from pests and disease so that the plants may grow healthier and more quickly than plants grown in a medium. However, since most aeroponic environments are not perfectly closed off to the outside, pests and disease may still cause a threat.
Due to the sensitivity of root systems, aeroponics is often combined with conventional hydroponics, which is used as an emergency “crop saver” – backup nutrition and water supply – if the aeroponic apparatus fails.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Agro-ecology:
- Agro ecology is the study of ecological processes applied to agricultural production systems.
- The field of agro-ecology is associated with extensive farming only.
- Agro ecology is not defined by certain management practices, such as the use of natural enemies in place of insecticides, or polyculture in place of monoculture.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Agro-ecology is the study of ecological processes applied to agricultural production systems. Bringing ecological principles to bear in agro ecosystems can suggest novel management approaches that would not otherwise be considered.
The term is often used imprecisely and may refer to “a science, a movement, [or] a practice”. Agro ecologists study a variety of agro ecosystems. The field of agro ecology is not associated with any one particular method of farming, whether it be organic, integrated, or conventional, intensive or extensive. However, it has much more in common with organic and integrated farming.
Agro ecologists do not unanimously oppose technology or inputs in agriculture but instead assess how, when, and if technology can be used in conjunction with natural, social and human assets.
Agro ecology proposes a context- or site-specific manner of studying agro ecosystems, and as such, it recognizes that there is no universal formula or recipe for the success and maximum well-being of an agro ecosystem.
Thus, agro ecology is not defined by certain management practices, such as the use of natural enemies in place of insecticides, or polyculture in place of monoculture.
Incorrect
Agro-ecology is the study of ecological processes applied to agricultural production systems. Bringing ecological principles to bear in agro ecosystems can suggest novel management approaches that would not otherwise be considered.
The term is often used imprecisely and may refer to “a science, a movement, [or] a practice”. Agro ecologists study a variety of agro ecosystems. The field of agro ecology is not associated with any one particular method of farming, whether it be organic, integrated, or conventional, intensive or extensive. However, it has much more in common with organic and integrated farming.
Agro ecologists do not unanimously oppose technology or inputs in agriculture but instead assess how, when, and if technology can be used in conjunction with natural, social and human assets.
Agro ecology proposes a context- or site-specific manner of studying agro ecosystems, and as such, it recognizes that there is no universal formula or recipe for the success and maximum well-being of an agro ecosystem.
Thus, agro ecology is not defined by certain management practices, such as the use of natural enemies in place of insecticides, or polyculture in place of monoculture.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Corporate farming is the practice of large-scale agriculture on farms owned or greatly influenced by large companies.
- Farming contracts are agreements between a farmer and a buyer that stipulates what the farmer will grow and how much they will grow usually in return for guaranteed purchase of the product or financial support in purchase of inputs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Corporate farming is the practice of large-scale Agriculture on farms owned or greatly influenced by large companies. This includes corporate ownership of farms and selling of agricultural products, as well as the roles of these companies in influencing agricultural education, research, and public policy through funding initiatives and lobbying efforts.
Contract Farming
Farming contracts are agreements between a farmer and a buyer that stipulates what the farmer will grow and how much they will grow usually in return for guaranteed purchase of the product or financial support in purchase of inputs (e.g. feed for livestock growers). In most instances of contract farming, the farm is family owned while the buyer is a larger corporation
Incorrect
Corporate farming is the practice of large-scale Agriculture on farms owned or greatly influenced by large companies. This includes corporate ownership of farms and selling of agricultural products, as well as the roles of these companies in influencing agricultural education, research, and public policy through funding initiatives and lobbying efforts.
Contract Farming
Farming contracts are agreements between a farmer and a buyer that stipulates what the farmer will grow and how much they will grow usually in return for guaranteed purchase of the product or financial support in purchase of inputs (e.g. feed for livestock growers). In most instances of contract farming, the farm is family owned while the buyer is a larger corporation
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements:
- ‘Pharming’ refers to the use of genetic engineering to insert genes that code for useful pharmaceuticals into host animals or plants that would otherwise not express those genes, thus creating a genetically modified organism (GMO).
- Pharming is also known as molecular farming or bio-pharming.
- The products of pharming are recombinant proteins or their metabolic products.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
All the statements are self Explanatory.
A biopharmaceutical, also known as a biologic (al) medical product, or biologic, is any pharmaceutical drug product manufactured in, extracted from, or semi-synthesized from biological sources.
Different from totally synthesized pharmaceuticals, they include vaccines, blood, blood components, allergenics, somatic cells, gene-therapies, tissues, recombinant-therapeutic protein, and living cells used in cell therapy.
Incorrect
All the statements are self Explanatory.
A biopharmaceutical, also known as a biologic (al) medical product, or biologic, is any pharmaceutical drug product manufactured in, extracted from, or semi-synthesized from biological sources.
Different from totally synthesized pharmaceuticals, they include vaccines, blood, blood components, allergenics, somatic cells, gene-therapies, tissues, recombinant-therapeutic protein, and living cells used in cell therapy.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Recently, Journal of Food Science study detected zearalenone in wheat, rice, corn and oats from markets in Uttar Pradesh. The study, by researchers from Lucknow’s Indian Institute of Toxicology Research (IITR), found the substance in 70 of the 117 samples tested. Which of the following statements regarding Zearalenone are correct?
- Zearalenone is a fungal toxin infesting cereals such as wheat, maize and barley.
- It attacks crops while they are growing, but can also develop when cereals are stored without being dried fully.
- Zearalenone behaves like estrogen, the female sex hormone, and could cause endocrine disturbances in humans. Its nasty effects in animals, such as pigs, are documented.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Zero Budget Natural Farming:
-
- ‘Zero budget’ farming promises to end a reliance on loans and drastically cut production costs, ending the debt cycle for desperate farmers.
- The phrase ‘Zero Budget’ means without using any credit, and without spending any money on purchased inputs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Statements are self-explanatory.
Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) is a set of farming methods as well as a grassroots peasant movement, which has spread to various states in India. It has attained wide success in southern India, especially the southern Indian state of Karnataka where it first evolved.
http://www.fao.org/agroecology/detail/en/c/443712/
https://www.thebetterindia.com/55881/zero-budget-natural-farming-subash-palekar/
https://www.unenvironment.org/news-and-stories/press-release/andhra-pradesh-become-indias-first-zero-budget-natural-farming-state
Incorrect
Statements are self-explanatory.
Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) is a set of farming methods as well as a grassroots peasant movement, which has spread to various states in India. It has attained wide success in southern India, especially the southern Indian state of Karnataka where it first evolved.
http://www.fao.org/agroecology/detail/en/c/443712/
https://www.thebetterindia.com/55881/zero-budget-natural-farming-subash-palekar/
https://www.unenvironment.org/news-and-stories/press-release/andhra-pradesh-become-indias-first-zero-budget-natural-farming-state
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Arrange the following in increasing order of their share in irrigation in India.
- Canals
- Wells
- Tube wells
- Tanks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Correct
Since 1950-51, the government had given considerable importance to the development of command area under canals. In 1950-51, the Canal irrigated area was 8.3 million hectares and it currently stands at 17 million hectares. Despite that, the relative importance of Canals has come down from 40% in 1951 to 26% in 2010-11. On the other hand, the well (16%) and tube well (46%) accounted for 29% total irrigated area and now they share 64% of the total irrigated area.
This implies that “despite of heavy public expenditure on canals, our governments have not been able to reduce the groundwater depletion” done by the remarkable progress of the tube wells in last many decades. The key reason is widening gap between irrigation potential created and actually utilized.
India accounts for around 4% of world’s renewable water resources. The average annual precipitation in India is around 4000 BCM (Billion Cubic Meter). Of this, around half (1869 BCM) water runs off from rivers to oceans. What is left from that only 690 BCM is utilizable surface water. This along with 430 BCM groundwater makes India’s total annual utilizable water resources to be close to 1120 BCM.
Incorrect
Since 1950-51, the government had given considerable importance to the development of command area under canals. In 1950-51, the Canal irrigated area was 8.3 million hectares and it currently stands at 17 million hectares. Despite that, the relative importance of Canals has come down from 40% in 1951 to 26% in 2010-11. On the other hand, the well (16%) and tube well (46%) accounted for 29% total irrigated area and now they share 64% of the total irrigated area.
This implies that “despite of heavy public expenditure on canals, our governments have not been able to reduce the groundwater depletion” done by the remarkable progress of the tube wells in last many decades. The key reason is widening gap between irrigation potential created and actually utilized.
India accounts for around 4% of world’s renewable water resources. The average annual precipitation in India is around 4000 BCM (Billion Cubic Meter). Of this, around half (1869 BCM) water runs off from rivers to oceans. What is left from that only 690 BCM is utilizable surface water. This along with 430 BCM groundwater makes India’s total annual utilizable water resources to be close to 1120 BCM.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which of the following best defines Mridaparikshak?
Correct
ICAR, Indian Institute of Soil Science, Bhopal, a research institute under the Natural Resource Management (NRM) Division of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), has developed ‘Mridaparikshak’, a MINILAB that can determine soil health.
The Features of MRIDAPARIKSHAK include:
- Mridaparikshak is a digital mobile quantitative minilab/soil test kit to provide soil testing service at farmers’ doorsteps.
- Mridaparikshak determines all the important soil parameters i.e. soil pH, EC, organic carbon, available nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, Sulphur and micronutrients like zinc, boron and iron.
- It also provides crop and soil specific fertilizer recommendations directly to farmer’s mobile through SMS.
- It is highly compatible with soil health card.
- Mridaparikshak comes with soil sampling tools, GPS, balance, shaker, hot plate, and a Smart Soil Pro, an instrument for determining the soil parameters and displaying of fertilizer nutrient recommendations.
- It can be operated by young educated farmers/rural youths (11-12 Pass) with short training.
Extra
- Forecasting studies of rice yields using DSSAT (Decision Support System for Agrotechnology Transfer) rice model predicted that, all states in the eastern region are likely to experience reduced yields of below or equal to 10% during mid-century climate change scenarios except Bihar.
- The Decision Support System for Agrotechnology Transfer (DSSAT) is a set of computer programs for simulating agricultural crop growth. It has been used in over 100 countries by agronomists for evaluating farming methods. One application has been assessing the possible impacts on agriculture of climate change and testing adaptation methods.
Incorrect
ICAR, Indian Institute of Soil Science, Bhopal, a research institute under the Natural Resource Management (NRM) Division of Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), has developed ‘Mridaparikshak’, a MINILAB that can determine soil health.
The Features of MRIDAPARIKSHAK include:
- Mridaparikshak is a digital mobile quantitative minilab/soil test kit to provide soil testing service at farmers’ doorsteps.
- Mridaparikshak determines all the important soil parameters i.e. soil pH, EC, organic carbon, available nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, Sulphur and micronutrients like zinc, boron and iron.
- It also provides crop and soil specific fertilizer recommendations directly to farmer’s mobile through SMS.
- It is highly compatible with soil health card.
- Mridaparikshak comes with soil sampling tools, GPS, balance, shaker, hot plate, and a Smart Soil Pro, an instrument for determining the soil parameters and displaying of fertilizer nutrient recommendations.
- It can be operated by young educated farmers/rural youths (11-12 Pass) with short training.
Extra
- Forecasting studies of rice yields using DSSAT (Decision Support System for Agrotechnology Transfer) rice model predicted that, all states in the eastern region are likely to experience reduced yields of below or equal to 10% during mid-century climate change scenarios except Bihar.
- The Decision Support System for Agrotechnology Transfer (DSSAT) is a set of computer programs for simulating agricultural crop growth. It has been used in over 100 countries by agronomists for evaluating farming methods. One application has been assessing the possible impacts on agriculture of climate change and testing adaptation methods.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Consider the following statements regarding location of industries in India:
- India’s first Defence Industrial Park is coming up at Palakkad district of Kerala
- The Government has decided to establish two Defence Industrial Production Corridors one in Tamil Nadu and the other in Uttar Pradesh.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Please see the PIB link of 31st December 2018.
- One proposal was from Government of Kerala to establish Defence Park at Pallakad (Kerala). The project is located at KINFRA Defence Park, Pallakad (Kerala).
- Another project proposal was received from Gujarat Industrial Development Corporation for establishment of Defence Park at Sanand.
DIPP does not have any specific policy or scheme for assistance to promote or establish Defence Parks in States and there is no proposal at present to implement any specific scheme for providing assistance to promote or establish Defence Parks. However, consequent to the announcement in the Budget Speech (2018-19) by Finance Minister for setting up of two Defence Industrial Production Corridors in the country, the Government has decided to establish two such corridors, one in Tamil Nadu and the other in Uttar Pradesh.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1557862
Please see the location of defence industrial corridors by visiting this link:
http://www.defproac.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/08/1-2-1024×426.jpg
Rest of the Info is taken from the following Links:
https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/india/what-is-defence-industrial-production-corridor-2498215.html
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/niramala-sitharaman-inaugurates-tamil-nadu-defence-industrial-corridor/articleshow/67609598.cms
Incorrect
Please see the PIB link of 31st December 2018.
- One proposal was from Government of Kerala to establish Defence Park at Pallakad (Kerala). The project is located at KINFRA Defence Park, Pallakad (Kerala).
- Another project proposal was received from Gujarat Industrial Development Corporation for establishment of Defence Park at Sanand.
DIPP does not have any specific policy or scheme for assistance to promote or establish Defence Parks in States and there is no proposal at present to implement any specific scheme for providing assistance to promote or establish Defence Parks. However, consequent to the announcement in the Budget Speech (2018-19) by Finance Minister for setting up of two Defence Industrial Production Corridors in the country, the Government has decided to establish two such corridors, one in Tamil Nadu and the other in Uttar Pradesh.
http://pib.nic.in/PressReleseDetail.aspx?PRID=1557862
Please see the location of defence industrial corridors by visiting this link:
http://www.defproac.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/08/1-2-1024×426.jpg
Rest of the Info is taken from the following Links:
https://www.moneycontrol.com/news/india/what-is-defence-industrial-production-corridor-2498215.html
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/defence/niramala-sitharaman-inaugurates-tamil-nadu-defence-industrial-corridor/articleshow/67609598.cms
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Footloose Industries:
- Footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect from factors of production such as resources, land, labor, and capital.
- These industries often have spatially fixed costs, which mean that the costs of the products change with the change of place.
- Footloose industries can also refer to the processing of products that are neither weight-gaining, nor weight-losing, and face significant transportation costs.
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Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect from factors of production such as resources, land, labour, and capital.
These industries often have spatially fixed costs, which means that the costs of the products do not change despite where the product is assembled. Diamonds, computer chips, and mobile manufacturing are some examples of footloose industries. These are generally non-polluting industries. Non-footloose industries generally require raw material availability within a time limit to make products. Sugar industry, jute industry and tea industry are the examples of non-footloose industries.
Footloose industries can also refer to the processing of products that are neither weight-gaining, nor weight-losing, and face significant transportation costs. An example of a footloose processing industry is honey. The weight of the raw honey and wax is the same as the finishing product. So, whether the honey is processed near the source of the raw materials or at the location of the final product demand, the transportation costs are the same.
Incorrect
Footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without effect from factors of production such as resources, land, labour, and capital.
These industries often have spatially fixed costs, which means that the costs of the products do not change despite where the product is assembled. Diamonds, computer chips, and mobile manufacturing are some examples of footloose industries. These are generally non-polluting industries. Non-footloose industries generally require raw material availability within a time limit to make products. Sugar industry, jute industry and tea industry are the examples of non-footloose industries.
Footloose industries can also refer to the processing of products that are neither weight-gaining, nor weight-losing, and face significant transportation costs. An example of a footloose processing industry is honey. The weight of the raw honey and wax is the same as the finishing product. So, whether the honey is processed near the source of the raw materials or at the location of the final product demand, the transportation costs are the same.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Which of the following scheme was launched by Ministry of Tourism to develop Theme based tourist circuits?
Correct
Ministry of Tourism (MoT) launched the Swadesh Darshan Scheme (Central Sector Scheme)– for integrated development of theme based tourist circuits in the country in 2014-15. This scheme is envisioned to synergise with other Government of India schemes like Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, Skill India, Make in India etc. with the idea of positioning the tourism sector as a major engine for job creation, driving force for economic growth, building synergy with various sectors to enable tourism to realise its potential.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/tourism-ministry-sanctions-projects-worth-rs-190-46-cr-in-3-states/articleshow/67498033.cms
Incorrect
Ministry of Tourism (MoT) launched the Swadesh Darshan Scheme (Central Sector Scheme)– for integrated development of theme based tourist circuits in the country in 2014-15. This scheme is envisioned to synergise with other Government of India schemes like Swachh Bharat Abhiyan, Skill India, Make in India etc. with the idea of positioning the tourism sector as a major engine for job creation, driving force for economic growth, building synergy with various sectors to enable tourism to realise its potential.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/tourism-ministry-sanctions-projects-worth-rs-190-46-cr-in-3-states/articleshow/67498033.cms
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Tourism Industry in India:
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- Araku in Andhra Pradesh hosts international hot air balloon festival and is all set to become an eco-tourism destination.
- As per the latest World Tourism and Travel Council report, India was ranked third, behind China and the US, in revenue generated by the sector.
- The ministry of Tourism has evolved tremendously over the past few years and is now focusing on conveying the message of Indian philosophy to the world through six elements divided into Yoga, Ayurveda, Wildlife, Cuisine, Luxury and Buddha.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Self-explanatory.
This Question has been framed from multiple sources to cover the latest developments in Indian Tourism Industry. Students are requested to give at least one reading to the following links.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/infrastructure/7-islands-in-andamans-lakshadweep-identified-for-seaplane-operations/articleshow/68067455.cms
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/magazines/panache/flying-in-a-hot-air-balloon-glamping-coffee-trails-araku-all-set-to-become-indias-eco-tourism-destination/articleshow/67683957.cms
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/elections/lok-sabha/india/election-tourism-is-here-as-foreigners-get-to-experience-indias-biggest-festival-of-democracy/articleshow/68546075.cms
http://bwhotelier.businessworld.in/article/Incredible-Achievements-of-India-Tourism/26-03-2019-168467/
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/services/travel/the-big-draw-indian-tourism-in-numbers/articleshow/67002754.cms?from=mdr
Incorrect
Self-explanatory.
This Question has been framed from multiple sources to cover the latest developments in Indian Tourism Industry. Students are requested to give at least one reading to the following links.
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/infrastructure/7-islands-in-andamans-lakshadweep-identified-for-seaplane-operations/articleshow/68067455.cms
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/magazines/panache/flying-in-a-hot-air-balloon-glamping-coffee-trails-araku-all-set-to-become-indias-eco-tourism-destination/articleshow/67683957.cms
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/elections/lok-sabha/india/election-tourism-is-here-as-foreigners-get-to-experience-indias-biggest-festival-of-democracy/articleshow/68546075.cms
http://bwhotelier.businessworld.in/article/Incredible-Achievements-of-India-Tourism/26-03-2019-168467/
https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/services/travel/the-big-draw-indian-tourism-in-numbers/articleshow/67002754.cms?from=mdr
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
National Electronic Policy 2019, passed by the Union Cabinet, can provide an impetus to Make in India (MII) and its efforts to become a global hub for Electronic System Design and Manufacturing (ESDM), apart from making electronics sector more competitive. Which of the following statements regarding NEP are correct?
- The new policy targets $400 billion turnover by 2025 from domestic manufacturing, setting up cluster for the entire value chain and employing over 1 crore people directly or otherwise to achieve a growth rate of 32 per cent.
- The policy aims to make the country as a hub for electronic manufacturing for exports.
- The policy entails creating a Sovereign Patent Fund (SPF) to promote the development.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
National Policy on Electronics 2019 (NPE 2019)
Union Cabinet today gave its approval to the National Policy on Electronics 2019 (NPE 2019), proposed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The Policy envisions positioning India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing – (ESDM) by encouraging and driving capabilities in the country for developing core components, including chipsets, and creating an enabling environment for the industry to compete globally.
Salient Features of NPE 2019
- Create eco-system for globally competitive ESDM sector: Promoting domestic manufacturing and export in the entire value-chain of ESDM.
- Provide incentives and support for manufacturing of core electronic components.
- Provide special package of incentives for mega projects which are extremely high-tech and entail huge investments, such as semiconductor facilities display fabrication, etc.
- Formulate suitable schemes and incentive mechanisms to encourage new units and expansion of existing units.
- Promote Industry-led R&D and innovation in all sub-sectors of electronics, including grass root level innovations and early stage Start-ups in emerging technology areas such as 5G, loT/ Sensors, Artificial Intelligence (Al), Machine Learning, Virtual Reality (VR), Drones, Robotics, Additive Manufacturing, Photonics, Nano-based devices, etc.
- Provide incentives and support for significantly enhancing availability of skilled manpower, including re-skilling.
- Special thrust on Fabless Chip Design Industry, Medical Electronic Devices Industry, Automotive Electronics Industry and Power Electronics for Mobility and Strategic Electronics Industry.
- Create Sovereign Patent Fund (SPF) to promote the development and acquisition of IPs in ESDM sector.
- Promote trusted electronics value chain initiatives to improve national cyber security profile.
Implementation strategy: The Policy will lead to the formulation of several schemes, initiatives, projects and measures for the development of ESDM sector in the country as per the roadmap envisaged therein.
Targets: Promote domestic manufacturing and export in the entire value-chain of ESDM for economic development to achieve a turnover of USD 400 billion (approximately INR 26,00,000 crore) by 2025. This will include targeted production of 1.0 billion (100 crore) mobile handsets by 2025, valued at USD 190 billion (approximately INR 13,00,000 crore), including600 million (60 crore) mobile handsets valued at USD 110 billion (approximately INR 7,00,000 crore) for export.
https://tech.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/corporate/government-announces-new-electronic-policy-to-promote-domestic-manufacturing/68070523
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/info-tech/national-electronic-policy-2019-to-boost-manufacturing-drive-exports/article26378362.ece
Incorrect
National Policy on Electronics 2019 (NPE 2019)
Union Cabinet today gave its approval to the National Policy on Electronics 2019 (NPE 2019), proposed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). The Policy envisions positioning India as a global hub for Electronics System Design and Manufacturing – (ESDM) by encouraging and driving capabilities in the country for developing core components, including chipsets, and creating an enabling environment for the industry to compete globally.
Salient Features of NPE 2019
- Create eco-system for globally competitive ESDM sector: Promoting domestic manufacturing and export in the entire value-chain of ESDM.
- Provide incentives and support for manufacturing of core electronic components.
- Provide special package of incentives for mega projects which are extremely high-tech and entail huge investments, such as semiconductor facilities display fabrication, etc.
- Formulate suitable schemes and incentive mechanisms to encourage new units and expansion of existing units.
- Promote Industry-led R&D and innovation in all sub-sectors of electronics, including grass root level innovations and early stage Start-ups in emerging technology areas such as 5G, loT/ Sensors, Artificial Intelligence (Al), Machine Learning, Virtual Reality (VR), Drones, Robotics, Additive Manufacturing, Photonics, Nano-based devices, etc.
- Provide incentives and support for significantly enhancing availability of skilled manpower, including re-skilling.
- Special thrust on Fabless Chip Design Industry, Medical Electronic Devices Industry, Automotive Electronics Industry and Power Electronics for Mobility and Strategic Electronics Industry.
- Create Sovereign Patent Fund (SPF) to promote the development and acquisition of IPs in ESDM sector.
- Promote trusted electronics value chain initiatives to improve national cyber security profile.
Implementation strategy: The Policy will lead to the formulation of several schemes, initiatives, projects and measures for the development of ESDM sector in the country as per the roadmap envisaged therein.
Targets: Promote domestic manufacturing and export in the entire value-chain of ESDM for economic development to achieve a turnover of USD 400 billion (approximately INR 26,00,000 crore) by 2025. This will include targeted production of 1.0 billion (100 crore) mobile handsets by 2025, valued at USD 190 billion (approximately INR 13,00,000 crore), including600 million (60 crore) mobile handsets valued at USD 110 billion (approximately INR 7,00,000 crore) for export.
https://tech.economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/corporate/government-announces-new-electronic-policy-to-promote-domestic-manufacturing/68070523
https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/info-tech/national-electronic-policy-2019-to-boost-manufacturing-drive-exports/article26378362.ece
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
In order to provide an impetus to agricultural exports, the Government has come out with a comprehensive “Agriculture Export Policy” aimed at doubling the agricultural exports and integrating Indian farmers and agricultural products with the global value chains.
Consider the following statements regarding Agriculture Export Policy:
- The Agriculture Export Policy has the vision: “Harness export potential of Indian agriculture, through suitable policy instruments, to make India global power in agriculture and raise farmers’ income.”
- The recommendations in the Agriculture Export Policy have been organized in two categories – Strategic and Operational.
- One of the Main Objectives of the Agriculture Export Policy is to double the farmer’s income and agricultural production by 2030.
Which of the following statements are correct?
Correct
The Indian government on 6 December approved the country’s first Agriculture Export Policy with an aim to increase agricultural export to $60 billion by 2022 as well as double farmers’ income.
The Government has come out with a policy to double farmers’ income by 2022. Exports of agricultural products would play a pivotal role in achieving this goal. In order to provide an impetus to agricultural exports, the Government has come out with a comprehensive “Agriculture Export Policy” aimed at doubling the agricultural exports and integrating Indian farmers and agricultural products with the global value chains. The Agriculture Export Policy has the following vision:
“Harness export potential of Indian agriculture, through suitable policy instruments, to make India global power in agriculture and raise farmers’ income.”
Objectives:
Objectives of the Agriculture Export Policy are as under:
- To double agricultural exports from present ~US$ 30+ Billion to ~US$ 60+ Billion by 2022 and reach US$ 100 Billion in the next few years thereafter, with a stable trade policy regime.
- To diversify our export basket, destinations and boost high value and value added agricultural exports including focus on perishables.
- To promote novel, indigenous, organic, ethnic, traditional and non-traditional Agri products exports.
- To provide an institutional mechanism for pursuing market access, tackling barriers and deal with sanitary and phyto-sanitary issues.
- To strive to double India’s share in world agri exports by integrating with global value chain at the earliest.
- Enable farmers to get benefit of export opportunities in overseas market.
Please see the PIB link below:
Incorrect
The Indian government on 6 December approved the country’s first Agriculture Export Policy with an aim to increase agricultural export to $60 billion by 2022 as well as double farmers’ income.
The Government has come out with a policy to double farmers’ income by 2022. Exports of agricultural products would play a pivotal role in achieving this goal. In order to provide an impetus to agricultural exports, the Government has come out with a comprehensive “Agriculture Export Policy” aimed at doubling the agricultural exports and integrating Indian farmers and agricultural products with the global value chains. The Agriculture Export Policy has the following vision:
“Harness export potential of Indian agriculture, through suitable policy instruments, to make India global power in agriculture and raise farmers’ income.”
Objectives:
Objectives of the Agriculture Export Policy are as under:
- To double agricultural exports from present ~US$ 30+ Billion to ~US$ 60+ Billion by 2022 and reach US$ 100 Billion in the next few years thereafter, with a stable trade policy regime.
- To diversify our export basket, destinations and boost high value and value added agricultural exports including focus on perishables.
- To promote novel, indigenous, organic, ethnic, traditional and non-traditional Agri products exports.
- To provide an institutional mechanism for pursuing market access, tackling barriers and deal with sanitary and phyto-sanitary issues.
- To strive to double India’s share in world agri exports by integrating with global value chain at the earliest.
- Enable farmers to get benefit of export opportunities in overseas market.
Please see the PIB link below:
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Van Dhan Scheme for tribal agro products:
- This first model Van Dhan Vikas Kendra is in Bijapur.
- Under Van Dhan, 10 Self Help Groups of 30 Tribal gatherers is constituted and they are then trained and provided with working capital to add value to the products, which they collect from the jungle.
- Working under the leadership of Collector/D.M, these groups can then market their products not only within the States but also outside the States.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
The statements are self explanatory.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=178965
This first model Van Dhan Vikas Kendra is in Bijapur. This Kendra will have processing facility for Tamarind brick making, Mahua flower storage facility and chironjee cleaning and packaging.
Extra Info:
Three stage value additions would be the corner stone for enhancing incomes of the tribals under the scheme. The grass root level procurement is proposed to be undertaken through Self Help Groups associated with implementing agencies. Convergence and Networking with other Govt. departments/scheme shall be undertaken to utilise the services of existing SHGs like Ajeevika, etc. These SHGs shall be appropriately trained on sustainable harvesting/collection, primary processing & value addition and be formed into clusters so as to aggregate their stock in tradable quantity and linking them with facility of primary processing in a Van DhanVikas Kendra.
The stock after primary processing shall be supplied by these SHGs to the State Implementing Agencies or direct tie up for supply to corporate secondary processor.
For creation of secondary level value addition facility at district level and tertiary level value addition facility at State level, Big Corporates shall be involved under PPP model.
Incorrect
The statements are self explanatory.
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=178965
This first model Van Dhan Vikas Kendra is in Bijapur. This Kendra will have processing facility for Tamarind brick making, Mahua flower storage facility and chironjee cleaning and packaging.
Extra Info:
Three stage value additions would be the corner stone for enhancing incomes of the tribals under the scheme. The grass root level procurement is proposed to be undertaken through Self Help Groups associated with implementing agencies. Convergence and Networking with other Govt. departments/scheme shall be undertaken to utilise the services of existing SHGs like Ajeevika, etc. These SHGs shall be appropriately trained on sustainable harvesting/collection, primary processing & value addition and be formed into clusters so as to aggregate their stock in tradable quantity and linking them with facility of primary processing in a Van DhanVikas Kendra.
The stock after primary processing shall be supplied by these SHGs to the State Implementing Agencies or direct tie up for supply to corporate secondary processor.
For creation of secondary level value addition facility at district level and tertiary level value addition facility at State level, Big Corporates shall be involved under PPP model.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
If any religious place bars the entry of menstruating women, which of the following fundamental rights are violated?
- Article 14
- Article 15
- Article 17
Select the correct code:
Correct
No Entry of women is a violation of Right to equality and equal protection of law (Article 14), Article 15 (3) which says that No laws can be against the women and the term law means not only parliament made laws but also all laws enshrined in Article 13 includes Rules, Regulation, Ordinance, Custom, and Usage, therefore it is contrary to the Article 15 (3).
And It is a untouchability with the specific age group of women while Article 17 talk about the Abolition of untouchability.
And it is not only a violation of women’s fundamental rights but also it is a crime under the protection of civil rights Act 1955.
Incorrect
No Entry of women is a violation of Right to equality and equal protection of law (Article 14), Article 15 (3) which says that No laws can be against the women and the term law means not only parliament made laws but also all laws enshrined in Article 13 includes Rules, Regulation, Ordinance, Custom, and Usage, therefore it is contrary to the Article 15 (3).
And It is a untouchability with the specific age group of women while Article 17 talk about the Abolition of untouchability.
And it is not only a violation of women’s fundamental rights but also it is a crime under the protection of civil rights Act 1955.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
‘Shreya Singhal vs Union of India’ Case primarily deals with
Correct
The Supreme Court held Section 66A unconstitutional and void on grounds of being excessively vague, open-ended and undefined. Court held that it took away the freedom of speech and the right to descent and hence violated the freedom of speech and expression given under Article 19 (1) (a).
Incorrect
The Supreme Court held Section 66A unconstitutional and void on grounds of being excessively vague, open-ended and undefined. Court held that it took away the freedom of speech and the right to descent and hence violated the freedom of speech and expression given under Article 19 (1) (a).
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
‘124th Constitutional Amendment Bill’ was in news recently. It amends which of the following articles of the Constitution of India?
- Article 21
- Article 15
- Article 16
Select the correct code:
Correct
The Bill is brought into to full the commitments under the Directive principles of the state policy listed in the Article 46 of the Constitution which urges the government to protect the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of society. The Bill amends Article 15 of the Constitution to provide reservations to economically weaker sections for admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions. The Bill also amends Article 16 of the Constitution to provide reservations to people from economically weaker sections in government posts.
Incorrect
The Bill is brought into to full the commitments under the Directive principles of the state policy listed in the Article 46 of the Constitution which urges the government to protect the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of society. The Bill amends Article 15 of the Constitution to provide reservations to economically weaker sections for admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions. The Bill also amends Article 16 of the Constitution to provide reservations to people from economically weaker sections in government posts.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Aadhaar cards are now valid travel documents for Indians under 15 and over 65 years travelling to which of the following countries?
- Bhutan
- Nepal
- Bangladesh
Select the correct code:
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Which of the following pairs is /are correctly matched?
Dances State
- Fusim Dance – Arunachal Pradesh
- Taakala Folk Dance – Maharashtra
- Hudka Chhudka – Odisha
Select the correct code:
Correct
Fusim Dance – Jammu and Kashmir
Taakala Folk Dance – Maharashtra
Hudka Chhudka – Uttarakhand
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=187832
Incorrect
Fusim Dance – Jammu and Kashmir
Taakala Folk Dance – Maharashtra
Hudka Chhudka – Uttarakhand
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=187832
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Polar Vortex’ and identify the correct one?
Correct
The polar vortex is part of a low-pressure system, and just like other lows this one spins as winds blow in toward the lower pressure at the center of the system. (A hurricane is another example of a low-pressure system that spins.)
Due to Earth’s spin and a phenomenon called the Coriolis effect, these systems spin counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
There are polar vortexes at both the North and South Poles, with the Southern Hemisphere vortex spinning clockwise. In each case, the vortex strengthens during winter and weakens during summer. The vortex at the South Pole is more stable than the one at the North Pole, said Brian Jackson of the National Weather Service, because there are fewer land masses in the Southern Hemisphere.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/the-hindu-explains-what-is-the-polar-vortex/article26140605.ece
Note- Tens of millions of Americans braved Arctic-like temperatures on January 31 2019 as low as minus 49 degrees Celsius that paralysed the U.S. Midwest and were blamed for 21 deaths. News agencies said warmer than normal weather was on the way, but that offered little comfort to the homeless enduring a chill that caused frostbite in minutes. The cold has been blamed on a phenomenon called the ‘polar vortex’.
Incorrect
The polar vortex is part of a low-pressure system, and just like other lows this one spins as winds blow in toward the lower pressure at the center of the system. (A hurricane is another example of a low-pressure system that spins.)
Due to Earth’s spin and a phenomenon called the Coriolis effect, these systems spin counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
There are polar vortexes at both the North and South Poles, with the Southern Hemisphere vortex spinning clockwise. In each case, the vortex strengthens during winter and weakens during summer. The vortex at the South Pole is more stable than the one at the North Pole, said Brian Jackson of the National Weather Service, because there are fewer land masses in the Southern Hemisphere.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/the-hindu-explains-what-is-the-polar-vortex/article26140605.ece
Note- Tens of millions of Americans braved Arctic-like temperatures on January 31 2019 as low as minus 49 degrees Celsius that paralysed the U.S. Midwest and were blamed for 21 deaths. News agencies said warmer than normal weather was on the way, but that offered little comfort to the homeless enduring a chill that caused frostbite in minutes. The cold has been blamed on a phenomenon called the ‘polar vortex’.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
With reference to scientific development, what is meaning of ‘uncanny valley’, a term very often in news?
Correct
The uncanny valley is a common unsettling feeling people experience when androids (humanoid robots) and audio/visual simulations closely resemble humans in many respects but are not quite convincingly realistic.
The phenomenon is a consideration in a number of areas of design including robotics, video game art, training simulators and 3-D animation. Depending on the intent, a designer may want to avoid the uncanny valley or exploit it to elicit a particular response.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/what-is-uncanny-valley-in-psychology/article26082398.ece
Incorrect
The uncanny valley is a common unsettling feeling people experience when androids (humanoid robots) and audio/visual simulations closely resemble humans in many respects but are not quite convincingly realistic.
The phenomenon is a consideration in a number of areas of design including robotics, video game art, training simulators and 3-D animation. Depending on the intent, a designer may want to avoid the uncanny valley or exploit it to elicit a particular response.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/what-is-uncanny-valley-in-psychology/article26082398.ece
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
The condition called ‘Sexual Dimorphism’ refers to difference in:
- Sexual orientation
- Secondary Sex Characteristics
- Primary Sex Characteristics
- Cognitive and Behavioural Differences
Select the correct code:
Correct
Sexual dimorphism is the condition where the two sexes of the same species exhibit different characteristics beyond the differences in their sexual organs.
The condition occurs in many animals and some plants. Differences may include secondary sex characteristics, size, weight, color, markings, and may also include behavioral and cognitive differences.
Secondary sex characteristics are features that appear during puberty in humans, and at sexual maturity in other animals. These are particularly evident in the sexually dimorphic phenotypic traits that distinguish the sexes of a species, but unlike the sex organs, are not directly part of the reproductive system.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/what-is-sexual-dimorphism-in-biology/article25892934.ece
Incorrect
Sexual dimorphism is the condition where the two sexes of the same species exhibit different characteristics beyond the differences in their sexual organs.
The condition occurs in many animals and some plants. Differences may include secondary sex characteristics, size, weight, color, markings, and may also include behavioral and cognitive differences.
Secondary sex characteristics are features that appear during puberty in humans, and at sexual maturity in other animals. These are particularly evident in the sexually dimorphic phenotypic traits that distinguish the sexes of a species, but unlike the sex organs, are not directly part of the reproductive system.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/what-is-sexual-dimorphism-in-biology/article25892934.ece
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Shiva Nataraja’ of Lord Shiva, a 10th century Chola dynasty bronze sculpture of Shiva:
- The face of Shiva is slightly smiling that represents his calmness.
- The upper left hand has fire to show that he is responsible for dissolution at the time of Pralaya.
- The lower right hand makes the abhaya mudra gesture of blessing which calms all fear.
Select the correct statement/s
Correct
All the statements are correct
Characteristics of Nataraja
- The sculpture is symbolic of Shiva as the lord of dance and dramatic arts, with its style and proportions made according to Hindu texts on arts.
- It typically shows Shiva dancing in one of the Natya Shastra poses, holding Agni (fire) in his left back hand, the front hand in gajahasta (elephant hand) or dandahasta (stick hand) mudra, the front right hand with a wrapped snake that is in abhaya (fear not) mudra while pointing to a Sutra text, and the back hand holding a musical instrument, usually a damaru.
- His body, fingers, ankles, neck, face, head, ear lobes and dress are shown decorated with symbolic items, which vary with historic period and region.
- He is surrounded by a ring of flames, standing on a lotus pedestal, lifting his left leg (or in rare cases, the right leg) and balancing over a demon shown as a dwarf (Apasmara or Mulakaya who symbolizes ignorance.
- The dynamism of the energetic dance is depicted with the whirling hair which spread out in thin strands as a fan behind his head.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/society/faith/symbolic-significance/article26115605.ece
Incorrect
All the statements are correct
Characteristics of Nataraja
- The sculpture is symbolic of Shiva as the lord of dance and dramatic arts, with its style and proportions made according to Hindu texts on arts.
- It typically shows Shiva dancing in one of the Natya Shastra poses, holding Agni (fire) in his left back hand, the front hand in gajahasta (elephant hand) or dandahasta (stick hand) mudra, the front right hand with a wrapped snake that is in abhaya (fear not) mudra while pointing to a Sutra text, and the back hand holding a musical instrument, usually a damaru.
- His body, fingers, ankles, neck, face, head, ear lobes and dress are shown decorated with symbolic items, which vary with historic period and region.
- He is surrounded by a ring of flames, standing on a lotus pedestal, lifting his left leg (or in rare cases, the right leg) and balancing over a demon shown as a dwarf (Apasmara or Mulakaya who symbolizes ignorance.
- The dynamism of the energetic dance is depicted with the whirling hair which spread out in thin strands as a fan behind his head.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/society/faith/symbolic-significance/article26115605.ece
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
With reference to Ancient History and Culture of India, ‘Karaikal Ammaiyar’ was:
Correct
Karaikal Ammaiyar one of the three women amongst the 63 Nayanmars, is one of the greatest figures of early Tamil literature. She was born at Karaikal, South India (Pondichery, TN), and probably lived during the 6th century. She was a devotee of Shiva.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/society/faith/growth-of-saivism/article25972556.ece
Incorrect
Karaikal Ammaiyar one of the three women amongst the 63 Nayanmars, is one of the greatest figures of early Tamil literature. She was born at Karaikal, South India (Pondichery, TN), and probably lived during the 6th century. She was a devotee of Shiva.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/society/faith/growth-of-saivism/article25972556.ece
