IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
ARCHIVES
Hello Friends,
The most beloved 60 Days for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 has finally begun 🙂
Once again the time has come for the battle (Prelims). And who else than your best companion in the last preparatory phase for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 i.e 60 days plan.
It does not matter how slowly you go as long as you do not stop.
Hope the message given above makes sense to you all.
The productive utilization of this programme demands consistency, honesty, faith and strong determination to be in the process of learning and unlearning. You might not be fully prepared to solve all the questions but the learning and unlearning through these questions will prepare you for the real battle on 2nd June 2019.
You have to unlearn your repetitive mistakes, gut feeling on which you mark doubtful questions. You have to learn new things and also those concepts that you were very sure of but somehow because of traps in the option, got it wrong. You have to learn ‘how to convert knowledge into marks’ (Because most of the times, after ending the exam, you regret making mistakes in known concepts).
Secondly, keep a long distance from following too many things at this point. It will always backfire. Once you are here, put complete faith and follow this initiative along with whatever you were doing. It is very important to consolidate your preparation with many revisions. Simply following many things will leave you in despair. You can cross check this with veterans.
Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. Be wise!
Let us pledge to make it a big game changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days of this plan!
Importance of Self – Tracking: Learning from Last Year
Last year, aspirants used to type/post their answers in the comment box on a daily basis. There were huge participation and discussion below the test post. Putting answers in the comment box has been very effective to self-track yourself after updating the score. In the end, you can cross check your performance through Disqus profile.
It was highly effective in the last edition of 60 Days that propelled aspirants to monitor their performance and learn through discussion. Let you solve these questions with full honesty and write your result in the comment box. Interact with peers to know your mistakes.
The importance of this initiative stands time-bound and aggressive reverse engineering to learn the concepts. Many of you must be busy with your own strategy but let us tell you honestly that in the last few months, it is very important to revise and consolidate your learning. Just reading won’t suffice.
So, take out a few hours from your schedule and make it a revision exercise.
How can you make the best use of it?
Be honest to your effort and do not start competing with XYZ aspirants just for the sake of marks. It is more important for you to introspect and check your learning than focusing on others. Try to answer the questions in 25 minutes only.
Do not get into negative feeling that I don’t have enough knowledge to answer these questions. Feel like you are taking the real exam. What would be your response then?
The same will be replicated in the UPSC exam. Here, you get marks only and nothing else matters. So, make effort to know the answers to all questions. Do not cheat 😛
DETAILED MICRO ANALYSIS MATRIX SAMPLE– is given here. You can download this and do an assessment for yourself (the excel sheet must be modified as per this years planning. The provided excel sheet is only for reference). DOWNLOAD
- You can copy paste the same format/modify as per your need in Google Spreadsheet and update it on daily basis.
- Feedback talks about daily test results.
- Follow-up talks about daily target achieved from sources and the number of revisions to do/done and dates. Sources column is to ensure that aspirants do not run behind various sources and follow the same throughout.
Would like to end on this quote:
Either you run the day or the day runs you.
Are you ready? Let’s start!
Important Note
- Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
Test-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
- Click on – ‘Start Test’ button
- Solve Questions
- Click on ‘Test Summary’ button
- Click on ‘Finish Test’ button
- Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the test.
You have to finish following test, to start this test:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
---|---|---|---|---|
Table is loading | ||||
No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Q.1) Consider the below statements about Leader of the Opposition in India:
- In order to get formal recognition, the concerned party must have at least 10% of the total strength of the House.
- A single party has to meet the 10% seat criterion, not an alliance.
- They are entitled to the salary, allowances and other facilities equivalent to that of a cabinet minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In each House of Parliament, there is the ‘Leader of the Opposition’.
- The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognised as the leader of the Opposition in that House.
- If any party fails to get 10% seats in opposition, the House will not have recognised leader of the opposition.
- A single party has to meet the 10% seat criterion, not an alliance.
Hence, statements (1) and (2) are correct.
In a parliamentary system of government, the leader of the opposition has a significant role to play. His main functions are to provide a constructive criticism of the policies of the government and to provide an alternative government. Therefore, the leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha were accorded statutory recognition in 1977.
They are also entitled to the salary, allowances and other facilities equivalent to that of a cabinet minister. Hence, statement (3) is also correct.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
In each House of Parliament, there is the ‘Leader of the Opposition’.
- The leader of the largest Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognised as the leader of the Opposition in that House.
- If any party fails to get 10% seats in opposition, the House will not have recognised leader of the opposition.
- A single party has to meet the 10% seat criterion, not an alliance.
Hence, statements (1) and (2) are correct.
In a parliamentary system of government, the leader of the opposition has a significant role to play. His main functions are to provide a constructive criticism of the policies of the government and to provide an alternative government. Therefore, the leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha were accorded statutory recognition in 1977.
They are also entitled to the salary, allowances and other facilities equivalent to that of a cabinet minister. Hence, statement (3) is also correct.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Q.2) Consider the below statements:
- In India, offices of the leader of the House and the leader of the Opposition are mentioned in the Constitution of India.
- In India, Whip is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
In India, Leaders of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are accorded statutory recognition (not constitutional recognition).
The offices of the leader of the House and the leader of the Opposition are not mentioned in the Constitution of India, they are mentioned in the Rules of the House and Parliamentary Statute respectively. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
The Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977, defines the Leader of the Opposition, in relation to either House of Parliament
The office of ‘whip’, on the other hand, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
In India, Leaders of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are accorded statutory recognition (not constitutional recognition).
The offices of the leader of the House and the leader of the Opposition are not mentioned in the Constitution of India, they are mentioned in the Rules of the House and Parliamentary Statute respectively. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
The Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977, defines the Leader of the Opposition, in relation to either House of Parliament
The office of ‘whip’, on the other hand, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. Hence, statement (2) is correct.
Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Q.3) Consider the below statements with regard to the President’s election:
- It is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
- Each member of the Electoral College is given multiple ballot papers to indicate his preferences against the names of candidates.
- A candidate, in order to be declared elected to the office of President, must secure a fixed quota of votes and voting is by secret ballot.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The President’s election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting is by secret ballot.
This system ensures that the successful candidate is returned by the absolute majority of votes. A candidate, in order to be declared elected to the office of President, must secure a fixed quota of votes.
Hence, statement (1) and (3) are correct.
Each member of the electoral college is given only one ballot paper. The voter, while casting his vote, is required to indicate his preferences by marking 1, 2, 3, 4, etc. against the names of candidates. This means that the voter can indicate as many preferences as there are candidates in the fray. Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: President)
Incorrect
The President’s election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting is by secret ballot.
This system ensures that the successful candidate is returned by the absolute majority of votes. A candidate, in order to be declared elected to the office of President, must secure a fixed quota of votes.
Hence, statement (1) and (3) are correct.
Each member of the electoral college is given only one ballot paper. The voter, while casting his vote, is required to indicate his preferences by marking 1, 2, 3, 4, etc. against the names of candidates. This means that the voter can indicate as many preferences as there are candidates in the fray. Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: President)
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Q.4) Which among the following statements is/are true with regard to privileges and immunities enjoyed by the President of India?
- He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts.
- During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings.
- However, after giving two months’ notice, criminal proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.
Choose correct answer:
Correct
The President is entitled to a number of privileges and immunities.
- He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts.
- During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned.
- However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: President)
Incorrect
The President is entitled to a number of privileges and immunities.
- He enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts.
- During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned.
- However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: President)
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Q.5) Consider the following statements with regard to the President of India and choose the incorrect statement:
Correct
The President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the Vice-President. Further, he can also be removed from the office before completion of his term by the process of impeachment.
The President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. He is also eligible for re-election to that office. He may be elected for any number of terms. However, in USA, a person cannot be elected to the office of the President more than twice.
The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the Constitution’. The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament.
When a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to his resignation, removal, death or otherwise, the Vice-President acts as the President until a new President is elected.
However, when the vacancy is going to be caused by the expiration of the term of the sitting President, an election to fill the vacancy must be held before the expiration of the term. In case of any delay in conducting the election of new President by any reason, the outgoing President continues to hold office (beyond his term of five years) until his successor assumes charge. This is provided by the Constitution in order to prevent an ‘interregnum’. In this situation, the Vice-President does not get the opportunity to act as President or to discharge the functions of the President. Hence, statement (a) is incorrect.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: President)
Incorrect
The President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the Vice-President. Further, he can also be removed from the office before completion of his term by the process of impeachment.
The President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. He is also eligible for re-election to that office. He may be elected for any number of terms. However, in USA, a person cannot be elected to the office of the President more than twice.
The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the Constitution’. The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament.
When a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to his resignation, removal, death or otherwise, the Vice-President acts as the President until a new President is elected.
However, when the vacancy is going to be caused by the expiration of the term of the sitting President, an election to fill the vacancy must be held before the expiration of the term. In case of any delay in conducting the election of new President by any reason, the outgoing President continues to hold office (beyond his term of five years) until his successor assumes charge. This is provided by the Constitution in order to prevent an ‘interregnum’. In this situation, the Vice-President does not get the opportunity to act as President or to discharge the functions of the President. Hence, statement (a) is incorrect.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: President)
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Q.6) Which among the following statements is/are true with regard to Vice-President?
- Vice-President is accorded a rank next to the President in the official warrant of precedence.
- The office of Vice-President is modelled on the lines of the American Vice-President.
- No ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
The Vice-President occupies the second highest office in the country. He is accorded a rank next to the President in the official warrant of precedence. This office is modelled on the lines of the American Vice-President. Hence, statements (1) and (2) are correct.
The Vice-President can be removed from the office before completion of his term. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal.
Vice President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority (more than 50% of effective membership(total membership – Vacant seats)) and agreed to by a simple majority (50% of present and voting members) of the Lok Sabha.
But, no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days’ advance notice has been given. Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. Hence, statement (3) is also correct.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Vice-President)
Incorrect
The Vice-President occupies the second highest office in the country. He is accorded a rank next to the President in the official warrant of precedence. This office is modelled on the lines of the American Vice-President. Hence, statements (1) and (2) are correct.
The Vice-President can be removed from the office before completion of his term. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal.
Vice President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority (more than 50% of effective membership(total membership – Vacant seats)) and agreed to by a simple majority (50% of present and voting members) of the Lok Sabha.
But, no such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days’ advance notice has been given. Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal. Hence, statement (3) is also correct.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Vice-President)
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Q.7) Which among the following provisions is/are provided by the Constitution of India?
- President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.
- Emoluments for the Vice-President.
- Time frame within which the state legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president. However, this does not imply that the president is free to appoint any one as the Prime Minister.
In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister. But, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the President may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister and asks him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
The Constitution has not fixed any emoluments for the Vice-President in that capacity. He draws his regular salary in his capacity as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
The Constitution does not prescribe the time frame within which the state legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them. Also, it is silent on the issue whether the states can withdraw their approval after according the same.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: President)
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Vice-President)
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president. However, this does not imply that the president is free to appoint any one as the Prime Minister.
In accordance with the conventions of the parliamentary system of government, the President has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister. But, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, then the President may exercise his personal discretion in the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. In such a situation, the President usually appoints the leader of the largest party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister and asks him to seek a vote of confidence in the House within a month.
The Constitution has not fixed any emoluments for the Vice-President in that capacity. He draws his regular salary in his capacity as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
The Constitution does not prescribe the time frame within which the state legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them. Also, it is silent on the issue whether the states can withdraw their approval after according the same.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: President)
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Vice-President)
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Q.8) Which of the statements given below is/are true?
- Resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers.
- Member of a state legislative assembly cannot be appointed as a Central council of minister.
- The salaries and allowances of ministers are determined by Parliament from time to time.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of ministers, the other ministers cannot function when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In other words, the resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. The resignation or death of any other minister, on the other hand, merely creates a vacancy which the Prime Minister may or may not like to fill.
Usually, the members of Parliament, either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, are appointed as ministers. A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can also be appointed as a minister. But, within six months, he must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of Parliament, otherwise, he ceases to be a minister. Hence, even a MLA can be appointed as minister, but he has to become a member of either House of Parliament within 6 months. Therefore, statement (2) is wrong.
The salaries and allowances of ministers are determined by Parliament from time to time. A minister gets the salary and allowances that are payable to a member of Parliament. Additionally, he gets a sumptuary allowance (according to his rank), free accommodation, travelling allowance, medical facilities, etc.
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Prime Minister and Council of Ministers)
Incorrect
Since the Prime Minister stands at the head of the council of ministers, the other ministers cannot function when the Prime Minister resigns or dies. In other words, the resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. The resignation or death of any other minister, on the other hand, merely creates a vacancy which the Prime Minister may or may not like to fill.
Usually, the members of Parliament, either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, are appointed as ministers. A person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can also be appointed as a minister. But, within six months, he must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of Parliament, otherwise, he ceases to be a minister. Hence, even a MLA can be appointed as minister, but he has to become a member of either House of Parliament within 6 months. Therefore, statement (2) is wrong.
The salaries and allowances of ministers are determined by Parliament from time to time. A minister gets the salary and allowances that are payable to a member of Parliament. Additionally, he gets a sumptuary allowance (according to his rank), free accommodation, travelling allowance, medical facilities, etc.
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Prime Minister and Council of Ministers)
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Q.9) Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to President’s rule?
- When the President’s rule is imposed in a state, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that state.
- The laws become inoperative on the expiration of six months after the president’s rule has ceased to operate.
Choose the correct codes from below options:
Correct
When the President’s rule is imposed in a state, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that state.
A law made so by the Parliament continues to be operative even after the president’s rule. This means that the period for which such a law remains in force is not co-terminus with the duration of the President’s rule. But, such a law can be repealed or altered or re-enacted by the state legislature. Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: President)
Incorrect
When the President’s rule is imposed in a state, the Parliament becomes empowered to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List in relation to that state.
A law made so by the Parliament continues to be operative even after the president’s rule. This means that the period for which such a law remains in force is not co-terminus with the duration of the President’s rule. But, such a law can be repealed or altered or re-enacted by the state legislature. Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: President)
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Q.10) Consider the following roles:
- It is the highest decision-making authority in our politico-administrative system.
- It is the chief policy formulating body of the Central government.
- It is the supreme executive authority of the Central government.
- It is chief coordinator of Central administration.
The above roles are associated with –
Correct
ROLE OF CABINET
- It is the highest decision-making authority in our politico-administrative system.
- It is the chief policy formulating body of the Central government.
- It is the supreme executive authority of the Central government.
- It is chief coordinator of Central administration.
- It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him.
- It is the chief crisis manager and thus deals with all emergency situations.
- It deals with all major legislative and financial matters.
- It exercises control over higher appointments like constitutional authorities and senior secretariat administrators.
- It deals with all foreign policies and foreign affairs.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
ROLE OF CABINET
- It is the highest decision-making authority in our politico-administrative system.
- It is the chief policy formulating body of the Central government.
- It is the supreme executive authority of the Central government.
- It is chief coordinator of Central administration.
- It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him.
- It is the chief crisis manager and thus deals with all emergency situations.
- It deals with all major legislative and financial matters.
- It exercises control over higher appointments like constitutional authorities and senior secretariat administrators.
- It deals with all foreign policies and foreign affairs.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Q.11) Consider the following statements in regard to representation of UTs to the Houses of the Parliament:
- The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the UTs to the Houses of the Parliament.
- The representatives of each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the UTs in the Lok Sabha (not second chamber i.e., Rajya Sabha). Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the representatives of the UTs are chosen.
The representatives of each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose. This election is also held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
Out of the seven union territories, only two (Delhi and Puducherry) have representation in Rajya Sabha. The populations of other five union territories are too small to have any representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
The Constitution has empowered the Parliament to prescribe the manner of choosing the representatives of the UTs in the Lok Sabha (not second chamber i.e., Rajya Sabha). Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Union Territories (Direct Election to the House of the People) Act, 1965, by which the representatives of the UTs are chosen.
The representatives of each union territory in the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by members of an electoral college specially constituted for the purpose. This election is also held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
Out of the seven union territories, only two (Delhi and Puducherry) have representation in Rajya Sabha. The populations of other five union territories are too small to have any representative in the Rajya Sabha.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Q.12) Which among the statements given below is/are true in regard to the Speaker?
- He is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India within the House.
- Parliamentary Affairs Committee is chaired by the Speaker.
- President enables the House to elect the new Speaker.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
Speaker is the final interpreter of the provisions of (a) the Constitution of India, (b) the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and (c) the parliamentary precedents, within the House.
Speaker is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole and its committees.
The main duty of Speaker Pro Tem is to administer oath to the new members. He also enables the House to elect the new Speaker. Hence, statement (3) is wrong.
Parliamentary Affairs Committee, which looks after the progress of government business in the Parliament, is chaired by the Home Minister (not Speaker). Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
Speaker is the final interpreter of the provisions of (a) the Constitution of India, (b) the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and (c) the parliamentary precedents, within the House.
Speaker is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole and its committees.
The main duty of Speaker Pro Tem is to administer oath to the new members. He also enables the House to elect the new Speaker. Hence, statement (3) is wrong.
Parliamentary Affairs Committee, which looks after the progress of government business in the Parliament, is chaired by the Home Minister (not Speaker). Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Q.13) Which among the following is/are correct statements in regard to Council of ministers and Cabinet?
- Council of ministers functions are determined by the cabinet.
- Council of ministers implements the decisions taken by the cabinet.
- Cabinet supervises the implementation of its decisions by the council of ministers.
Choose the appropriate answer:
Correct
The words ‘council of ministers’ and ‘cabinet’ are often used interchangeably though there is a definite distinction between them. They differ from each other in respects of composition, functions, and role.
The Council of Ministers is a bigger body which includes all categories of Ministers. All Ministers and Deputy Ministers are the members of the Council of Ministers.
The Cabinet is a smaller body which consists of a few important senior ministers who are in charge of separate departments. The Cabinet is described as “a wheel within a wheel”. Its the nucleus of the Council of Ministers.
The Cabinet holds the most important position in the Union Government. It exercises all powers on behalf of the Council of Ministers. The policy decisions are taken in the Cabinet. The Cabinet also prepares legislative programmes for the Parliament. It serves as an ordinating body among the various departments of the Central Government.
The Cabinet exercises, in practice, the powers of the council of ministers and thus, acts for the latter. The Council of Ministers functions are determined by the cabinet. The Council of Ministers implements the decisions taken by the cabinet.
The Cabinet directs the council of ministers by taking policy decisions which are binding on all ministers. The Cabinet supervises the implementation of its decisions by the council of ministers.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Central Council of Ministers)
Incorrect
The words ‘council of ministers’ and ‘cabinet’ are often used interchangeably though there is a definite distinction between them. They differ from each other in respects of composition, functions, and role.
The Council of Ministers is a bigger body which includes all categories of Ministers. All Ministers and Deputy Ministers are the members of the Council of Ministers.
The Cabinet is a smaller body which consists of a few important senior ministers who are in charge of separate departments. The Cabinet is described as “a wheel within a wheel”. Its the nucleus of the Council of Ministers.
The Cabinet holds the most important position in the Union Government. It exercises all powers on behalf of the Council of Ministers. The policy decisions are taken in the Cabinet. The Cabinet also prepares legislative programmes for the Parliament. It serves as an ordinating body among the various departments of the Central Government.
The Cabinet exercises, in practice, the powers of the council of ministers and thus, acts for the latter. The Council of Ministers functions are determined by the cabinet. The Council of Ministers implements the decisions taken by the cabinet.
The Cabinet directs the council of ministers by taking policy decisions which are binding on all ministers. The Cabinet supervises the implementation of its decisions by the council of ministers.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Central Council of Ministers)
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Q.14) Which among the following is/are part of Parliamentary privileges enjoyed by the members individually?
- They cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament, whether it is civil cases or criminal cases or preventive detention cases.
- They have freedom of speech in Parliament.
- They can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when Parliament is in session.
Choose the correct answers:
Correct
Parliamentary privileges can be classified into two broad categories:
- those that are enjoyed by each House of Parliament collectively, and
- those that are enjoyed by the members individually.
Individual Privileges
The privileges belonging to the members individually are:
- They cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session. This privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or preventive detention cases.
- They have freedom of speech in Parliament. No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or its committees. This freedom is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of Parliament.
- They are exempted from jury service. They can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when Parliament is in session.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
Parliamentary privileges can be classified into two broad categories:
- those that are enjoyed by each House of Parliament collectively, and
- those that are enjoyed by the members individually.
Individual Privileges
The privileges belonging to the members individually are:
- They cannot be arrested during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session. This privilege is available only in civil cases and not in criminal cases or preventive detention cases.
- They have freedom of speech in Parliament. No member is liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or its committees. This freedom is subject to the provisions of the Constitution and to the rules and standing orders regulating the procedure of Parliament.
- They are exempted from jury service. They can refuse to give evidence and appear as a witness in a case pending in a court when Parliament is in session.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Q.15) Which among the following statements is/are correct about Private Bill?
- Its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government or its resignation.
- Its introduction in the House requires seven days’ notice.
- Its drafting is the responsibility of the member concerned.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
Private Bill
- It is introduced by any member of Parliament other than a minister.
- It reflects the stand of opposition party on public matter. Therefore, its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government or its resignation.
- Its introduction in the House requires one month’s notice. Public bill introduction in the House requires seven days’ notice. Hence, statement (2) is false.
- Drafting of Private Bill is the responsibility of the member concerned. Public Bill is drafted by the concerned department in consultation with the law department.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
Private Bill
- It is introduced by any member of Parliament other than a minister.
- It reflects the stand of opposition party on public matter. Therefore, its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government or its resignation.
- Its introduction in the House requires one month’s notice. Public bill introduction in the House requires seven days’ notice. Hence, statement (2) is false.
- Drafting of Private Bill is the responsibility of the member concerned. Public Bill is drafted by the concerned department in consultation with the law department.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Q.16) The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as
Correct
The speaker of the Lok Sabha can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and let another member speak is called “yielding the floor”.
“Crossing the floor”–Passing between the member addressing the House and the Chair which is considered breach of Parliamentary etiquette.
Source:
- Internet
- Important Parliamentary Terms – https://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/parliamentary_term/important_partliament_term.asp
Incorrect
The speaker of the Lok Sabha can ask a member of the house to stop speaking and let another member speak is called “yielding the floor”.
“Crossing the floor”–Passing between the member addressing the House and the Chair which is considered breach of Parliamentary etiquette.
Source:
- Internet
- Important Parliamentary Terms – https://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/parliamentary_term/important_partliament_term.asp
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Q.17) Consider the following statements:
- Parliament of India is empowered to make laws with every matter that is enumerated in the State List in the national interest.
- To do this, a resolution by Lok Sabha is required supported by two thirds of the members present and voting that is necessary or expedient in the national interest
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
This is a very important question on a very important provision in Constitution of India.
The above provision has been enshrined in the Article 249.
As per this article, the resolution has to be passed by two thirds of the members present and voting that is necessary or expedient in the national interest in Council of States and not in Lok Sabha.
Source:
- Chapter Parliament and Parliamentary System, Laxmikanth
Incorrect
This is a very important question on a very important provision in Constitution of India.
The above provision has been enshrined in the Article 249.
As per this article, the resolution has to be passed by two thirds of the members present and voting that is necessary or expedient in the national interest in Council of States and not in Lok Sabha.
Source:
- Chapter Parliament and Parliamentary System, Laxmikanth
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Q.18) The case of dispute in the Presidential and Vice-Presidential election is referred to
Correct
All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President and Vice-President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. The election of a person as President or Vice-President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete (ie, existence of any vacancy among the members of electoral college). If the election of a person as President or Vice-President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated (i.e., they continue to remain in force).
Source:
- Chapter President, Laxmikanth
- Chapter Vice-President, Laxmikanth
Incorrect
All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President and Vice-President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final. The election of a person as President or Vice-President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete (ie, existence of any vacancy among the members of electoral college). If the election of a person as President or Vice-President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated (i.e., they continue to remain in force).
Source:
- Chapter President, Laxmikanth
- Chapter Vice-President, Laxmikanth
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Q.19) A Minister cannot be elected as a member of which of the following Committees?
- Public Accounts Committee
- Estimates Committee
- Committee on Public Undertakings
Select the correct code:
Correct
A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings.
If a member after his election to the any of the above Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament and Parliamentary Committees)
Incorrect
A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee and Committee on Public Undertakings.
If a member after his election to the any of the above Committee is appointed a Minister, he ceases to be a member of the Committee from the date of such appointment.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament and Parliamentary Committees)
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Q.20) Which among the below committee consist of members from Lok Sabha only?
Correct
(Parliamentary Committees) : : (Consists of)
- Estimates Committee : : 30 members (All from LS only)
- Committee on Empowerment of Women : : 30 members (20 from LS and 10 from RS)
- Public Accounts Committee : : 22 members (15 from LS and 7 from RS)
- Standing committee : : 31 members (21 from LS and 10 from RS)
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament and Parliamentary Committees)
Incorrect
(Parliamentary Committees) : : (Consists of)
- Estimates Committee : : 30 members (All from LS only)
- Committee on Empowerment of Women : : 30 members (20 from LS and 10 from RS)
- Public Accounts Committee : : 22 members (15 from LS and 7 from RS)
- Standing committee : : 31 members (21 from LS and 10 from RS)
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament and Parliamentary Committees)
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Q.21) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Places in News – Country
- Manus Island – Bangladesh
- Kyaukpyu – Myanmar
- Hukitola Island – India
Select the correct code:
Correct
Manus Island – Papua New Guinea
Kyaukpyu – Rakhine, Myanmar
Hukitola Island – Odisha, India
Incorrect
Manus Island – Papua New Guinea
Kyaukpyu – Rakhine, Myanmar
Hukitola Island – Odisha, India
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Q.22) The term ‘Janamsakhis’, is concerned with
Correct
The Janamsakhis, literally birth stories, are writings which profess to be biographies of the first Sikh guru, Guru Nanak. These compositions have been written at various stages after the death of the first guru.
The four Janamsakhis that have survived into the modern era include the Bala, Miharban, Adi and Puratan versions, and each hagiography contradicts the other.
Incorrect
The Janamsakhis, literally birth stories, are writings which profess to be biographies of the first Sikh guru, Guru Nanak. These compositions have been written at various stages after the death of the first guru.
The four Janamsakhis that have survived into the modern era include the Bala, Miharban, Adi and Puratan versions, and each hagiography contradicts the other.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Q.23) ‘ACROSS’ Scheme is associated with
Correct
The scheme pertains to the atmospheric science programs of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). Its objective is to provide reliable weather and climate forecast for betterment of society. It also aims at improving skill of weather and climate forecast through sustained observations, intensive R & D.
Incorrect
The scheme pertains to the atmospheric science programs of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). Its objective is to provide reliable weather and climate forecast for betterment of society. It also aims at improving skill of weather and climate forecast through sustained observations, intensive R & D.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Q.24) Which of the following statements is correct with respect to ‘Vetiver’?
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Q.25) “Byungjin” policy is associated with which of the following countries?
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Q.26) Which of the following statements are correct about International Telecommunication Union (ITU)?
- ITU is the United Nations specialized agency for information and communication technologies
- It allocates global radio spectrum and satellite orbits.
- It is an organization based on public-private partnership, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
Select the correct statements
Correct
The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is an agency of the United Nations (UN) whose purpose is to coordinate telecommunication operations and services throughout the world.
Originally founded in 1865, as the International Telegraph Union, the ITU is the oldest existing international organization. ITU headquarters are in Geneva, Switzerland.
The ITU coordinates the shared global use of the radio spectrum, promotes international cooperation in assigning satellite orbits, works to improve telecommunication infrastructure in the developing world, and assists in the development and coordination of worldwide technical standards.
The organization conducts working parties, study groups and meetings to address current and future issues and to resolve disputes. The ITU organizes and holds an exhibition and forum known as the Global TELECOM every four years.
Another important aspect of the ITU’s mandate is helping emerging countries to establish and develop telecommunication systems of their own. Although the recommendations of the ITU are non-binding, most countries adhere to them in the interest of maintaining an effective international electronic communication environment.
Incorrect
The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) is an agency of the United Nations (UN) whose purpose is to coordinate telecommunication operations and services throughout the world.
Originally founded in 1865, as the International Telegraph Union, the ITU is the oldest existing international organization. ITU headquarters are in Geneva, Switzerland.
The ITU coordinates the shared global use of the radio spectrum, promotes international cooperation in assigning satellite orbits, works to improve telecommunication infrastructure in the developing world, and assists in the development and coordination of worldwide technical standards.
The organization conducts working parties, study groups and meetings to address current and future issues and to resolve disputes. The ITU organizes and holds an exhibition and forum known as the Global TELECOM every four years.
Another important aspect of the ITU’s mandate is helping emerging countries to establish and develop telecommunication systems of their own. Although the recommendations of the ITU are non-binding, most countries adhere to them in the interest of maintaining an effective international electronic communication environment.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Q.27) Consider the following about Rubab:
- It is a flute-like musical instrument originating from central Afghanistan.
- It is a traditional dance form of eastern Indian states of Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha.
- It is a bowed, short-necked string instrument from India as well as Nepal which is used in Hindustani classical music.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Rabab is a lute-like musical instrument originating from central Afghanistan. The rubab is mainly used by Pashtun, Tajik, Turkish, Kashmiri, Baluch, Azerbaijani, and Iranian Kurdish classical musicians.
Rubab is one of the national musical instruments of Afghanistan. It is considered to be one of the Kashmir’s folk music.
The word ‘rabab’ comes from rooh (soul) and bab (expression). It should stir the soul.
Incorrect
Rabab is a lute-like musical instrument originating from central Afghanistan. The rubab is mainly used by Pashtun, Tajik, Turkish, Kashmiri, Baluch, Azerbaijani, and Iranian Kurdish classical musicians.
Rubab is one of the national musical instruments of Afghanistan. It is considered to be one of the Kashmir’s folk music.
The word ‘rabab’ comes from rooh (soul) and bab (expression). It should stir the soul.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Q.28) Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary, second largest stretch of mangrove forests in India and home to the critically endangered white-backed vulture and the long billed vulture, is located in –
Correct
Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary (CWS)
- The Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary (CWS) is a wildlife sanctuary and estuary situated in Andhra Pradesh. It covers an area of 235.7 square kilometers.
- It is the second largest stretch of mangrove forests in India with 24 mangrove tree species and more than 120 bird species.
- It is home to the critically endangered white-backed vulture and the long billed vulture.
Incorrect
Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary (CWS)
- The Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary (CWS) is a wildlife sanctuary and estuary situated in Andhra Pradesh. It covers an area of 235.7 square kilometers.
- It is the second largest stretch of mangrove forests in India with 24 mangrove tree species and more than 120 bird species.
- It is home to the critically endangered white-backed vulture and the long billed vulture.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Q.29) Consider the following statements about RIMES (Regional Integrated Multi-hazard Early Warning System for Asia and Africa)
- It is an international and intergovernmental institution, owned and managed by its Member States, for the generation and application of early warning information
- It provides regional tsunami watch within the framework of Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission of UNESCO (IOC-UNESCO)
Select the correct statements
Correct
The Regional Integrated Multi-Hazard Early Warning System for Africa and Asia (RIMES) is an international and intergovernmental institution, owned and managed by its Member States, for the generation and application of early warning information.
RIMES evolved from the efforts of countries in Africa and Asia, in the aftermath of the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami, to establish a regional early warning system within a multi-hazard framework for the generation and communication of early warning information, and capacity building for preparedness and response to trans-boundary hazards.
RIMES was established on 30 April 2009, and was registered with the United Nations on 1 July 2009.
RIMES operates from its regional early warning center located at the campus of the Asian Institute of Technology in Pathumthani, Thailand.
Aim: RIMES provides regional early warning services and builds capacity of its Member States in the end-to-end early warning of tsunami and hydro-meteorological hazards.
Mission: Building capacity and providing actionable warning information towards forearmed, forewarned and resilient communities.
12 Member States: Bangladesh, Cambodia, Comoros, India, Lao PDR, Maldives, Mongolia, Papua New Guinea, Philippines, Seychelles, Sri Lanka and Timor-Leste.
19 Collaborating Countries: Afghanistan, Armenia, Bhutan, China, Indonesia, Kenya, Madagascar, Mauritius, Mozambique, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, Russian Federation, Somalia, Tanzania, Thailand, Uzbekistan, Vietnam, and Yemen.
RIMES was registered with the United Nations under Article 102 on 1 July 2009, and has been supported since inception by UNESCAP and DANIDA.
Incorrect
The Regional Integrated Multi-Hazard Early Warning System for Africa and Asia (RIMES) is an international and intergovernmental institution, owned and managed by its Member States, for the generation and application of early warning information.
RIMES evolved from the efforts of countries in Africa and Asia, in the aftermath of the 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami, to establish a regional early warning system within a multi-hazard framework for the generation and communication of early warning information, and capacity building for preparedness and response to trans-boundary hazards.
RIMES was established on 30 April 2009, and was registered with the United Nations on 1 July 2009.
RIMES operates from its regional early warning center located at the campus of the Asian Institute of Technology in Pathumthani, Thailand.
Aim: RIMES provides regional early warning services and builds capacity of its Member States in the end-to-end early warning of tsunami and hydro-meteorological hazards.
Mission: Building capacity and providing actionable warning information towards forearmed, forewarned and resilient communities.
12 Member States: Bangladesh, Cambodia, Comoros, India, Lao PDR, Maldives, Mongolia, Papua New Guinea, Philippines, Seychelles, Sri Lanka and Timor-Leste.
19 Collaborating Countries: Afghanistan, Armenia, Bhutan, China, Indonesia, Kenya, Madagascar, Mauritius, Mozambique, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan, Russian Federation, Somalia, Tanzania, Thailand, Uzbekistan, Vietnam, and Yemen.
RIMES was registered with the United Nations under Article 102 on 1 July 2009, and has been supported since inception by UNESCAP and DANIDA.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Q.30) Consider the following statements about Sangai
- It is an endemic and endangered subspecies of brow-antlered deer
- It is the state animal of Mizoram
- Its original natural habitat is the floating marshy grasslands of the Keibul Lamjao National Park
Select the correct statements
Correct
The sangai is an endemic and endangered subspecies of brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur, India. It is also the state animal of Manipur and is under threat from poachers.
Why in news?
- There are less than 260 deer in its natural habitat, the 40 sq. km. Keibul Lamjao national park.
About Sangai
- The sangai is an endemic and endangered subspecies of brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur, India. It is also the state animal of Manipur. Its common English name is Manipur brow-antlered deer or Eld’s deer and the scientific name is , Rucervus eldii eldii.
- The brow-antlered deer or the dancing deer is found in its natural habitat only at Keibul Lamjao National Park over the floating biomass locally called “phumdi” in the south eastern part of Loktak Lake.
- Phumdi is the most important and unique part of the habitat. It is the floating mass of entangled vegetation formed by the accumulation of organic debris and biomass with soil. Its thickness varies from few centimeter to two meters. The humus of phumdi is black in colour and very spongy with large number of pores. It floats with 4/5 part under water.
- IUCN status: Endangered
Incorrect
The sangai is an endemic and endangered subspecies of brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur, India. It is also the state animal of Manipur and is under threat from poachers.
Why in news?
- There are less than 260 deer in its natural habitat, the 40 sq. km. Keibul Lamjao national park.
About Sangai
- The sangai is an endemic and endangered subspecies of brow-antlered deer found only in Manipur, India. It is also the state animal of Manipur. Its common English name is Manipur brow-antlered deer or Eld’s deer and the scientific name is , Rucervus eldii eldii.
- The brow-antlered deer or the dancing deer is found in its natural habitat only at Keibul Lamjao National Park over the floating biomass locally called “phumdi” in the south eastern part of Loktak Lake.
- Phumdi is the most important and unique part of the habitat. It is the floating mass of entangled vegetation formed by the accumulation of organic debris and biomass with soil. Its thickness varies from few centimeter to two meters. The humus of phumdi is black in colour and very spongy with large number of pores. It floats with 4/5 part under water.
- IUCN status: Endangered