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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – HISTORY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 3]

  • IASbaba
  • March 24, 2021
  • 0
IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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For Previous (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE

Hello Friends, 

 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) The questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 7 PM Daily. 

Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner.

In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision.

Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision.

You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end.

Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 7 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


HISTORY [DAY 3]


Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to the Charter Act of 1813:

  1. Continental system by Napoleon, by which the European ports were closed for Britain, was one of the reasons for bringing or introducing this Act.
  2. Christian missionaries were permitted to come to India and preach their religion.
  3. The regulations made by the Councils of Madras, Bombay and Calcutta were now required to be laid before the British Parliament.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I (Britishers’ policy) List – II (Governor General)
1.     The ‘Masterly Inactivity Policy’ John Lawrence
2.     The policy of Ring Fence Warren Hastings
3.     The policy of Proud Reserve Lord Curzon
4.     The forward policy Lord Auckland

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.3) Which of the following was the major objective of Islington Commission 1917?

  1. To make recommendation for Indian currency and Finance.
  2. To examine the nature of relationship between the government and Princely states.
  3. Recommendation for reforms in Public Services in British India.
  4. To make recommendation on the improvement of the urban governance.

Q.4) Consider the following statements with reference to the advent of Europeans in India:

  1. Portuguese Governor Alfonso de Albuquerque initiated the Blue Water Policy (Cartaze system).
  2. The English defeated the Dutch in the Battle of Bedara (1759) which confined Dutch to Malay Archipelago.
  3. Second Carnatic war (1749- 54) was an extension of the Anglo-French rivalry in Europe, Austrian War of Succession.

Which of the following statement given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 3 only

Q.5) With reference to the Vernacular Press Act, consider the following statements:

  1. It provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the vernacular press.
  2. The magistrate’s action was final and no appeal could be made in a court of law

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.6) Consider the following statements about the evolution of the local bodies during the British Rule:

  1. Lord Mayo is called the father of local self-government in India.
  2. The Royal Commission on Decentralization advocated reducing the financial powers of the local bodies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.7) Consider the following with reference to Tipu Sultan’s policies against the British:

  1. Tipu Sultan stopped the export of sandalwood, pepper and cardamom through the ports of his kingdom to Britishers.
  2. He always maintained good relations with the Marathas so as to create a unified front against the British.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.8) Consider the following statements about the land revenue policy of British India:

  1. Mahalwari settlement was introduced in the Punjab, the Central Provinces and parts of North Western Provinces.
  2. In Mahalwari system, village community has been considered as owner of land.
  3. It was introduced by Thomas Munro and Read.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.9) With reference to socio-cultural polices of British India, ‘Lex Loci Act 1850’ was related to –

  1. Forbid trade union activity of coercive or purely political nature and even sympathetic strikes.
  2. Confine the production of cotton to certain location in Bengal and prohibit the same in other area.
  3. Deport ‘undesirable’ and ‘subversive’ foreigners.
  4. Property inheritance right to Hindu converts to Christianity.

Q.10) Consider the following statements with reference to the Indian states during British conquest of India:

  1. Asaf Jah founded the independent state of Hyderabad.
  2. Jat state of Bharatpur was founded by revolting against Bahadur Shah.
  3. Kerala ruler Martand verma organized his army along the Western model.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

Q.11) In the Modern Indian History, the “Calico Act “was related to –

  1. It was a legislation to give complete control over the ports of Calcutta to the Britishers excluding other European powers.
  2. It was a legislation banning the use of printed cotton textiles – chintz – in England.
  3. The legislation banned the small handloom weavers to produce at home and compulsory employed the workers in British spinning wheel cotton Industries.
  4. It gave complete taxation power to Britishers over the Bengal region.

12) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I (Institutions in British India) List – II (Region)
1.     Fort William College Madras
2.     Bethune School Bengal
3.     Sanskrit College Maharashtra

Which of the pairs given above is/are incorrectly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.13) Consider the following statements with respect to Cornwallis:

  1. He had very strong positive opinion about Indian’s character, ability and integrity.
  2. He introduced the Regulation of 1791 that defined the powers of District Magistrates.
  3. He restricted the company employees from carrying out private trade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 only

Q.14) Consider the following statements with respect to civil and criminal Administration of British India:

  1. A law commission was set up under Macaulay for codification of Indian law in 1883.
  2. Warren Hastings separated Administrative and Commercial Functions.
  3. Lord Cornwallis introduced the subordinate civil service in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 only

Q.15) Consider the following statement in context of reasons for decline of Portuguese during British India:

  1. Their religious policy of conversion backfired.
  2. The discovery of Brazil diverted colonizing activities of Portugal to west.
  3. Portuguese started secret methods of earning through clandestine practices of piracy in the sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3  only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.16) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List – I (Books) List – II (Authors)
1.     Essays on Indian Economics Gopal Krishna gokhale
2.     Some Economic aspects of British rule in India G. Subramaiya Ayer
3.     The Land Systems of British India Powell Baden

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2 and 3

Q.17) Consider the following statements with respect to economic impact of British policy in India:

  1. British agrarian policy led to the rise of Absentee landlordism in India.
  2. Loss of traditional livelihood was not accompanied by Industrialization in India.
  3. The first cotton textile mill was set up in Bombay by Cowasjee Nanabhoy in 1853.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 only

Q.18) Consider the following statements about the education policy of British India?

  1. Lord Wellesley established the Fort William College for study of Hindu law and philosophy.
  2. Macaulay committee believed in the downward filtration theory.
  3. Hartog committee suggested for compulsory education at primary level.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.19) Consider the following statements with respect to Anglo Maratha struggles:

  1. Pindaris were the main reasons behind the third Anglo-Maratha war.
  2. Treaty of Wadgaon was signed as a result of first Anglo-Maratha war.
  3. One of the main reasons for the defeat of Marathas was their unstable economic policies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 2 only

Q.20) In the modern Indian history the term “wootz” was related to –

  1. A type of taxation imposed by Mysore state on traders.
  2. A special type of high carbon steel produced in south India.
  3. A type of privilege to trade granted to Portuguese by the Indian rulers.
  4. The soldiers of Hyderabad Nizam to collect the taxes harshly were called Wootz.

Q.21) The ‘State of the World Population 2020’ report is released by which of the following?

  1. Population Action International
  2. Population Division of the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA)
  3. United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA)
  4. World Bank

Q.22) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the Black Panther in its natural habitat?

  1. Kabini Wildlife Sanctuary
  2. Keibul Lamjao National Park
  3. Askot wildlife sanctuary
  4. Netravali Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1 and 4 only

Q.23) With reference to recently launched Green-Ag Project, consider the following statements:

  1. It aims to bring farms under sustainable land and water management.
  2. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the national executing agency of the project.
  3. The Green Climate Fund provides funds for the project.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.24) Consider the following statements about RAISE national programme:

  1. It aims to ensure cleaner and greener office spaces in the country.
  2. It is a joint initiative of Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) and US Agency for International Development’s (USAID).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.25) The term BELYO, recently seen in news is related to

  1. Blockchain platform
  2. Extra-terrestrial object
  3. Unmanned Aerial Vehicle
  4. Satellite Launch Vehicle

Q.26) Consider the following pairs:

Mega Food Park State
1.     Greentech Rajasthan
2.     Zoram Assam
3.     Paithan Maharashtra

Which of the pairs given above are incorrectly matched?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 2 only

Q.27) With reference to Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a statutory body.
  2. It can recall goods or withdraw services that are dangerous, hazardous or unsafe.
  3. It has suo moto powers to inquire or investigate into matters relating to violations of consumer rights or unfair trade practices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.28) Consider the following statements regarding United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC):

  1. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations
  2. It publishes the World Drug Report

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.29) Recently declared Indigenous Mango Heritage Area, Kannapuram is located in which of the following State?

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Karnataka
  3. Kerala
  4. Tamil Nadu

Q.30) Match the following components of Accelerate Vigyan scheme launched recently to strengthen scientific research mechanisms in the country:

Components Deals with
1.     SANGOSHTI A.     Research Internships
2.     VRITIKA B.     Organisation of workshops
3.     KARYASHALA C.     High-End Workshops
4.     SAYONJIKA D.     Catalogue the capacity building activities

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 – D; 2 – C; 3 – A; 4 – B
  2. 1 – B; 2 – C; 3 – A; 4 – D
  3. 1 – D; 2 – A; 3 – C; 4 – B
  4. 1 – B; 2 – A; 3 – C; 4 – D

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based in the passage only.

Passage 1

Erosion of America’s farmland by wind and water has been a problem since settlers first put the prairies and grasslands under the plough in the nineteenth century. By the 1930s, more than 282 million acres of farmland were damaged by erosion. After 40 years of conservation efforts, soil erosion has accelerated due to new demands placed on the land by heavy crop production. In the years ahead, soil erosion and the pollution problems it causes are likely to replace petroleum scarcity as the nation’s most critical natural resource problem.

 

Q.31) As we understand from the passage, today, soil erosion in America

  1. Causes humans to place new demands on the land.
  2. Is worse than it was in the nineteenth century.
  3. Happens so slowly that it is hardly noticed.
  4. Is worse in areas which have a lot of petroleum production.

Passage 2

Marcia says that all of her friends have a cell phone, but Marcia’s mom doesn’t want to buy her one. Marcia’s mom doesn’t want Marcia to play video games either. What is more, the Internet scares her. Marcia’s mom says, “If Marcia has a cell phone, how do we know whom she is talking to? Video games are bad for you. The Internet is dangerous and uncontrolled. It’s like having a gun in the house. We should just ban her from using the computer, and I’m not buying her a cell phone until she is eighteen. This is the only way we can be sure that Marcia is safe.”

Marcia’s dad disagrees with Marcia’s mom. Although he agrees that there are some dangers to it, he likes the Internet, and finds it to be very useful. “The trouble is,” he says, “We just can’t stop Marcia from using the Internet, as this would put her at a disadvantage. What is more, I like video games. I think that, when played in moderation, they are fun. Obviously, it is not good to play them without restraint or self-control. Finally, I think Marcia needs a cell phone. We can’t take these things away.”

 

Q.32) In paragraph 1, Marcia’s mom says, “It’s like having a gun in the house.” She says this in order to

  1. support the idea that the Internet is dangerous
  2. reject the claim that guns can be safe if used responsibly
  3. encourage Marcia’s dad to purchase a gun
  4. explain why the Internet is uncontrolled

 

Q.33) Marcia’s mom can best be described as

  1. ridiculous
  2. careful
  3. cruel
  4. rude

Q.34) A forester wants to plant 44 apples tree, 66 banana trees and 110 mango trees in equal rows (in terms of number of trees). Also, he wants to make distinct rows of tree (i.e. only one type of tree in one row). The number of rows (minimum) that required is

  1. 2
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 11

Q.35) Three times the first of three consecutive odd integers is 3 more than twice the third. What is the third integer?

  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 13
  4. 15

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.


What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise:

Micro Analysis Matrix

Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly

Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total
Number (N)
Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA
N x S

Scale 1: Information meter (1)

Scale 2: Analysis meter (2)

Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3)

Scale 4: Risk meter (4)

Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation:

Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion:

Micro Analysis Matrix- Day 1/ Polity/ Constitutional History

Number of questions not attempted or attempted wrongly

Due to lack of information Due to the inability to apply the concept Due to silly mistake Due to excessive risk-taking Total
Number (N) 3 1 2 2 8
Weightage of scale (s) 1 2 3 4 NA
N x S 3 2 6 8 19

Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale:

  • Information meter < 4
    • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late.
  • Analysis meter < 4
    • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions.
  • Anxiety meter < 3
    • Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident.
  • Risk meter < 8
    • Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind.
  • Total N x S score < 20

Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going.

This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!


Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021 


SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

 

RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

RANK NAME SCORE
1 Soumen Bera 60
2 Gopal Roy 56
2 Chandu Pathipati 56
3 ANUSHRI GAUR 54.72
4 Sofiamalik 54.2
5 PIYUSH MIRJE 53
6 Ravi kumar Singh 52.6
7 Jai 52
8 TANISHA DAS 50
8 Santosh Kumar 50
9 Shubham jain 49.32
10 Ak 48.5
11 Taranpreet kaur 46.7
12 Harendra 46.33
13 Puja Rani 45.34
14 Vikram Nagraj 44.02
15 Veer 44
15 Pallabi Bharali 44
15 RAVI CHANDRA 44
15 PEEYUSH 44
16 Apeksha Agrawal 43.39
16 shivani yadav 43.39
17 Deepika Gupta 42.68
18 Rahul Sarkar 42.04
19 Jai 42
19 Anjali kakkar 42
19 CHANDAN KUMAR 42
19 Mike Alpha 42
19 SHIVAM 42
19 Deepak kumar tripathi 42
20 Dhruv N Patel 41.98
21 Akshata Javral 41.67
22 GIRISH S 41.33
23 Sandip 40.04
24 Rishi Kant 40
24 Vrinda SInghal 40
24 bishal barman 40
24 YB 40
24 Aiswarya V Nair 40
24 Yash 40
25 Kanak 39.38
26 Shraddha Singh 39.33
26 Vineeth 39.33
27 Shubham Kumar 39
28 Manasa Shankar Bhat 38.64
28 Pratibha 38.64
29 Divya 38.02
29 Smaranika 38.02
30 Vrinda Singhal 38
30 Rajeev kumar meena 38
30 SHIVAM 38
30 Mitesh Raj 38
30 Cherry 38

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

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