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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

The 60 Days Training has finally begun:) The questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 7 PM Daily. 

Before any competition, there is a preparatory phase. That phase involves a lot of sessions on strengths and weaknesses. Throughout the preparatory phase, the athletes train in a gradual manner.

In the last phase, just before the actual competition, the training is done so as to sharpen their skills. This training requires complete focus and dedication. In this phase, the athletes do not try anything new or train in a new fashion rather focus on the sharpening of skills, focusing on strength and precision.

Similarly, the upcoming 60 days, is like the last phase (training session), just before the actual competition. Here, the focus should be on sharpening the concepts, consolidating the knowledge base and solidifying the learning with loads and loads of revision.

You will come across many distractions in between in the name of sources and resources (exclusive and inclusive), beware of them. Be alert and objective in selecting your companions in this preparation. Trust your effort and revise more than falling prey to multiple resources and doing nothing in the end.

Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 7 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

POLITY [DAY 1]

Q.1) Which of the following features in the Indian Constitution are borrowed from the British Constitution?

1. The idea of the rule of law
2. Prerogative writs
3. Federation with a strong Centre
4. Office of Governor

Choose the correct option:

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 1 and 4
4. 2 and 3

Q.2) Which among the following Act allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs but created a new body called Board of Control to manage the political affairs of East India Company?

1. Government of India Act of 1919
2. Indian Councils Act of 1909
3. Charter Act of 1813
4. Pitt’s India Act of 1784

Q.3) Which of the following functions are performed by the constitution for the benefit of society?

1. It sets authoritative constraints upon what one may or may not do.
2. It protects minorities from tyranny of the majority.
3. It saves us from ourselves.
4. It specifies who has the power to make decisions in a society.

Choose the correct option:

1. 1 and 4
2. 2 and 4
3. 1, 2 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.4) Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

1. Economic liberty
2. Liberty of thought
3. Liberty of expression
4. Liberty of belief

Q.5) Consider the following statements and identify the incorrect statement:

1. The ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in our Preamble have been taken from the French Revolution.
2. The term ‘liberty’ in our Preamble means ‘license’ to do what one likes.
3. Liberty conceived by the Preamble or fundamental rights is not absolute but qualified.
4. None of the above.

Q.6) Which of the following Act increased the functions of legislative councils and gave them the power of discussing the budget and addressing questions to the executive?

1. Government of India Act, 1915
2. Government of India Act, 1892
3. Government of India Act, 1861
4. Government of India Act, 1858

Q.7) Consider the following statements with regard to Preamble:

1. Some provisions of the Preamble acts as a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.
2. Preamble is a source of power to legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.8) Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

1. Inter State Council (ISC)
2. NITI Aayog
3. National Development Council (NDC)
4. Zonal Councils

Choose correct option:

1. 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.9) The suggestion for framing of the Constitution of India by an elected Constituent Assembly was made by

1. Simon Commissions
2. Government of India Act, 1935
3. Cripps Mission
4. Cabinet Mission

Q.10) Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Constitution of India?

1. The procedure to nominate members to the Upper House was borrowed from Irish Constitution.
2. The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme court was borrowed from the Constitution of Canada.

Choose correct option:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.11) Indian Constitution provides for a blend of Unitary and Federal features. Which of the following is NOT a federal feature of the Indian Constitution?

1. Written Constitution
2. Independent Judiciary
3. Division of powers
4. Emergency provisions

Q.12) People as a collective entity i.e. citizens come into being only through the

1. Laws Enacted by Parliament
2. Basic Constitution
3. Voting
4. Economic equality

Q.13) Which among the following of a democratic country lays down some basic rules about elections?

1. Parliament
2. Election Commission
3. Constitution
4. None of the above

Q.14) Consider the following statements:

1. Since the commencement of the Constitution, India practiced the Universal Adult Franchise.
2. Since its inception, Indian Constitution guaranteed every adult citizen in India above 18, the right to vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.15) Which among the following Constitutional Amendment Act is known as ‘Mini-Constitution’ due to the important and large number of changes made by it in various parts of the Constitution?

1. 7^th Amendment Act
2. 42^nd Amendment Act
3. 44^th Amendment Act
4. 97^th Amendment Act

Q.16) In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles and they are like two wheels of a chariot, one no less than the other’?

1. Minerva Mills case
2. Kesavananda Bharati case
3. Shankari Prasad case
4. Golak Nath case

Q.17) Which of the following were the changes in the position of the Constituent Assembly of India upon passing of the Indian Independence Act of 1947?

1. Assembly became a fully sovereign body.
2. Assembly became the first Parliament of free India.
3. The total strength of the Assembly increased.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.18) Under which of the following Act, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s council was separated for the first time?

1. Charter Act of 1833
2. Charter Act of 1853
3. Government of India Act of 1858
4. Indian Councils Act of 1861

Q.19) Which of the following may result in loss of citizenship of an Indian citizen?

1. If the citizen voluntarily acquires citizenship of another country.
2. If the citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.
3. If the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for five years continuously.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.20) What was the purpose of formation of the Simon Commission in 1927:

1. to review the working of Government of India Act, 1919
2. to give reservation for minorities in constituent assembly
3. to increase the representation of Indian’s in British parliament
4. All of the above

Q.21) Consider the following statements regarding Central Zoo Authority (CZA):

1. It is a statutory body constituted under Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. An expert from the School of Planning and Architecture, Delhi is appointed as a chairperson of the CZA.
3. It identifies endangered species of wild animals for purposes of captive breeding.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) Identify the painting based on the following description.

It is a traditional Indian painting mostly done by women. Cotton wrapped around bamboo stick is used as brush to paint both mythology and natural objects. It belongs to Eastern Indian region.

1. Pattachitra
2. Paitkar Painting
3. Madhubani painting
4. Kalighat Painting

Q.23) Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) Artificial Intelligence-based platform, ASEEM Portal will bridge demand-supply gap of which of the following?

1. Skilled workforce
2. Electricity generated
3. Coal
4. Food grains

Q.25) With reference to Scheme for Promotion of Medical Device Parks, consider the following statements:

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
2. Maximum grant-in-aid for one Medical Device Park will be limited to Rs 1000 crore.
3. It will be implemented by a State Implementing Agency (SIA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 2 only

Q.26) Which of the following statements is correct with respect to ‘eSanjeevani’?

1. It is a web-based comprehensive telemedicine solution.
2. It is an initiative to promote traditional medicines.
3. It is an initiative to promote mechanized agriculture.
4. It is portal to file Income Tax returns.

Q.27) With reference to Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), consider the following statements:

1. MPI is developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and World Bank.
2. All 10 indicators of MPI have equal weightage in calculating the index.
3. A person is multidimensionally poor if she/he is deprived in one half or more of the weighted indicators.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.28) Which of the following port city of Iran occupies a strategic position on the narrow Strait of Hormuz?

1. Bandar-e Jask
2. Chabahar
3. Bandar-e Lengeh
4. Bandar-e Abbas

Q.29) The terms ‘Blackrock, Xerxes, LokiBot’ sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to

1. Exo-planets
2. Crypto-currency
3. Malwares
4. Mini satellites

Q.30) With reference to International Comparison Program (ICP), consider the following statements:

1. It tries to make different countries comparable by calculating net carbon emissions and assess implementation of nationally determined contributions (NDCs).
2. It is managed by the World Bank.
3. NITI Aayog is the National Implementing Agency (NIA) for India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based in the passage only.

Passage 1

The Dravidian language family, consisting of 80 varieties spoken by nearly 220 million people across southern and central India, originated about 4,500 years ago, a study has found. South Asia, reaching from Afghanistan in the west and Bangladesh in the east, is home to at least six hundred languages belonging to six large language families, including Dravidian, Indo-European and Sino-Tibetan.

The Dravidian language family, consisting of about 80 language varieties (both languages and dialects) is today spoken by about 220 million people, mostly in southern and central India, and surrounding countries. The Dravidian language family’s four largest languages — Kannada, Malayalam, Tamil and Telugu — have literary traditions spanning centuries, of which Tamil reaches back the furthest, researchers said. Along with Sanskrit, Tamil is one of the world’s classical languages, but unlike Sanskrit, there is continuity between its classical and modern forms documented in inscriptions, poems, and secular and religious texts and songs. “The study of the Dravidian languages is crucial for understanding prehistory in Eurasia, as they played a significant role in influencing other language groups”

Neither the geographical origin of the Dravidian language nor its exact dispersal through time is known with certainty. The consensus of the research community is that the Dravidians are natives of the Indian subcontinent and were present prior to the arrival of the Indo-Aryans (Indo-European speakers) in India around 3,500 years ago. Researchers said that it is likely that the Dravidian languages were much more widespread to the west in the past than they are today.

Q.31) Which of the following statement is correct as per the passage?

1. South Asia, reaching from Afghanistan in the west and Myanmar in the east, is home to at least six hundred languages.
2. Sanskrit is one of the world’s classical languages but there is no continuity between its classical and modern forms.
3. Kannada is the oldest of all the Dravidian languages.
4. The Dravidian language is spoken in southern and central India only.

Q.32) What is the importance of studying Dravidian languages?

1. It is crucial for understanding prehistory in Eurasia.
2. It helps in knowing the culture of people who spoke Dravidian languages.

Choose the correct code:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of the above

Passage 2

A fundamental principle of constructivist social theory is that people act toward objects, including other actors, on the basis of meaning that the objects have for them. States act differently toward enemies than they do toward friends because enemies are threatening and friends are not. Anarchy and the distribution of power are insufficient to tell us which is which. U.S. military power has a different significance for Canada than for Cuba, despite their similar “structural” positions, just as British missiles have a different significance for the United States than do Soviet missiles. The distribution of power may always affect states’ calculations, but how it does so depends on the intersubjective understandings and expectations, on the “distribution of knowledge,” that constitute their conceptions of self and other. If society “forgets” what a university is, the powers and practices of professor cease to exist; if the United States and Soviet Union decide they are no longer enemies, “the cold war is over.” It is collective meanings that constitute the structures which organize our actions.

Q.33) What seems to be the main idea in the passage?

1. Cold war is easy to end
2. Distribution of power does affect the way states behave towards one another
3. People act towards objects on the basis of what they think about them
4. Anarchy helps us determine our friends and enemies

Q.34) The sum of first five consecutive even numbers A, B, C, D and E is 120. What is the product of A and B?

1. 660
2. 440
3. 380
4. 480

Q.35) How many three digit numbers can be formed with the digits 0,1,2,3 (repetition of digits not allowed)?

1. 16
2. 18
3. 14
4. 20

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

1. Lack of information
2. Lack of analytical ability
3. Silly mistakes
4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Now, we present you the following scales (with weightage of each scale given in the bracket) to micro analyze your preparation on a daily basis and that too subject/ topic wise:

Scale 1: Information meter (1)

Scale 2: Analysis meter (2)

Scale 3: Anxiety meter (3)

Scale 4: Risk meter (4)

Suppose on Day 1, questions have been framed from Polity on the topic of Constitutional History. There are 15 questions and you are able to answer 12 out of which 7 are correct and 5 are incorrect. It means you have scored roughly 11.33 out of 30. Now you have to fill on a daily basis, the following matrix to micro analyze your preparation:

Example: Suppose, the filled up matrix gets reflected in the following fashion:

Based on the total value in this matrix, you have to aim for the following measures on the scale:

• Information meter < 4
  • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, it means that there are serious gaps in your information base in the particular subject/ topic. Please refer to a standard textbook before it’s too late.

• Analysis meter < 4
  • Course Correction: If you are scoring above 4, you need to explore all possible questions in your mind while reading the topic. You should frame questions for your friends and try to trick them by twisting the questions.

• Anxiety meter < 3
  • Course Correction: A score above 3 indicates that you are either too excited or too callous to even read the question. You need to calm down and read the question twice, particularly those questions in which you feel too confident.

• Risk meter < 8
  • Course Correction: You need to curb your risk-taking instincts. Make an only intelligent guess and don’t leave your chance on fate. Don’t let the previous year’s cut off impact your mind.

• Total N x S score < 20

Moreover, IASbaba will give a cut-off figure along with the solutions each day. If your total marks exceed that cut off along with your total N x S score lying below 20, you are on the right track and just need to keep the momentum going.

This exercise will hardly take 5 minutes of your daily time but it might do wonders for you as you will be able to gauge your strengths and limitations better.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021 

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

• Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off and Ranks will be released around 10PM.
• Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

All the Best!

IASbaba

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