For Previous (ARCHIVES) – CLICK HERE

Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

POLITY [DAY 14] 

Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to the Money bills

1. A money bill can be introduced only by a minister.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend the money bill.
3. The President cannot withhold his assent to the bill.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Which of the following constitutional provisions with regard to the enactment of budget is incorrect?

1. Parliament cannot increase a tax.
2. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on demand for grants.
3. Unlike a money bill, a finance bill dealing with taxation can be introduced in Rajya Sabha.
4. No tax shall be levied except by authority of law.

Q.3) Consider the following statements with reference to office of Attorney General for India

1. He is the highest law officer in the country.
2. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. He can be removed in the same manner as a judge of Supreme Court.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.4) According to Constitution, a person shall be disqualified for being elected as a Member of Parliament if

1. He holds an office of profit.
2. He is not a citizen of India.
3. He is found guilty of election offences.
4. He has been punished for practicing untouchability.

Select the correct answer using code below

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 4
4. 3 and 4

Q.5) The Speaker of Lok Sabha can resign from his post by writing to

1. President
2. Vice President
3. Prime Minister
4. Deputy Speaker

Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding the upper house of the Parliament:

1. The representatives of states are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
2. All states are given equal representation in Rajya Sabha.
3. Union Territories are not represented in Rajya Sabha

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. All of the above

Q.7) Which of the following statements is/are correct about Delimitation Commission?

1. The chairman of the commission will always be the Chief Election Commissioner of India.
2. In case of dispute regarding commission’s report, the appeal lies only with the Supreme Court with prior permission from the President of India

Select the correct answer using code below

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.8) Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution empowering Parliament to make laws on a matter in the State List. Consider the following statements about this power of Rajya Sabha:

1. Such a resolution must be passed by an absolute majority.
2. The resolution remains in force indefinitely until the State requests for its withdrawal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.9) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

A B C D

1. 2 3 4 1
2. 2 4 3 1
3. 1 4 3 2
4. 1 3 4 2

Q.10) Which of the following is the most relevant tool to raise the issue of terrorism activities in the Lok Sabha?

1. Calling attention motion
2. No-Day-Yet-Named-Motion
3. Censure motion
4. Short duration discussion

Q.11) Consider the following statements:

1. Prime Minister allocates the ranks and portfolios to the Ministers
2. A person can become a Minister even when he/she is not a Member of Parliament.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) Which of the following functions are performed by the Legislature of India?

1. Financial Function
2. Constituent Function
3. Electoral Function
4. Judicial Function

Select the code from following:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. All of the above

Q.13) Consider the following statements:

1. Every union territory is administered by the President acting through an administrator appointed by him.
2. The establishment of legislative assemblies in the union territories puts some restrictions on the supreme control of the president and Parliament over them.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) Consider the following statements with reference to Attorney General of India:

1. He has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting.
2. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.
3. He is debarred from private legal practice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.15) Which of the following is the deciding authority regarding disqualification arising out of defection?

1. President/Governor in consultation with Election Commission
2. The presiding officer of the House
3. Presiding officer in consultation with Election Commission
4. High Courts in consultation with Election Commission

Q.16) As head of the Union council of ministers, the Prime Minister enjoys which of the following powers?

1. He allocates and reshuffles various portfolios among the ministers.
2. He guides, directs, controls, and coordinates the activities of all the ministers.
3. He can make rules for more convenient transaction of business of the Union government, and for allocation of the said business among the ministers.

Choose correct code:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.17) Which of the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President?

1. A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested.
2. A bill which varies the meaning of the expression ‘agricultural income’ as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income tax.
3. A bill contemplating to increase or diminish the area of any state.

Choose correct answer:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.18) The speaker of LokSabha acts as the ex-officio Chairman of which of the following parliamentary Committees?

1. Business Advisory Committee
2. Committee on Estimates
3. Committee on Ethics
4. Committee on Petitions

Q.19) Consider the following statements about Private bills

1. It is introduced by any member of Lok Sabha other than a minister
2. Its introduction in the House requires seven days’ notice
3. Its rejection by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Q.20) Which of the following statements reinforces the fact of unequal status of Rajya Sabha with Lok Sabha?

1. A Constitutional amendment Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha cannot amend or reject a Money Bill
3. A resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency can be passed only by the Lok Sabha

Choose the correct code

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.21) The 100% natural Pakur Honey, is gathered by tribes in which of the following State?

1. Odisha
2. Jharkhand
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.22) The Coalition for Sustainable Climate Action (CSCA) initiative was launched by which of the following ?

1. International Organization for Sustainable Development (IISD)
2. UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN)
3. International Organization for Sustainable Development (IOSD)
4. International Solar Alliance (ISA)

Q.23) With reference to Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2020, consider the following statements:

1. Child mortality is one of the indicators used in calculating the GHI.
2. India is placed under ‘alarming’ hunger category.
3. India is ranked lowest amongthe SAARC countries in GHI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Q.24) Recently seen in news, the ‘Tamswada Pattern’ is related with

1. Digital village connectivity
2. SHG based Women empowerment
3. Water conservation
4. Open Defecation Free Plus Plus (ODF++)

Q.25) With reference to Asan Conservation Reserve (ACR), consider the following statements:

1. It is Uttarakhand’s first Ramsar Site.
2. It is located near the confluence of two perennial rivers Asan and Ramganga.
3. The endangered Golden Mahseer is found here.

Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Q.26) The Exercise Bongosagar is a bilateral exercise between India and which of the following BIMSTEC country?

1. Myanmar
2. Bangladesh
3. Thailand
4. Srilanka

Q.27) With reference to the International Arctic Science Committee (IASC), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an intergovernmental organization.
2. It coordinated in designing the MOSAiC expedition to study the Arctic climate.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.28) The ‘Every Woman Every Child (EWEC) Movement’ was launched by which of the following?

1. Women for Women International
2. World Health Organisation (WHO)
3. United Nations
4. Beijing Platform for Action

Q.29) The Artsakh region sometimes seen in news is located in which of the following?

1. South Caucasus
2. West Asia
3. Eastern Africa
4. Mesoamerica

Q.30) Which of the following islands of Oceania are NOT a part of Melanesia sub region?

1. Fiji
2. Tonga
3. New Caledonia
4. Caroline
5. Kiribati

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 4 and 5
3. 3, 4 and 5
4. 1, 3 and 4

Q.31) Twenty women can do a work in sixteen days. Sixteen men can complete the same work in fifteen days. What is the ratio between the capacity of a man and a woman?

1. 3 : 4
2. 4 : 3
3. 5 : 3
4. 1 : 2

Q.32) How many seconds will a train 100 m in length, travelling at the rate of 60 km an hour, take to pass another train 75 m long, proceeding in the same direction at the rate of 42 km an hour?

1. 30 seconds
2. 35 seconds
3. 40 seconds
4. 45 seconds

Q.33) The ratio of the speeds of the train and the man is 6:1. The length of the train is 650m and crosses a pole in 1 minute 5 seconds. In how much time will the man cross the 240m long platform?

1. 1 min 24 sec
2. 2 min 30 sec
3. 2 min 24 sec
4. 3 min 20 sec

Study the following 2 (two) passages and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1

Arjun Raj’s film is under fire from the country’s self-appointed moral police. They contend that the film is a violation of the Indian cultural mores and cannot be allowed to influence the Indian psyche. According to them, such films ruin the moral fabric of the nation, which must be protected and defended against such intrusions at all cost, even at the cost of cultural dictatorship.

Q.34) Based on the information in the above passage, it can be inferred that

1. the assumption underlying the moral police’s critique of Fire is that the Indian audience is vulnerable to all types of influence
2. the assumption underlying the moral police’s critique of Fire is that the Indian audience is impressionable and must be protected against ‘immoral’ influences
3. the moral police think it has the sole authority to pass judgement on films screened in India
4. None of the above

Passage 2

The dominant modern belief is that the soundest foundation of peace would be universal prosperity. One may look in vain for historical evidence that the rich have regularly been more peaceful than the poor, but then it can be argued that they have never felt secure against the poor; that their aggressiveness stemmed from fear; and that the situation would be quite different if everybody were rich.

Q.35) It can be inferred from the above passage

1. That a lot of aggression in the world stems from the desire of the haves to defend themselves against the have-nots.
2. Universal prosperity as a fool-proof measure of peace can no longer be accepted.
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

1. Lack of information
2. Lack of analytical ability
3. Silly mistakes
4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

• Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
• Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

RANK LIST: TOP 30 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

All the Best!

IASbaba