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ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days!

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

POLITY [DAY 26] 

Q.1) Consider the following statements about the President’s Rule?

1. A proclamation imposing President’s Rule must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue.
2. With the approval of the Parliament every year, the President’s Rule can be extended for a maximum period of three years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) From the below, identify the correct statement with reference to the legislative powers of Governor:

1. He can dissolve the state legislative assembly.
2. He can appoint any member of the State legislative assembly to preside over its proceedings when the office of the Speaker falls vacant.
3. He can promulgate an ordinance only when the legislative assembly is not in session in case of a bicameral legislature.
4. He nominates only one-third of the members of the state legislative council.

Q.3) With reference to immunities to the President of India and Governor of states, consider the following statements:

1. No proceedings can be started against the President and the Governors in respect of their personal acts during the term of their office.
2. The President and the Governors can be sued after their term of office, for any act done by them in the exercise and performance of their official powers and duties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) With reference to laws enacted by Parliament on the subjects in the State List, consider the following statements:

1. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by the Parliament and not by the legislatures of the concerned states.
2. Such laws enacted after the resolution of Rajya Sabha continue to be in force indefinitely.
3. Such laws enacted during a national emergency will cease to have effect once the emergency has ceased to operate.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.5) Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution lays down that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament if he is so disqualified on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule.
2. Once a member of the House incurs disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, he cannot be permitted to contest again during the term for which he was elected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.6) In the case of Puducherry, the President of India can legislate by making regulations only

1. When the Parliament passes a resolution to that effect
2. When the Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
3. When the Assembly is suspended or dissolved
4. When the Lt. Governor requests him to do so

Q.7) Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions about ‘Power of Governor to grant pardons, etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases’?

1. Article 167
2. Article 164
3. Article 161
4. Article 165

Q.8) With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. A person must prove his majority before he/she is appointed as a Chief Minister.
2. To be appointed as Chief Minister, person must be a member of State Legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.9) With reference to the official language of the States in India, consider the following statements:

1. A State can have more than one official language.
2. States can choose their official language only from the ones enumerated in the Eighth schedule.
3. English is the only link language for communications between various States.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.10) Which of the following is NOT the essential feature of a ‘State’?

1. Well defined territory
2. Homogenous cultural beliefs
3. Sovereignty
4. Population

Q.11) Arrange the following States in decreasing order of Lok Sabha Constituencies they have:

1. West Bengal
2. Maharashtra
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Bihar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
2. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
3. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
4. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1

Q.12) Which of the following is not a correct difference between States and Union Territories (UTs)?

1. The relationship of states with centre is federal while it is unitary for UTs.
2. States share a distribution of power with the Centre, while UTs are under the direct control and administration of the Centre.
3. A governor is a constitutional head of the state, whereas for UTs administrator is constitutional head.
4. None of the above.

Q.13) Consider the following statements:

1. The governor of concerned state with scheduled areas and scheduled tribes is empowered to increase or decrease the area of scheduled areas.
2. The governor of state with scheduled areas has to submit a report to the president regarding the administration of such areas, annually or whenever so required by the president.
3. Each state having scheduled areas has to establish a tribes advisory council to advise on welfare and advancement of the scheduled tribes.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.14) Which of the following conditions is not true for the governor to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President:

1. A state bill that endangers the position of the high court.
2. A state bill that is opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
3. A state bill dealing with compulsory acquisition of property under Article 31A of the Constitution.
4. A bill that originated and passed by the legislative council of the state but was rejected by the state legislative assembly.

Q.15) Consider the following statements with reference to passage of ordinary bill in state legislature with legislative council:

1. The council can detain or delay the bill for a maximum period of three months.
2. The constitution provides for joint sitting of both the houses of state legislature to resolve the disagreement over a bill.
3. If a bill that originated in the council and is transmitted to assembly, is rejected by the assembly, the bill ends and becomes dead.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.16) Consider the following statements with reference to the Chief Minister of a state:

1. The Constitution does not have specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
2. The Constitution does not require that a person must prove his majority in the legislative assembly before he is appointed as the Chief Minister.
3. A person who is not a member of the state legislature cannot be appointed as Chief Minister in any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.17) With reference to the parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary committees scrutinizes the assurances, promises, undertakings etc. given by ministers from time to time and report to the respective house and see whether such implementation has taken place within the minimum time necessary for the purpose?

1. Committee on Government Assurances
2. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
3. Business Advisory Committee
4. Committee on Public Accounts

Q.18) Who among the following are prohibited from receiving any foreign contributions/donations?

1. Government officials
2. Judges
3. Media persons

Choose correct answer:

1. 2 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.19) Consider the following statements about Skill India Mission Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY 3.0):

1. It envisages training of eight lakh candidates over a scheme period of 2020-2021 with an outlay of Rs. 948.90 crore.
2. In this third version, the government wants to focus on matching local skilling requirements with local job opportunities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.20) Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri Matri Vandana Yojana (PMMVY):

1. It is a Maternity Benefit Programme that is implemented in all the districts of the country in accordance with the provision of the National Food Security Act, 2013.
2. It is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant and lactating women of 19 years of age or above for the first live birth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.21) Consider the following statements:

1. European Union is an economic and political union involving 28 European countries.
2. For any country to come out of European Union, it has to negotiate a settlement deal with EU.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.22) A new web portal ‘E-Sampada’ was recently launched by which of the following Ministry?

1. Ministry of Food Processing Industries
2. Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying
3. Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
4. Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

Q.23) Consider the following statements:

1. RNA vaccines carry inactivated pathogen to stimulate an immune response.
2. RNA vaccines are non-infectious.
3. RNA vaccines can be produced more rapidly than conventional vaccines.
4. RNA vaccines require refrigeration as it cannot be stored at room temperature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 4 only

Q.24) Consider the following pairs:

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.25) Which of the following Indian cities are included in the list of UNESCOs world heritage cities under its urban landscape city programme?

1. Gwalior
2. Jaipur
3. Hyderabad
4. Ahmedabad
5. Varanasi

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 5 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1 and 5 only

Q.26) Consider the following statements:

1. Postal Ballot is a type of voting whereby Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot Papers (ETPB) are distributed to electors and returned by post.
2. Representation of the People Act, 1951 has to be amended by the Parliament to extend Postal ballot facility to Non-Resident Indians (NRIs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.27) Which of the following statements regarding the Apex Committee for Implementation of Paris Agreement (AIPA) is/are correct?

1. It is an inter-ministerial Committee headed by Union Minister of Environment.
2. It operates as a National Authority to regulate carbon markets in India under Article 6 of the Paris Agreement.
3. It provides guidance to private sector for aligning their climate actions with national priorities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.28) The South Georgia recently seen in news, is an island in which of the following Oceans?

1. South Pacific Ocean
2. Indian Ocean
3. South Atlantic Ocean
4. Arctic Ocean

Q.29) The Invest India won 2020 United Nations Investment Promotion Award. In this context, consider the following statements regarding Invest India:

1. It is the national investment promotion and facilitation agency.
2. It is a for-profit company registered under the Companies Act, 2013.
3. It partners with multilateral organizations and brings in global best practices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.30) With reference to Prime Minister Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (PM-WANI) ecosystem, consider the following statements:

1. Public Data Offices (PDOs) will establish, maintain, and operate only the WANI compliant Wi-Fi access points to deliver broadband services.
2. A central registry will perform the function of authorization and accounting of the numerous PDOs.
3. There shall be minimum license fee for providing Broadband Internet through these public Wi-Fi networks.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Study the following 2 (two) passages and answer the questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based on the passage only.

Passage 1

A fundamental property of language is that it is slippery and messy and more liquid than solid, a gelatinous mass that changes shape to fit. As Wittgenstein would remind us, “usage has no sharp boundary.” Oftentimes, the only way to determine the meaning of a word is to examine how it is used. This insight is often described as the “meaning is use” doctrine. There are differences between the “meaning is use” doctrine and a dictionary-first theory of meaning. “The dictionary’s careful fixing of words to definitions, like butterflies pinned under glass, can suggest that this is how language works. The definitions can seem to ensure and fix the meaning of words, just as the gold standard can back a country’s currency.” What Wittgenstein found in the circulation of ordinary language, however, was a free-floating currency of meaning. The value of each word arises out of the exchange. The lexicographer abstracts a meaning from that exchange, which is then set within the conventions of the dictionary definition.

Q.31) Which of the following best captures the author’s position in the passage?

1. Dictionary definitions are like ‘gold standards’ — artificial, theoretical and dogmatic. The actual meaning of words is their free-exchange value.
2. Language is already slippery; given this, accounting for ‘meaning in use’ will only exasperate the problem. That is why lexicographers ‘fix’ meanings.
3. Meaning is dynamic; definitions are static. The ‘meaning in use’ theory helps us understand that definitions of words are culled from their meaning in exchange and use and not vice versa.
4. The meaning of words in dictionaries is clear, fixed and less dangerous and ambiguous than the meaning that arises when words are exchanged between people.

Passage 2

A translator of literary works needs a secure hold upon the two languages involved, supported by a good measure of familiarity with the two cultures. For an Indian translating work in an Indian language into English, finding satisfactory equivalents in a generalized western culture of practices and symbols in the original would be less difficult than gaining fluent control of contemporary English. When a westerner works on texts in Indian languages the interpretation of cultural elements will be the major challenge, rather than control over the grammar and essential vocabulary of the language concerned. It is much easier to remedy lapses in the language in a text translated into English than flaws of content. Since it is easier for an Indian to learn the English language than it is for a Briton or American to comprehend Indian culture, translations of Indian texts is better left to Indians.

Q.32) Which of the following statements is correct, according to the passage?

1. While translating, the Indian and the westerner face the same challenges but they have different skill profiles and the former has the advantage.
2. As preserving cultural meanings is the essence of literary translation Indians’ knowledge of the local culture outweighs the initial disadvantage of lower fluency in English.
3. Indian translators should translate Indian texts into English as their work is less likely to pose cultural problems which are harder to address than the quality of language.
4. Westerners might be good at gaining reasonable fluency in new languages, but as understanding the culture reflected in literature is crucial, Indians remain better placed

Q.33) The probability that a leap year selected at random contains either 53 Sundays or 53 Mondays, is

1. 3/7
2. 5/7
3. 1/53
4. 2/27

Q.34) 36 identical chairs must be arranged in rows with the same number of chairs in each row. Each row must contain at least three chairs and there must be at least three rows. A row is parallel to the front of the room. How many different arrangements are possible?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

Q.35) The odds that ‘A’ agrees with the truth are 3:2 and the odds that ‘B’ agrees with the truth are 5:3. In what percent of cases are they likely to agree with each other on an identical point?

1. 47.5%
2. 37.5%
3. 63.5%
4. 52.5%

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

1. Lack of information
2. Lack of analytical ability
3. Silly mistakes
4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter.

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

• Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
• Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

RANK LIST: TOP 25 PERFORMERS

Congratulations to all

All the Best!

IASbaba