IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – ECONOMICS, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 57]

  • IASbaba
  • May 27, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 



Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding IMF –

  1. All member countries of the IMF are members of the United Nations
  2. The value of Special Drawing Right (SDR) is determined by the basket of six currencies.
  3. Indian has 2nd largest share in IMF quota system among the BRICS nations.

Select the correct option –

  1. 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. None of the above

Q.2) Which of the following report is/are published by World Bank?

  1. World Development Report
  2. Global Economic Prospect
  3. World Economic Outlook
  4. Global Financial Stability Report

Select the correct option –

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. All of the above

Q.3) The Instrument in Support of Trade Exchanges (INSTEX) is associated with:

  1. A bilateral trade mechanism established to resolve trade tensions between USA and China
  2. A bilateral currency swap agreement between India and Japan.
  3. A payment facility established under joint efforts of India and Iran
  4. A payment mechanism being setup by the European Union to secure trade with Iran

Q.4) Trade Policy Review (TPR), which is often seen in news, is an important mechanism under which of the following organizations?

  1. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  2. World Economic Forum (WEF)
  3. Economic Cooperation Organization (ECO)
  4. World Trade Organization (WTO)

Q.5) The producer support estimate (PSE), an indicator of the annual monetary value of gross transfers from consumers and taxpayers to agricultural producers, are updated and published annually by –

  1. Food and Agriculture Organization
  2. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
  3. NITI Aayog
  4. Department of Economic Affairs

Q.6) Logistics Performance Index is released by

  1. World Economic Forum
  2. World Bank
  3. United Nations Development Programme
  4. World Trade Organisation

Q.7) With reference to International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) consider on the following statements:

  1. It is a subsidiary organization of United Nations (UNO) and thus works under it.
  2. Its primary objective is to provide international safeguards against any kind of nuclear use.
  3. Signature and ratification of NPT is one of pre conditions for membership in the IAEA.

Select the correct option from given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. None of the above

Q.8) India had recently acceded to the Hong Kong International Convention (HKC), which is associated with –

  1. global standards for safe and environmentally-sound ship recycling
  2. equal right of men and women to the enjoyment of all civil and political rights
  3. governing actions to combat climate change through adaptation and mitigation efforts directed at control of emission of GreenHouse Gases (GHGs)
  4. elimination of racial discrimination and the promotion of understanding among all races

Q.9) Consider the following statement regarding ‘India – Mauritius bilateral relation’ –

  1. The India-Mauritius Comprehensive Economic Cooperation and Partnership Agreement (CECPA) will be the first trade Agreement to be signed by India with a country in Africa.
  2. India is the 1st largest import trading partner of Mauritius.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.10) Consider the following statements with respect to World Customs Organisation (WCO)

  1. It is an United Nations body to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of Customs administrations
  2. It is headquartered in Brussels, Belgium
  3. It is the only international organization with competence in Customs matters

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.11) Consider the following institutions

  1. International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
  2. World Trade Organisation
  3. International Monetary Fund
  4. Asian Development Bank
  5. Asian Infrastructure and Investment Bank

Which of the above are considered as the ‘Bretton Woods Twins’?

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 4 and 5 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.12) Consider the following statements about International Monetary Fund (IMF):

  1. It provides technical assistance and expert advice to members in need.
  2. It is involved in surveillance of monetary policies of member nations.
  3. It directly intervenes in the monetary systems of members, if they are found to tinker with global financial stability.

Choose the correct statements using the codes given below

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1 and 2 only

Q.13) Consider the following statements regarding Special Drawing Rights (SDR):

  1. SDRs are the reserve currency units of the IMF.
  2. The value of one SDR is based on the currency values of US dollar, Euro, Japanese yen, British pound and Renminbi.
  3. SDR basket is reviewed every five years so as to reflect the current status of currencies.
  4. SDR is also the official currency of IMF and can be traded in the forex market.

Choose the correct statements using the codes given below

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q.14) International Monetary Fund (IMF) seeks certain conditions when providing financial resources. Which of the following are those conditions?

  1. Austerity measures
  2. Privatisation
  3. Currency convertibility
  4. Trade restriction

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 3 and 4 only

Q.15) Which of the following has announced to introduce ‘Central Bank Digital Currencies’ framework (CBDC) for policymakers?

  1. World Bank
  2. World Economic Forum
  3. Asian Development Bank
  4. G-20

Q.16) Consider the following statements about Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD):

  1. The Paris based institution (OECD) was established to run the US-financed Marshall Plan post WW-II.
  2. Most of OECD countries are high-income and high-human development countries.
  3. India was admitted into OECD post 1991 financial reforms.

Choose the correct statement/s using the codes given below

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 2 only

Q.17) Consider the following ‘Rounds of Talk’:

  1. Havana Round
  2. Dillon Round
  3. Kennedy Round
  4. Uruguay Round

Above ‘rounds of talk’ are associated with which of the following entities?

  1. World Trade Organisation
  2. International Monetary Fund
  3. General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
  4. Latin American Free Trade Zone

Q.18) Which of the following differences between General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) and World Trade Organization (WTO) are correct?

  1. While GATT rules are confined to trade, rules of WTO include services and aspects of intellectual property along with the goods.
  2. Both are International Organizations based in Geneva.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None of the above

Q.19) Consider the following principles of World Trade Organization (WTO):

  1. Most Favoured Nation: countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners.
  2. National Treatment: Imported and locally-produced goods should be treated equally.

Choose the correct statement/s using the codes given below

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.20) Which of the following mechanisms under the WTO framework is/are considered legal and fair?

  1. Special Safeguard Mechanism
  2. Anti-dumping duties
  3. Countervailing duties
  4. Public stockholding of food

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.21) Consider the following statements about ‘Initiatives towards equality of disabled persons’:

  1. UDID portal have been notified under Right of Person with Disability Act, 2016.
  2. UDID portal will ensure complete digitisation of Certificates of disability.
  3. India has signed United Nation Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) Millisecond Pulsars often seen in news is related to:

  1. Neutron Stars
  2. Arteries related to Lower Body Circulation
  3. Newly found insects
  4. Type of invasive weed

Q.23) Consider the following statements about ‘Lumpy Skin Disease (LSD)’:

  1. It is caused by bacteria which affect cattle.
  2. Human will not be affected by this disease.
  3. There is no treatment available for this disease.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.24) Consider the following statements about ’Hoolock Gibbon’:

  1. This is the only ape found in India.
  2. In India, they are found in Western Ghats.
  3. Eastern Hoolock Gibbon is listed as Endangered under IUCN Red List.

Which of the above given statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.25) Consider the following statements about “Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture (MIDH)”:

  1. It is a central sector scheme focused on holistic growth of horticulture.
  2. National Horticulture Mission is part of this Mission.
  3. APEDA is implementing schemes under this mission.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 3 only

Q.26) Consider the following statements regarding ‘H1-B visa’ –

  1. Person having degree below Bachelor’s degree can’t be given H1-B visa.
  2. Maximum period allowed to work under this Visa in US is 6 years.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. All of the Above
  4. None of the Above

.27) Consider the following statements about ‘Startup India Seed Fund Scheme’:

  1. It has been launched by SIDBI.
  2. The major focus of the scheme is on Tier 1 cities.
  3. Grant upto Rs 5 Crore will be provided to the eligible incubators.

Which of the following statement is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.28) Global Report on Food Crises is released by:

  1. Food and Agriculture Organisation
  2. Global Network Against Food Crises
  3. World Health Organization
  4. United Nations World Food Programme

Q.29) Consider the following statements about ‘Used Oil’:

  1. Expression of Interest (EIO) Scheme aims for financial inclusion of Biofuel generator.
  2. National Policy of Biofuel 2018 supports production of Biofuel from Used Oils.
  3. Use of repeated fried Oil can lead to Alzheimer disease.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q.30) Consider the following statements about ‘Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunization’:

  1. It is an inter-governmental organisation comprising of all countries.
  2. GAVI has observer status at World Health Assembly.
  3. It contrasts with the approach typified by the Alma Ata Declaration, which focuses on the effects of political, social, and cultural systems on health.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.

Terrorism is the deliberate use or threat of violence against civilians by a non-state entity (individual or group) in pursuit of a political or religious goal. Terrorism—or, more precisely, Salafi-Takfiri terrorism of the type perpetrated by ISIS—is now perceived by people around the globe as the leading danger to their national security. A Pew study published in August 2017 found shares of national publics ranging from 62 percent in Ghana to 88 percent in France—and including 74 percent of U.S. respondents as well as 77 percent of Germans, 74 percent of Indonesians, and 66 percent of Indians—saying that ISIS is the top security threat facing their country.

These concerns have large implications. Even among the world’s most advanced democracies, fear of terrorism often intertwined with worries about immigration, particularly from Muslim-majority countries—is a driver of populist nationalism, support for illiberal alternatives, and heightened danger that civil liberties and the rule of law will be eroded. If liberal democracies in Europe, North America, and parts of Asia are especially vulnerable to terrorism, moreover, is that not a warning to other countries pondering liberalization that strengthening rights, freedoms, and legal guarantees could be too risky? Will not a more closed society—one that rejects or curtails such liberal-democratic niceties—be better able to defend itself against the terrorist scourge? At the very least, the relationship between regime types and contemporary trends in terrorism ought to be clearly understood in order to promote better risk analysis and counter-terrorism policy both at home and abroad.

Q.31) According to the passage, what is the driver of popular nationalism?

  1. Fear of terrorism.
  2. Threat of immigration from Muslim majority countries.

Choose the correct code

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. None of the above

Q.32) What is the closest meaning in the dictionary to the word ‘scourge’?

  1. Threat
  2. Dispatch
  3. Slain
  4. Binge

Q.33) At what time between 7 and 8 o’clock will the hands of a clock be in the same straight line but, not together?

  1. 5 min past 8
  2. 5(5/11) min past 7
  3. 5(3/11) min past 7
  4. 5(6/11) min past 7

Q.34) Anchan and Ananya are two colleagues working in ABC Communications, and each of them earned an investible surplus of Rs 1,50,000 during a certain period. While Ananya is a risk-averse person, Anchan prefers to go for higher return opportunities. Ananya uses her entire savings in Public Provident Fund (PPF) and National Saving Certificates (NSC). It is observed that one-third of the savings made by Ananya in PPF is equal to one-half of her savings in NSC. On the other hand, Anchan distributes his investible funds in share market, NSC and PPF. It is observed that his investment in share market exceeds his savings in NSC and PPF by Rs 20,000 and Rs 40,000 respectively. The difference between the amount invested in NSC by Ananya and Anchan is

  1. 10, 000 Rs
  2. 12, 000 Rs
  3. 18, 000 Rs
  4. 25, 000 Rs

Q.35) Find the missing alphabet:

H C ?

Select the correct answer:

  1. D
  2. G
  3. S
  4. K

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 


SOLUTION- Download Here



  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.


All the Best! 



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