IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 48]

  • IASbaba
  • May 17, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 



Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect Loss and Damage (L&D):

  1. Under L&D, rich countries that have historical responsibility for climate change are asked to be liable to the developing countries.
  2. Warsaw International Mechanism (WIM) acknowledges that “loss and damage” associated with the adverse effects of climate change.
  3. Paris Agreement provides a basis for liability of industrialized countries towards developing countries under loss and damage framework.

Which of the following statement given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.2) Consider the following statements about “Montreal Protocol”:

  1. It is the multilateral environmental agreement that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 1000 ozone depleting substances (ODS).
  2. It is till date only UN treaty that is ratified by all UN members.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding “Climate Financing”:

  1. Global Environment Facility (GEF) was established under UNEP’s Rio Earth Summit, 1992.
  2. World Bank serves as Green Climate Fund (GCF)‘s trustee.
  3. Half of the adaption resources must be invested in the most climate vulnerable countries.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency/Economy (CAFE):

  1. It aims to improve fuel efficiency by lowering carbon oxide’s emission.
  2. The Regulation is applicable on Petrol and Diesel variant only.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Consider the following pairs of Conventions and subject it deals with:

Convention : : Subject it deal with

  1. Basel Convention : : Certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides in International Trade
  2. Rotterdam Convention : : Trans boundary Movements of Hazardous Waste and their Disposal
  3. Stockholm Convention : : Persistent Organic Pollutants (POP)

Which of the above pairs are NOT correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.6) Consider the following statements about Jal Jeevan Mission:

  1. This mission has a component regarding grey water management.
  2. Villages with less than 50% of SC/ST population have to provide 10% of capital cost incurred on the project.
  3. It is centralised mission, where plans will be made at state level and then, that will be segregated at village level.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.7) With reference to Ecological Flow, consider the following statements:

  1. It is maximum flow of water needed to maintain ecology naturally.
  2. ISRO through In-WRIS portal is designated authority to submit such data to National Mission for clean Ganga.

Choose correct option from below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.8) The New Delhi Declaration is related to

  1. Desertification
  2. Disaster Management
  3. Terrorism
  4. Trans boundary pollution

Q.9) Which of the following leads to increased Soil Organic Carbon?

  1. Increased Temperature
  2. Contained soil erosion
  3. Elevated level of Soil moisture
  4. Increased salinity and toxicity of soil

Choose the correct answer from the given options:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. All of the above

Q.10) Consider the following about Payment for ecosystem service:

  1. In this model stakeholder are mandated to pay for the benefit derived from the ecosystem.
  2. It is based on the “Polluter Pay Principle”.
  3. It is a sustainable medium of Payment service, where both conservator and beneficiary are in balance.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.11) “Global Future” Project was initiated by:

  1. United Nations Environment Programme
  2. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
  3. World Economic Forum
  4. World Wide Fund for Nature

Q.12) Consider the following statement about International Energy Agency:

  1. IEA is a G20 body for subject related to energy.
  2. A country seeking membership of IEA should also be an OECD country.
  3. India became its member in 2017.

Which of the above given statement are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.13) Consider the following statements regarding “Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN”:

  1. Under it, all type of Bio ethanol projects is provided viability gap funding.
  2. A central agency under Ministry of Agriculture will be the implementation agency.

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) Consider the following statements about energy efficiency in India:

  1. Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC), 2017 has been developed by TERI.
  2. UNNATEE is a draft national energy efficiency policy of Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).
  3. Star Labelling is compulsory in Microwave Ovens.

Choose correct option from below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.15) Consider the following statements about “Charging infrastructure for Electric Vehicles:

  1. Only a licensee contractor can set up public charging infrastructure.
  2. In first phase, only city above 40 lakh population and associated expressway and pathway will be covered.
  3. Charging infrastructure will have open access for electricity from any electricity company.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.16) Consider the following statement regarding India 2000 norms (Bharat Stage):

  1. BS norms are set up by Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under Ministry of Power.
  2. Carbon Oxide, Carbon Mono-oxide, NOx and Particulate matter are covered under it.
  3. BS IV will reduce the Particulate Matter’s level down by 80% from BS IV level.

Which of the above statement is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.17) Which of the following is not a component of KUSUM?

  1. Decentralised ground/ stilt mounted grid connected solar power plants.
  2. Off-grid solar pumps
  3. Solarisation of grid connected electric pumps
  4. Roof-top solar plants

Q.18) Consider the following statements regarding “Hindu Kush Himalaya Assessment”:

  1. It is released by Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC).
  2. Eastern Himalaya glaciers have tended to shrink slower than glaciers in the central or western Himalaya.
  3. In contrast to the Himalayan glaciers, on average, glacier areas in the Karakoram have not changed significantly.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3  only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Q.19) Consider following statements regarding “Sea Level Rise”:

  1. Sea level rise along Indian coast is not uniform.
  2. Glaciers are largest contributor to sea level rise, next to Thermal Expansion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.20) Decarbonizing Transport in India project has been launched by:

  1. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
  2. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  3. Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises
  4. NITI Aayog

Q.21) Consider the following statements with respect to appointment of Chief justice of India:

  1. There is no specific provision in the Constitution for appointing the Chief Justice.
  2. Seniority at the apex court is determined by age.

Which of the following statement given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.22) The main objective of the recently launched Co-WIN App has been to –

  1. To handle minute details for India’s Covid-19 immunization programme.
  2. To co-ordinate the vaccine manufacturing programme in India.
  3. To help the start-ups and MSMEs destroyed due to Covid-19.
  4. To create the database of civil society and NGOs working for Covid-19 relief.

Q.23) Innovators growth platform has been related to:

  1. Reserve Bank of India
  2. SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India)
  3. Security and exchange board of India.
  4. Ministry of corporate affairs

Q.24) Consider the following statements with respect to National bank for financing Infrastructure and development.

  1. NBFID will have both financial as well as developmental objectives.
  2. Initially, central government will own 100% shares which may subsequently be reduced up to 26%.
  3. NBFID may borrow money from: Central government, RBI, scheduled commercial banks, mutual funds, and multilateral institutions like World Bank and Asian Development Bank.

Which of the  statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.25) The scheme DSIR-PRISM has been related with –

  1. To promote and support science-based deep-tech startups & ventures across India.
  2. Development of effective medicine to fight Covid–19 by department of scientific and Industrial research.
  3. To revive the economy by focusing on labour intensive sectors.
  4. To organize the hackathon to find solution for the oxygen deficiency.

Q.26) Consider the following statements with respect to objectives of the Mission NISAR:

  1. Tracking subtle changes in the Earth’s surface,
  2. Spotting warning signs of imminent volcanic eruptions,
  3. Helping to monitor groundwater supplies, and
  4. Tracking the rate at which ice sheets are melting.

Which of the following statements given above are correct?

  1. 2 , 3 and 4 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1 , 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 , 3 and 4

Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to Climate data service portal:

  1. It has been developed by IPCC for better targeting the climatic pattern.
  2. It has user-friendly platforms for climate data management and supply to the users.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.28) ‘Tribal TB Initiative has been the initiative of

  1. Ministry of tribal affairs
  2. Ministry of social justice and empowerment
  3. Ministry of health and family welfare
  4. The Ministryof Development of North Eastern Region

Q.29) The Heart of Asia summit has been related to:

  1. Summit of the nations to draw the plan for development of Afghanistan Post US-withdrawal.
  2. To develop the cultural relation and people to people contact among the Asian nations.
  3. To focus on harnessing the oil based opportunities in west Asia.
  4. It is a platform for sincere and results-oriented regional cooperation by placing Afghanistan at its center.

Q.30) Consider the following statements with respect to Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020:

  1. The Consumer Protection (E-commerce) Rules, 2020 are Advisories and are not mandatory.
  2. The Consumer Protection (E-commerce) Rules, 2020 are notified under the new Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Directions for the following questions:

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.

Passage 1

The object underlying the rules of natural justice “is to prevent miscarriage of justice” and secure “fair play in action” As pointed out earlier the requirement about recording of reasons for its decision by an administrative authority exercising quasi-judicial functions achieves his object by excluding changes of arbitrariness and ensuring a degree of fairness in the process of decision making. Keeping in view the expanding horizon of the principle of natural justice, which governs exercise of power by administrative authorities the rules of natural justice are not embodied rules. The extent of their application depends upon the particularly statutory framework where under jurisdiction has been conferred on the administrative authority. with regard to the exercise of particular power by an administrative authority including exercise of judicial or quasi-judicial functions the legislature, while conferring the said power, may feel that it would not be in the larger public interest that the reasons for the order passed by the administrative authority be recorded in the order and be communicated to the aggrieved party and it may dispense with such a requirement

Q.31) “The rules of the natural justice are not embodies rules” means that these rules

  1. are left deliberately vague
  2. cannot be satisfactorily interpreted
  3. are flexible
  4. cannot be visualised

Passage 2

Organized retail has fuelled new growth categories-like liquid hand wash, breakfast cereals and pet foods in the consumer goods industry, accounting for almost 50% of their sales, said data from market search firm Nielsen. The figures showed some of these new categories got more than 40% of their business from modern retail outlets. The data also suggests how products in these categories reach the neighbourhood kirana stores after they have established themselves in modern trade. While grocers continue to be an important channel, for the new and evolving categories we saw an increased presence of high-end products in modern trade. For example, premium products in laundry detergents, dishwashing, car air fresheners and surface care increased in availability through this format as these products are aimed at affluent consumers who are more likely to ship in supermarket/hypermarket outlets and who are willing to pay more for specialized products.

Q.32) The new growth category products

  1. account for less than 20% of sales in organized retail
  2. reach first the neighbourhood Kirana shop and then the modern retail outlets
  3. reach all the outlets almost at the same time
  4. first become popular in modern trade outlets before reaching Kirana shops

Q.33) The following question is based on the five three digit numbers given below:

574  658   821   945   247

If one is added to the last digit of each of the numbers, in how many numbers thus formed will the last digit be a perfect square (1 is also be a perfect square)?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four

Q.34) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

6, 10, 37, 53, 178, ?

  1. 210
  2. 212
  3. 214
  4. 226

Q.35) The following question consists of a question followed three statements labeled I, II and III. You have to decide whether the data given in the statement(s) is/are sufficient for answering the question. Read all the statements carefully and seek all the possible combinations which could be sufficient for answering the question. A single combination of statements with least number of statements which could be sufficient for answering the question would be your answer.

Among P, Q, R, S and T, Q is the second tallest and S is immediately taller than the shortest. Who among them is in the middle when they stand in the decreasing order of their heights?

  1. T is not the shortest.
  2. R is taller than S but shorter than Q.
  3. P ranks third in height above S when all are arranged in the order of height.

Choose the correct code

  1. Only I and II
  2. Either II only or I and III only
  3. Only II
  4. Only II and III

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 


SOLUTION- Download Here



  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

All the Best! 



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