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IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 38]

  • IASbaba
  • May 4, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 5 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


POLITY [DAY 38] 


Q.1) Article 142 is associated with

  1. Enforcement of orders of Supreme Court
  2. Special Leave Petition of Supreme Court
  3. Advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Court
  4. Review of judgments by Supreme Court

Q.2) In the case of Puducherry, the President of India can legislate by making regulations only

  1. When the Parliament passes a resolution to that effect
  2. When the Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
  3. When the Assembly is suspended or dissolved
  4. When the Lt. Governor requests him to do so

Q.3) Consider the following statements:

  1. Transfer of judges from one High Court to any other High Court is provided under Article 222 of the Constitution
  2. The power of transferring High court judges lies only in the hands of CJI.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Which of the following statements says about Article 143:

  1. President to seek the opinion of Supreme court
  2. The executive power of the State shall be vested in the Governor
  3. There shall be a Comptroller and Auditor General of India
  4. Supreme Court the can take up cases straight instead of going through a lower court

Q.5)  Consider the following statements with reference to National Green tribunal:

  1. NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing the same.
  2. It draws inspiration from India’s constitutional provision of Article 21.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.6) Which the following jurisdiction is/are enjoyed by the High Court:

  1. Original Jurisdiction
  2. Writ Jurisdiction
  3. Appellate Jurisdiction
  4. Advisory Jurisdiction

Select the correct code:

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.7) Consider the following statements:

  1. Contempt of court is defined in the constitution.
  2. The term ‘judicial review’ is not mentioned in the Constitution.
  3. The writ jurisdiction of Supreme court is not wider than High Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.8) Consider the following statements with reference to establishment of High Courts:

  1. The Constitution originally provided for establishment of a common high court for two or more states or two or more states and a union territory.
  2. The territorial jurisdiction of a high court is co-terminus with the territories of concerned states and union territory.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.9) Which of the following statement is/are correct with reference to organisation of High Court?

  1. The Constitution does not specify the strength of a high court.
  2. The Parliament determines the strength of a high court from time to time depending upon the workload.

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.10) Consider the following statements related to the appointment of High Court judges:

  1. The Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by the President after consultation only with the Chief Justice of India.
  2. The other judges of High Court are appointed by the President after consultation only with the Chief Justice of High Court and Governor of the concerned state.
  3. The constitution provides for the mechanism of collegium system of judges.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.11) Consider the following statements with reference to qualification of judges of high court:

  1. He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years
  2. He should have been an advocate of a high court (or high courts in succession) for ten years.
  3. He must be distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.12) Consider the following statements with reference to tenure of judges of high court:

  1. The Constitution has fixed the tenure of a judge of a high court.
  2. The Constitution originally fixed the retirement age of high court judge at 62.

Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.13) Which of the following is not true in regard to the proclamation of Emergency?

  1. The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue
  2. Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority
  3. A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require the parliamentary approval
  4. Further, the President must revoke a proclamation if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation

Q.14) Consider the following statements with reference to appointment of the Judges in Subordinate Courts:

  1. The appointment of district judges in a state is made by the President in consultation with the high court.
  2. The appointment of judges other than the district judges in the judicial service of a state are made by the Governor of the state in consultation with the high court only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.15) Consider the following statements with reference to the qualifications required for the appointment of District Judge:

  1. He should already be in the service of the Central or the state government.
  2. He should have been an advocate or a pleader for seven years.
  3. He should be recommended by the Governor of the state for appointment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.16) Which of the statements given below is/are correct with reference to the Lok Adalats?

  1. They function as a voluntary and conciliatory agency without any statutory backing for its decisions.
  2. It not only deals with the cases pending before a court but also with the disputes at pre-litigation stage.
  3. Every Lok Adalat organized for an area, only consist of serving or retired judicial officers.

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.17) Consider the following statements with reference to the Gram Nyayalayas:

  1. They are established by the High Courts in consultation with the respective Governors of the states.
  2. The presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) of the Gram Nyayalayas is appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court.
  3. They are guided by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and are subject to any rule made by the High Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.18) e-Sewa Kendra at court was recently inaugurated at Tripura High court, which of the following statement is not true with respect to e- Sewa Kendra

  1. It has been created at High courts and district courts of all States.
  2. These centres also extend assistance in e-filing of cases.
  3. It enables litigants to obtain information with respect to case status.
  4. Litigant can also obtain copies of judgments and orders in this kendra.

Q.19) Supreme Court had declared in January 2020 that the right to access the Internet is one of our fundamental rights, under –

  1. Article 21
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 20
  4. Article 16

Q.20) As per recent verdicts of Supreme court of India, Government is liable to follow certain conditions to extend reservation to SC/STs in promotion:

  1. State has to provide proof for the backwardness of the class benefitting from the reservation.
  2. State has to collect quantifiable data showing inadequacy of representation of that class in public employment.
  3. State has to show how reservations in promotions would further administrative efficiency.

Which of the above condition should be fulfilled to expand reservation in promotion?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. All of the Above

Q.21) With reference to Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children Act) 2015, consider the following statements:

  1. Act allows to trail the juveniles aged between 16 and 18 who are in conflict with law as adults for any crimes committed by them.
  2. The nature of the crime and whether the juvenile should be tried as a minor or a child is determined by the district Child Welfare Committee.
  3. Act provided statutory status to Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) The Neptune Declaration recently seen in news is associated with which of the following sector?

  1. Maritime industry
  2. Space sector
  3. Medical Technology
  4. Electronics Manufacturing

Q.23) With reference to difference between a one-person company and sole proprietorship, consider the following statements:

  1.  For one-person company, the person and the company are considered as same legal entities.
  2. In a sole proprietorship set-up the owner has unlimited liability.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.24) The Lalandar [Shatoot] Dam recently seen in news in the context of which of the following country?

  1. Bangladesh
  2. Afghanistan
  3. Bhutan
  4. Pakistan

Q.25) Consider the following statements regarding Carbon Watch App:

  1. The App assesses the carbon footprint of an individual and helps in making people climate-smart citizens.
  2. The App has been launched for the first time in India by the union territory of Chandigarh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.26) Arrange the following cities of India from East to West:

  1. Jabalpur
  2. Raiganj
  3. Jhansi
  4. Rajkot

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
  2. 4 – 3 – 1 – 2
  3. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
  4. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

Q.27) The ‘Nurturing Neighbourhoods Challenge’ is an initiative under which of the following policy/mission?

  1. National Food Security Mission
  2. Neighbourhood First Policy
  3. Smart Cities Mission
  4. New Education Policy

Q.28) With reference to United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF), consider the following statements:

  1. It provides public and private finance work for the poor in the least developing countries (LDCs).
  2. It was established by the United Nations Economic and Social Council.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.29) In which one of the following State the Karlapat Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

  1. Odisha
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Chhattisgarh
  4. Jharkhand

Q.30) Consider the following statements regarding Nai Roshni scheme:

  1. It is a scheme to provide education and skill training to the youth from minority communities.
  2. It is being implemented through Non-Governmental Organisations enrolled under the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.31) Introducing a boy, the girl said “He is the only son of my father’s mother’s only daughter-in-law”. How is the girl related to the boy?

  1. Sister
  2. Cousin
  3. Niece
  4. Aunt

Q.32) Age of mother 10 years ago was 3 times the age of her son. After 10 years, mother’s age will be twice that of his son. Find the ratio of their present ages.

  1. 11:7
  2. 9:5
  3. 7:4
  4. 7:3

Q.33) The average marks of four subjects is 120. If 33 were misread as 13 during the calculation, what will be the correct average?

  1. 125
  2. 130
  3. 132
  4. 135

Q.34) In a family of six persons, L, M, N, F, P, Q, there are two married couples. F is grandmother of L and mother of M.N is wife of M and mother of Q.Q is the grand-daughter of P. How many male members are there in the family?

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. Can’t be determined

Q.35) One year ago, ratio of ages of Harish and Pratap was 5:6 respectively. After 4 years, this ratio becomes 6:7. How old is Pratap?

  1. 25 years
  2. 26 years
  3. 31 years
  4. 35 years

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.


What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!


Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

 

RANK NAME SCORE
1 Taranpreet kaur 60
2 Mansi 56
3 shilpa 55
4 Shubam Singhla 54
5 Ravi kumar Singh 52.68
5 Sankar S 52.67
6 TINKU MITTAL 52
7 Santosh Kumar 50
8 Prabhat sharma 48.02
8 Tarunkumar M N 48
9 Montey 47.33
10 CSK 46.67
11 Vinay 46
12 Thom Yorke 45.3
13 shubham varma 44.7
14 SHRUTHI 44
15 Amisha 43.36
16 Naveen 42.8
17 Gaurav sharma 41.34
18 Rani singh 40.68
18 Priyanshi Goel 40.66
19 Rakshitha 40.4
20 Shruthika 40
21 Varsha kiran 38.72
22 Vinay Tripathi 38
23 Ayaan pathan 37
24 Preeti Sinha 36.65
25 NARAGANI KALYAN 36
25 Sherlock 36

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

 

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