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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

POLITY [DAY 50] 

Q.1) Consider the below statements in regard to inter-state water disputes and select the incorrect statement(s)

1. Constitution of India provides for the adjudication of inter-state water disputes.
2. Inter-State Water Disputes Act (1956) empowers the Central government to establish a river board on the request of the state governments concerned to advise them.
3. Inter-State Water Disputes Act also empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the waters of an inter-state river or river valley.
4. None

Q.2) The central Administration tribunal is concerned with which of the following?

1. Recruitment
2. Promotion
3. Disciplinary matters
4. Recruitment and all service matters

Q.3) Which of the following functions can be taken by National Human Rights Commission?

1. Look into negligence by a public servant in prevention of violation of human rights.
2. By leave of the court, intervene in court proceeding relating to Human Rights.
3. Review factors that inhibit the enjoyment of Human rights and recommend appropriate measures
4. To provide recommendations for effective implementation for international treaties related to human rights.

Select the code from following:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. All of the above

Q.4) NHRC is the protector of Human Rights in India. NHRC is headed by whom of the following?

1. Chief Justice of India
2. Sitting judge of Supreme Court
3. Retired Chief Justice of India
4. An Eminent Jurist

Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding State Human Rights Commission:

1. It has power of civil court and can take cognizance of cases if received within one year of occurrence.
2. It can recommend compensation to victim or prosecution of accused
3. Its recommendations are binding on the state government.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. All of the above

Q.6) Chairperson of State Human Rights Commission (SHRC) can be removed by:

1. Governor
2. President of India
3. Chief Minister of the State
4. Chief Justice of India

Q.7) Central Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are appointed by the president on the recommendations of a nomination committee. Who of the following is not a member of this nomination committee?

1. Prime Minister
2. A Union Minister Nominated by Prime Minister
3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
4. Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha

Q.8) Which of the following statements are NOT correct regarding Central Information Commission?

1. It is a statutory body.
2. It consists of four members with one Chief information Commissioner and three Information Commissioners.
3. It has a jurisdiction over Central Government Bodies, PSU and MNCs working in India.

Select the code from following:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. All of the above

Q.9) Identify the incorrect statement from the following with reference to the qualifications of the members of Central Information Commission:

1. They should be retired judge of Supreme Court
2. They should be person of eminence in public life with experience in field of law, science and technology, governance, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration.
3. They should not be MP/MLA or connected to any political party.
4. They can hold the office till the age of 65 years

Q.10) Consider the following statements regarding the removal of State Chief Information Commissioner and select the incorrect statement/option –

1. Removal is done by governor on grounds of bankruptcy, unsound mind, infirmity of body or mind, sentenced to imprisonment for a crime, or engages in paid employment.
2. He can be removed for proved misbehaviour or incapacity if SC inquiry finds him guilty.
3. He can resign by writing to governor.
4. None

Q.11) Consider the following statements:

1. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is a statutory body formed under the Right to Information Act – 2005
2. CVC was formed on the recommendations of K Santhanam Committee.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) The Central Vigilance Commission is headed by a Chairperson called ‘Central Vigilance Commissioner’. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Central Vigilance Commissioner?

1. He is appointed by the President on the recommendations of a committee consisting of Prime Minister, Home minister and Leader of Opposition of Lok Sabha.
2. Commissioners occupy the position till the age of 65 years or 4 years.
3. They are not eligible for employment under any other central or state government employment after ceasing to hold office.

Select the code from below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1 and 3
4. All of the above

Q.13) Which of the following can be considered as limitations of Central Vigilance Commission?

1. CVC is only an advisory body and government is free to accept or reject it.
2. It deals only with vigilance and disciplinary cases and does not have the power to register criminal cases.
3. CVC cannot direct CBI to initiate inquiries against any officer of the level of Joint Secretary and above on its own.
4. CVC does not have the power to call for any file from CBI or to direct CBI to investigate any case in a particular manner.

Select the code from following:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. All of the above

Q.14) The Central Bureau of investigation (CBI) was established by the resolution of Ministry of Home Affairs in 1963. Which of the following statements regarding CBI are correct?

1. It is a statutory body.
2. It derives its powers from Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
3. It is an independent body and does not come under government’s control.

Select the code from following:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. All of the above

Q.15) Which of the following is NOT a function of CBI?

1. Suo moto investigation in heinous crimes like homicides.
2. Investigating cases of corruption, bribery and misconduct of central government employees
3. Investigating serious crimes, having national and international ramifications, committed by organised gangs of professional criminals
4. It acts as the ‘National Central Bureau’ of Interpol in India.

Q.16) Consider the following statements with reference to Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC)

1. It has the status of a constitutional body.
2. It presents its annual performance report to the President of India.
3. Its members can be suspended or removed by the President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

Q.17) Which of the following provisions are contained in the Representation of People Act, 1950?

1. Delimitation of Constituencies
2. Preparation of electoral rolls
3. Qualifications for membership of Houses of Parliament
4. Qualification of voters

Select the correct code

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.18) Consider the following statements with reference to Central Administrative Tribunal

1. It has been established under Article 323 B of the Constitution.
2. It is guided by the procedure laid down in the Civil Procedure Code of 1908.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.19) According to the amendments introduced in Enemy Property Act, 1968, who among the following are defined as enemy?

1. Legal heirs of enemies even if they are citizens of India
2. Enemies who have changed their nationality
3. Enemy firms which have partners who are Indians

Select the correct code

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.20) Consider the following statements with reference to the National Green Tribunal

1. India is the first country to have a dedicated court for environmental matters.
2. It has Original Jurisdiction over matters related to environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.21) Consider the following statement about Stand-up India Scheme-

1. It was launched by Ministry of MSMEs
2. It facilitates bank loans between Rs 10 lakh and Rs 1 Crore.
3. It does not support Greenfield enterprises.

Choose the correct answer from the given below options-

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Q.22) Consider the following statement regarding Integrated Health Information Platform.

1. It is the next generation highly refined version of Integrated Disease Surveillance Programme (ISP).
2. It is world’s biggest online disease surveillance platform.
3. It is in sync with National Digitial Health Mission.

Choose the correct answer from given below options:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Q.23) Consider the following statements about PM Kisan Scheme :

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme under Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer Welfare.
2. All farmer families are eligible for the scheme.
3. Income support of 6,000/- per year in three equal instalments is provided under the scheme.

Choose the correct answer from given below options:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All of the above

Q.24) Government has recently launched ‘Samarth scheme’ for skill development and capacity building in

1. Clean energy sector
2. Textile sector
3. Construction Sector
4. Artificial intelligence

Q.25) Consider the following statement about S-400 Triumf missile.

1. It is long range air defence system that consists of a surface to air missile system
2. It is resistant to electronic Jamming
3. India has purchased this technology from Israel.

From the following options, choose the correct answer.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. All of the Above

Q.26) Which of the following countries are involved in Supply chain resilience initiative?

1. China
2. Japan
3. India
4. Australia
5. USA

Choose the correct code from the following options: 

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. All of the above

Q.27) Consider the following statements about Global Immunization Agenda 2030 launched recently-

1. It has been launched by World Economic forum to promote awareness about importance of immunisation programme.
2. It will contribute to achieving the UN-mandated Sustainable Development Goals.
3. One of its target is to reduce number of zero dose children by 50%.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.28) Which of the following countries borders ‘Persian Gulf’?

1. Iran
2. Yemen
3. Bahrain
4. Oman
5. Qatar

Choose the correct answer from given options below:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 2, 3 and 5  only
3. 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
4. All of the above

Q.29) Consider the following statements with reference to ‘borrowing powers of states and UTs in India.

1. States can borrow within the territory of India upon the security of consolidated fund of state within limits fixed by State Legislature.
2. Under Article 293, borrowing powers of the States are both territorially and otherwise limited.
3. State can raise loan outside India.

Which of the above statement is / are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3
4. All of the above

Q.30) Consider the following statements about Garima Greh:

1. It is a shelter home for orphans and destitute women.
2. National commission for women will oversee its implementation.
3. These shelters will also provide skill training to connect the community members with livelihood opportunities.

Which of the above given statement is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. All of the above

Q.31) Sanam took a loan of 1,200 RS with a simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid RS 432 as interest at the end of the loan period, what was the rate of interest?

1. 4.6
2. 6
3. 12
4. 18

Q.32) man took a loan of Rs 1200 with simple interest for as many years as the rate of interest. If she paid Rs 432 as interest at the end of loan period, what was the rate of interest?

1. 6%
2. 8%
3. 12%
4. None of these

Q.33) Suresh starts a business with Rs 36,000. After a certain period of time he is joined by Deepak, who invests Rs 27,000. At the end of the year they divide the profit in the ratio of 8:3. For what period did Deepak join Suresh?

1. 7 months
2. 8 months
3. 6 months
4. 5 months

Q.34) If X is the interest on Y and Y is the interest on Z, the rate and time is the same on both the cases. What is the relation between X, Y and Z?

1. XYZ = 1
2. X² = YZ
3. Y² = XZ
4. Z² = XY

Q.35) The owner of a Television shop charges his customer 16% more than the cost price. If a customer paid Rs.17,400 for a Television, then what was the cost price of the television?

1. 13,000
2. 14,000
3. 15,000
4. 16,000

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

1. Lack of information
2. Lack of analytical ability
3. Silly mistakes
4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

• Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
• Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.

All the Best! 

IASbaba