IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Satur)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 13 – CLICK HERE
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding a Constitutional Amendment Bill seeking to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution:
- It must also be ratified by the legislatures of all the states by a simple majority.
- It can be initiated in either House of Parliament and in the state legislature.
Which of the above given statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Please note the question is asking about a bill seeking to amend federal provisions and in such cases the power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies with the Parliament.
The state legislatures cannot initiate any bill or proposal for amending the Constitution except in one case, that is, passing a resolution requesting the Parliament for the creation or abolition of legislative councils in the states. Here also, the Parliament can either approve or disapprove such a resolution or may not take any action on it.
The power of abolition and creation of the State legislative council is vested in Parliament of India as per article 169. To create or to abolish a state legislative council, the state legislative assembly must pass a resolution, which must be supported by majority of the strength of the house and 2/3rd majority of the present and voting.
When a legislative council is created or abolished, the Constitution of India is also changed. However, still, such type of law is NOT considered a Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368.
If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states (not all states) by a simple majority.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Please note the question is asking about a bill seeking to amend federal provisions and in such cases the power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies with the Parliament.
The state legislatures cannot initiate any bill or proposal for amending the Constitution except in one case, that is, passing a resolution requesting the Parliament for the creation or abolition of legislative councils in the states. Here also, the Parliament can either approve or disapprove such a resolution or may not take any action on it.
The power of abolition and creation of the State legislative council is vested in Parliament of India as per article 169. To create or to abolish a state legislative council, the state legislative assembly must pass a resolution, which must be supported by majority of the strength of the house and 2/3rd majority of the present and voting.
When a legislative council is created or abolished, the Constitution of India is also changed. However, still, such type of law is NOT considered a Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368.
If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states (not all states) by a simple majority.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Which of the following provisions can be amended by ‘Special Majority’ of the parliament along with consent of the states?
- Election of the President and its manner.
- Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states
- Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
- Admission or establishment of new states.
- Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.
Choose from the codes given below
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The following provisions can be amended by amended by special majority of the parliament along with consent of the states:
- Election of the President and its manner.
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
3. Supreme Court and high courts.
4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
5. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
6. Representation of states in Parliament.
7. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article
368 itself)
Admission or establishment of new states and amendment to Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The following provisions can be amended by amended by special majority of the parliament along with consent of the states:
- Election of the President and its manner.
2. Extent of the executive power of the Union and the states.
3. Supreme Court and high courts.
4. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states.
5. Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule.
6. Representation of states in Parliament.
7. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure (Article
368 itself)
Admission or establishment of new states and amendment to Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Which of the following provisions can be amended by a simple majority in the Parliament?
- Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
- Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
- Delimitation of constituencies.
- Union territories.
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The following provisions the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
1. Admission or establishment of new states.
2. Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of
existing states.
3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
4. Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the
president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
5. Quorum in Parliament.
6. Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
7. Rules of procedure in Parliament.
8. Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
9. Use of English language in Parliament.
10. Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
11. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
12. Use of official language.
13. Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
14. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
15. Delimitation of constituencies.
16. Union territories.
17. Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
18. Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areasIncorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The following provisions the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368. These provisions include:
1. Admission or establishment of new states.
2. Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of
existing states.
3. Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
4. Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the
president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
5. Quorum in Parliament.
6. Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
7. Rules of procedure in Parliament.
8. Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
9. Use of English language in Parliament.
10. Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
11. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
12. Use of official language.
13. Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
14. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
15. Delimitation of constituencies.
16. Union territories.
17. Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
18. Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following statements:
- If there is a deadlock over the passage of a Constitutional Amendment Bill it is resolved through a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament.
- The Constitution prescribes a time frame of six months within which the state legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them.
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect There is no provision for holding a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament if there is a deadlock over the passage of a Constitutional Amendment Bill. On the other hand, a provision for a joint sitting is made in the case of an ordinary bill.
The Constitution does not prescribe the time frame within which the state
legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them.Also, it is silent on the issue whether the states can withdraw their approval after according the same.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect There is no provision for holding a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament if there is a deadlock over the passage of a Constitutional Amendment Bill. On the other hand, a provision for a joint sitting is made in the case of an ordinary bill.
The Constitution does not prescribe the time frame within which the state
legislatures should ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them.Also, it is silent on the issue whether the states can withdraw their approval after according the same.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Who amongst the following are the members of electoral college for Presidential election in India:
- All the Members of both the Houses of Parliament
- Members of Legislative assemblies of the States
- Elected members of all the Union Territories possessing a Legislative Assembly
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The President of India is indirectly elected with single transferable vote by means of an electoral college consisting:
- Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
- Elected members of the Lok Sabha
- Elected members of each state’s Legislative Assembly
- Elected members of each union territory possessing a Legislative assembly, which includes Delhi and Puducherry only. Jammu & Kashmir is not included.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The President of India is indirectly elected with single transferable vote by means of an electoral college consisting:
- Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
- Elected members of the Lok Sabha
- Elected members of each state’s Legislative Assembly
- Elected members of each union territory possessing a Legislative assembly, which includes Delhi and Puducherry only. Jammu & Kashmir is not included.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Presidential election:
- The total values of the votes of all the MLAs is equal to that of all the MPs.
- All doubts and disputes regarding the election of the President is enquired into
by the Election Commission of India.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
The total value of the votes of all the MLAs is equal to that of all the elected MPs only
which excludes the nominated ones.All doubts and disputes regarding the election of the President is enquired into by the Supreme Court of India considering the high prestige of the office of President of India.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
The total value of the votes of all the MLAs is equal to that of all the elected MPs only
which excludes the nominated ones.All doubts and disputes regarding the election of the President is enquired into by the Supreme Court of India considering the high prestige of the office of President of India.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
The President during his tenure is immune from which of the following?
- Arrest and Imprisonment
- Criminal proceedings
- Civil Proceedings done in his personal capacity
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The President is entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. He enjoys personal
immunity from legal liability for his official acts.During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned.
Exception: A civil proceeding can be instituted against the President during his term of office if the act is done or alleged to be done by him in his personal capacity, whether before or after he entered upon the office of President.
Further, two months prior notice is provided to the President stating the nature of the proceeding, cause of action, the details of the other party including name, description, and place of residence, and the relief claimed by the other party
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
The President is entitled to a number of privileges and immunities. He enjoys personal
immunity from legal liability for his official acts.During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts. He cannot be arrested or imprisoned.
Exception: A civil proceeding can be instituted against the President during his term of office if the act is done or alleged to be done by him in his personal capacity, whether before or after he entered upon the office of President.
Further, two months prior notice is provided to the President stating the nature of the proceeding, cause of action, the details of the other party including name, description, and place of residence, and the relief claimed by the other party
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
The President of India has pardoning powers in which of the following cases?
- In all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court Martial
- In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends
- In all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info regarding pardoning powers of the President
Article 72 of the Indian Constitution confers pardoning powers upon the President. It states that the President has right to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence-
- In all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court Martial
- In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends
- In all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
In simple words, it means that the President has power to forgive the accused. This act of forgiving is called as “pardon”. Once an accused is pardoned, he is free from all the charges and innocent in the eyes of law.
However, the powers of President are always debated. The Supreme Court has therefore laid down provisions for controlling the pardoning powers of the President and has also allowed judicial review of the cases where the accused is pardoned. The Court further said that if any case is pardoned by the President, it is subject to judicial review.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info regarding pardoning powers of the President
Article 72 of the Indian Constitution confers pardoning powers upon the President. It states that the President has right to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence-
- In all cases where the punishment or sentence is by a court Martial
- In all cases where the punishment or sentence is for an offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the Union extends
- In all cases where the sentence is a sentence of death.
In simple words, it means that the President has power to forgive the accused. This act of forgiving is called as “pardon”. Once an accused is pardoned, he is free from all the charges and innocent in the eyes of law.
However, the powers of President are always debated. The Supreme Court has therefore laid down provisions for controlling the pardoning powers of the President and has also allowed judicial review of the cases where the accused is pardoned. The Court further said that if any case is pardoned by the President, it is subject to judicial review.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the impeachment of the President:
- Impeachment charges can be initiated in the Lok Sabha only.
- The nominated members of both Houses of the Parliament take part in the
impeachment proceedings. - No President has been so far impeached from his post.
- The elected members of the legislative assemblies of states and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry take part in the impeachment proceedings.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for violation of the Constitution. However, the Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase violation of the Constitution.
The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days notice should be given to the President.
The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election.
The elected members of the legislative assemblies of states and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the impeachment of the President though they participate in his election.
In the History of the Indian Republic, no Indian President has been so far “impeached” from his post.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for violation of the Constitution. However, the Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase violation of the Constitution.
The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days notice should be given to the President.
The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election.
The elected members of the legislative assemblies of states and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the impeachment of the President though they participate in his election.
In the History of the Indian Republic, no Indian President has been so far “impeached” from his post.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Which of the following Veto powers are available to the President of India?
- Absolute Veto
- Suspensive Veto
- Qualified Veto
- Pocket Veto
Choose from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Types of Veto:
- Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature.
- Suspensive veto, which can be over ridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
- Qualified veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority.
- Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature.
Of the above four, the President of India is vested with three—absolute veto, suspensive veto and pocket veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Types of Veto:
- Absolute veto, that is, withholding of assent to the bill passed by the legislature.
- Suspensive veto, which can be over ridden by the legislature with an ordinary majority.
- Qualified veto, which can be overridden by the legislature with a higher majority.
- Pocket veto, that is, taking no action on the bill passed by the legislature.
Of the above four, the President of India is vested with three—absolute veto, suspensive veto and pocket veto. There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the President’s Rule:
- President’s rule can be extended beyond one year when National Emergency is in operation in whole of India or in the whole or any part of state.
- For the extension of the President’s rule, beyond one year the Supreme Court of India must certify that the general election to the Legislative Assembly of concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Extension of the President’s Rule beyond one year:
– The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced a new provision to put restraint on the power of the parliament to extend a proclamation of President’s Rule beyond one year.
The Act provided that beyond one year the President’s Rule can be extended by six months at a time only when two conditions are fulfilled:
- A Proclamation of National emergency should be in operation in the whole of India, or in the whole or any part of the state
- The Election Commission must certify that the general elections to the legislative assembly of the concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Extension of the President’s Rule beyond one year:
– The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced a new provision to put restraint on the power of the parliament to extend a proclamation of President’s Rule beyond one year.
The Act provided that beyond one year the President’s Rule can be extended by six months at a time only when two conditions are fulfilled:
- A Proclamation of National emergency should be in operation in the whole of India, or in the whole or any part of the state
- The Election Commission must certify that the general elections to the legislative assembly of the concerned state cannot be held on account of difficulties.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the executive powers of
the President?- All executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in his name.
- He can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other
backward classes. - He can preside over an inter-state council to promote centre – state and inter – state
cooperation. - He indirectly administers the Union Territories through administrators appointed by him.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Executive powers and functions of the President:
All executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in his name. He can make rules specifying the manner in which the orders and other instruments made and executed in his name shall be authenticated.
He can make rules for more convenient transaction of business of the Union government, and for allocation of the said business among the ministers.
He appoints the prime minister and the other ministers. They hold office during his pleasure.
He appoints the attorney general of India and determines his remuneration. The attorney general holds office during the pleasure of the President.
He appoints the comptroller and auditor general of India, the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners, the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission, the governors of states, the chairman and members of finance commission, and so on.
He can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other
backward classes.He directly administers the union territories through administrators appointed by him.
He can appoint an inter-state council to promote Centre–state and inter- state cooperation. However, such a council is presided over by the Prime Minister of India.
He can declare any area as scheduled area and has powers with respect to the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Executive powers and functions of the President:
All executive actions of the Government of India are formally taken in his name. He can make rules specifying the manner in which the orders and other instruments made and executed in his name shall be authenticated.
He can make rules for more convenient transaction of business of the Union government, and for allocation of the said business among the ministers.
He appoints the prime minister and the other ministers. They hold office during his pleasure.
He appoints the attorney general of India and determines his remuneration. The attorney general holds office during the pleasure of the President.
He appoints the comptroller and auditor general of India, the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners, the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission, the governors of states, the chairman and members of finance commission, and so on.
He can appoint a commission to investigate into the conditions of SCs, STs and other
backward classes.He directly administers the union territories through administrators appointed by him.
He can appoint an inter-state council to promote Centre–state and inter- state cooperation. However, such a council is presided over by the Prime Minister of India.
He can declare any area as scheduled area and has powers with respect to the administration of scheduled areas and tribal areas.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which of the following can be considered as discretionary powers of the President?
- Appointment of Prime Minister in case of hung assembly
- He can return the ordinary bills passed by the Parliament for reconsideration
- He can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice given to him
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct When no political party or coalition of parties enjoy the majority in Lok Sabha, then the President has discretion in inviting the leader of that party or coalition of parties who in his opinion is able to form a stable government. The President has discretionary power when he exercises suspensive veto ie. when he returns a bill (not money bill) for reconsideration of the parliament. However if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments and presented again to the President, it is obligatory for him to give his assent to the bill.
The President can require the Council of Ministers to reconsider any advice given to him either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. Hence asking to reconsider the advice given to him is an act in his own discretion
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct When no political party or coalition of parties enjoy the majority in Lok Sabha, then the President has discretion in inviting the leader of that party or coalition of parties who in his opinion is able to form a stable government. The President has discretionary power when he exercises suspensive veto ie. when he returns a bill (not money bill) for reconsideration of the parliament. However if the bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without amendments and presented again to the President, it is obligatory for him to give his assent to the bill.
The President can require the Council of Ministers to reconsider any advice given to him either generally or otherwise, and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. Hence asking to reconsider the advice given to him is an act in his own discretion
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
The President of India is an integral part of the Parliament because:
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
According to Article 79 of the Constitution there shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consists of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.
Though the President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament and does not sit in the Parliament to attend its meetings, he is an integral part of the Parliament. This is because a bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the President’s assent.
He also performs certain functions relating to the proceedings of the Parliament, for example, he summons and prorogues both the Houses, dissolves the Lok Sabha, addresses both the Houses, issues ordinances when they are not in session, and so on.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
According to Article 79 of the Constitution there shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consists of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the Council of States and the House of the People.
Though the President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament and does not sit in the Parliament to attend its meetings, he is an integral part of the Parliament. This is because a bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the President’s assent.
He also performs certain functions relating to the proceedings of the Parliament, for example, he summons and prorogues both the Houses, dissolves the Lok Sabha, addresses both the Houses, issues ordinances when they are not in session, and so on.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Ordinance making power of the President:
- The power of the President to legislate by ordinance is considered to be a parallel power of legislation.
- An ordinance can be used to amend the constitution under special circumstances like war.
- Decision of the President to issue an ordinance can be questioned in a court.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances. He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.
An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.
An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is void. Thus, the power of the President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation.
A constitutional amendment cannot be made through the ordinance route. This is because a constitutional amendment requires special majority in both houses of Parliament, unlike an ordinary legislation that can be approved by a simple majority.
Moreover, some amendment may require the approval of half of the states as well.
He can make an ordinance only when he is satisfied that the circumstances exist that
render it necessary for him to take immediate action.In R. C. Cooper v. UOI, the Supreme Court held that the
President’s satisfaction can be questioned in a court on the ground of mala fide.Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Article 123 of the Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances. He can promulgate an ordinance only when both the Houses of Parliament are not in session or when either of the two Houses of Parliament is not in session.
An ordinance can also be issued when only one House is in session because a law can be passed by both the Houses and not by one House alone.
An ordinance made when both the Houses are in session is void. Thus, the power of the President to legislate by ordinance is not a parallel power of legislation.
A constitutional amendment cannot be made through the ordinance route. This is because a constitutional amendment requires special majority in both houses of Parliament, unlike an ordinary legislation that can be approved by a simple majority.
Moreover, some amendment may require the approval of half of the states as well.
He can make an ordinance only when he is satisfied that the circumstances exist that
render it necessary for him to take immediate action.In R. C. Cooper v. UOI, the Supreme Court held that the
President’s satisfaction can be questioned in a court on the ground of mala fide. -
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Which of the following are amendments made by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976:
- Addition of three new words in the Preamble.
- Provided for administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters.
- Empowered the Parliament to make laws to deal with anti-national activities and such laws are to take precedence over Fundamental Rights.
- Gave constitutional protection to publication in a newspaper of true reports of the proceedings of the Parliament and the state legislatures.
- Made the President to declare a national emergency only on the written recommendation of the cabinet.
Select from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Some of the important amendments made by 42nd Amendment Act 1976 were:
- Added three new words (i.e., socialist, secular and integrity) in the Preamble.
- Added Fundamental Duties by the citizens (new Part IV A).
- Made the president bound by the advice of the cabinet.
- Provided for administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters (Added Part XIV A).
- Made the constitutional amendments beyond judicial scrutiny.
- Curtailed the power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts.
- Raised the tenure of Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies from 5 to 6 years.
- Provided that the laws made for the implementation of Directive Principles cannot be declared invalid by the courts on the ground of violation of some Fundamental Rights.
- Empowered the Parliament to make laws to deal with anti-national activities and such laws are to take precedence over Fundamental Rights.
- Added three new Directive Principles viz., equal justice and free legal aid, the participation of workers in the management of industries and protection of the environment, forests, and wildlife.
- Facilitated the proclamation of national emergency in a part of the territory of India.
- Extended the one-time duration of the President’s rule in a state from 6 months to one year.
- Empowered the Centre to deploy its armed forces in any state to deal with a grave situation of law and order.
- Shifted five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list, viz, education, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of justice, constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts.
- Did away with the requirement of quorum in the Parliament and the state legislatures.
- Empowered the Parliament to decide from time to time the rights and privileges of its members and committees.
- Provided for the creation of the All-India Judicial Service.
- Shortened the procedure for disciplinary action by taking away the right of a civil servant to make representation at the second stage after the inquiry (i.e., on the penalty proposed).
Options 4 and 5 were amendments made by 44th Amendment Act 1978
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Some of the important amendments made by 42nd Amendment Act 1976 were:
- Added three new words (i.e., socialist, secular and integrity) in the Preamble.
- Added Fundamental Duties by the citizens (new Part IV A).
- Made the president bound by the advice of the cabinet.
- Provided for administrative tribunals and tribunals for other matters (Added Part XIV A).
- Made the constitutional amendments beyond judicial scrutiny.
- Curtailed the power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and high courts.
- Raised the tenure of Lok Sabha and state legislative assemblies from 5 to 6 years.
- Provided that the laws made for the implementation of Directive Principles cannot be declared invalid by the courts on the ground of violation of some Fundamental Rights.
- Empowered the Parliament to make laws to deal with anti-national activities and such laws are to take precedence over Fundamental Rights.
- Added three new Directive Principles viz., equal justice and free legal aid, the participation of workers in the management of industries and protection of the environment, forests, and wildlife.
- Facilitated the proclamation of national emergency in a part of the territory of India.
- Extended the one-time duration of the President’s rule in a state from 6 months to one year.
- Empowered the Centre to deploy its armed forces in any state to deal with a grave situation of law and order.
- Shifted five subjects from the state list to the concurrent list, viz, education, forests, protection of wild animals and birds, weights and measures and administration of justice, constitution and organisation of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts.
- Did away with the requirement of quorum in the Parliament and the state legislatures.
- Empowered the Parliament to decide from time to time the rights and privileges of its members and committees.
- Provided for the creation of the All-India Judicial Service.
- Shortened the procedure for disciplinary action by taking away the right of a civil servant to make representation at the second stage after the inquiry (i.e., on the penalty proposed).
Options 4 and 5 were amendments made by 44th Amendment Act 1978
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding removal of the Vice President:
- Resolution to remove the Vice President from his post can be introduced in the
Rajya Sabha only. - For removal of Vice President, a resolution must be passed by a two thirds majority of total members in both houses of parliament.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Constitution of India in Article 67(b) about the term of office of the Vice-President mentions that-A Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People; but no resolution for the purpose of this clause shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Therefore, he can be removed from the office before completion of his term. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal. He can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority (i.e., a majority of the total members of the House minus the vacant seats) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha with a simple majority. Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Constitution of India in Article 67(b) about the term of office of the Vice-President mentions that-A Vice President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the Council of States passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People; but no resolution for the purpose of this clause shall be moved unless at least fourteen days notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Therefore, he can be removed from the office before completion of his term. A formal impeachment is not required for his removal. He can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority (i.e., a majority of the total members of the House minus the vacant seats) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha with a simple majority. Notably, no ground has been mentioned in the Constitution for his removal.
- Resolution to remove the Vice President from his post can be introduced in the
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
With reference to the office of Vice-President of India, consider the following statements:
- When he is acting as President, he still performs the function of the Chairman of
the Rajya Sabha. - The Vice-President is elected indirectly by members of an electoral college
consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament.
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Vice President shall act as President in the absence of the President due to death,
resignation, impeachment, or other situations.The Vice-President of India is also ex officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. He ceases to
perform as Chairman of Rajya Sabha while acting as the President.Article 66 of the Indian Constitution states the manner of election of the Vice-President. The Vice-President is elected indirectly by members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of Proportional Representation by means of the Single transferable vote and the voting is by secret ballot.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Vice President shall act as President in the absence of the President due to death,
resignation, impeachment, or other situations.The Vice-President of India is also ex officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. He ceases to
perform as Chairman of Rajya Sabha while acting as the President.Article 66 of the Indian Constitution states the manner of election of the Vice-President. The Vice-President is elected indirectly by members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system of Proportional Representation by means of the Single transferable vote and the voting is by secret ballot.
- When he is acting as President, he still performs the function of the Chairman of
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Vice President of India:
- The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by the Judge of Supreme Court.
- The Vice-President holds office for a term of six years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
- He is an eligible for re-election to that office for any number of terms.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Before entering upon his office, the Vice-President has to make and subscribe
to an oath or affirmation.The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by the President or some person appointed in that behalf by him.
The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President.
The Vice-President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. He is also eligible for re-election to that office. He
may be elected for any number of terms.Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Before entering upon his office, the Vice-President has to make and subscribe
to an oath or affirmation.The oath of office to the Vice-President is administered by the President or some person appointed in that behalf by him.
The Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office. However, he can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the President.
The Vice-President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge. He is also eligible for re-election to that office. He
may be elected for any number of terms. -
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
The President addresses both houses of the parliament in which of the following occasions?
- At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the House of
the People. - At the commencement of the first session of each financial year.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Constitution gives the President the power to address either House or a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
Article 87 provides two special occasions on which the President addresses a joint sitting. The first is to address the opening session of a new legislature after a general election.
The second is to address the first sitting of Parliament each year not financial year. A session of a new or continuing legislature cannot begin without fulfilling this requirement.
When the Constitution came into force, the President was required to address each session of Parliament.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The Constitution gives the President the power to address either House or a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
Article 87 provides two special occasions on which the President addresses a joint sitting. The first is to address the opening session of a new legislature after a general election.
The second is to address the first sitting of Parliament each year not financial year. A session of a new or continuing legislature cannot begin without fulfilling this requirement.
When the Constitution came into force, the President was required to address each session of Parliament.
- At the commencement of the first session after each general election to the House of
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
With reference to Anti-Defection Law in India, consider the following statements:
- It was enacted as per the suggestions of the Thungon Committee
- There is a timeframe within which the presiding officer of the house has to decide on the disqualification
- The decision of the presiding officer is subject to judicial review
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Thungon Committee is related to Panchayat Raj Institutions. The Anti-Defection law was enacted by Rajiv Gandhi Government in the absence of recommendations by any committee regarding Anti-Defection Law. The Anti-Defection Law does not specify a timeframe within which the presiding officer has to decide on a disqualification plea. The decision of the presiding officer of the house is subject to Judicial Review. The law initially stated that the decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to judicial review. This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court in Kihoto holohan Case, 1992, thereby allowing appeal against the Presiding Officer’s decision in the High Court and Supreme Court Context – The Calcutta High Court gave West Bengal Assembly Speaker a deadline to pass an order in the defection case
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct Thungon Committee is related to Panchayat Raj Institutions. The Anti-Defection law was enacted by Rajiv Gandhi Government in the absence of recommendations by any committee regarding Anti-Defection Law. The Anti-Defection Law does not specify a timeframe within which the presiding officer has to decide on a disqualification plea. The decision of the presiding officer of the house is subject to Judicial Review. The law initially stated that the decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to judicial review. This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court in Kihoto holohan Case, 1992, thereby allowing appeal against the Presiding Officer’s decision in the High Court and Supreme Court Context – The Calcutta High Court gave West Bengal Assembly Speaker a deadline to pass an order in the defection case
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Which Central Asian Republic borders all the other Central Asian Republics given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Uzbekistan is bordered by Kazakhstan to the northwest and north, Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan to the east and southeast, Afghanistan to the south, and Turkmenistan to the southwest.
Context – India’s Foreign minister was in Kyrgyzstan on a bilateral visit
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Uzbekistan is bordered by Kazakhstan to the northwest and north, Kyrgyzstan and Tajikistan to the east and southeast, Afghanistan to the south, and Turkmenistan to the southwest.
Context – India’s Foreign minister was in Kyrgyzstan on a bilateral visit
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘United Nations Human Rights Council’:
- The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is an inter-governmental organization whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world
- Asia-Pacific states are the single largest group among the members of UNHRC
Select the correct statements:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is an inter-governmental organization whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world. The Council has 47 members elected for staggered three-year terms on a regional group basis. The seats are distributed along the following lines: 13 for the African Group
13 for the Asia-Pacific Group
6 for the Eastern European Group
8 for the Latin American and Caribbean Group 7 for the Western European and Others Group. So, Asia-Pacific states are the joint largest grouping within UNHRC.
Context – India was re-elected to the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) for the 2022-24 term.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is an inter-governmental organization whose mission is to promote and protect human rights around the world. The Council has 47 members elected for staggered three-year terms on a regional group basis. The seats are distributed along the following lines: 13 for the African Group
13 for the Asia-Pacific Group
6 for the Eastern European Group
8 for the Latin American and Caribbean Group 7 for the Western European and Others Group. So, Asia-Pacific states are the joint largest grouping within UNHRC.
Context – India was re-elected to the United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) for the 2022-24 term.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following:
- Remittances
- Non-Resident Indian deposits
- Invisible trade
- Investment income
- Banking capital
Which of the following mentioned above form a part of current account component in balance of payments?
Correct
Solution (c)
Remittances, Invisible trade, Investment income are a part of current account component of BoP. Whereas, Banking capital and Non – Resident Indian deposits are a part of capital account component.
Context – Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) indicated towards fundamental shifts in the capital account convertibility framework in India.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Remittances, Invisible trade, Investment income are a part of current account component of BoP. Whereas, Banking capital and Non – Resident Indian deposits are a part of capital account component.
Context – Deputy Governor of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) indicated towards fundamental shifts in the capital account convertibility framework in India.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Hypersonic Missiles’:
- Hypersonic cruise missiles travel at twice the speed of sound
- Hypersonic cruise missiles are harder to detect compared to Inter-continental cruise missiles
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Hypersonic speeds are those that exceed five times the speed of sound, that is, anything that can move at speeds of Mach 5 or above, which means at least at 1.6 km per second. Hypersonic missile packs the manoeuvrability of much slower subsonic cruise missiles and the hypersonic speed greater than or equal to ICBMs, making it harder to track and defend against Context – China reportedly tested a nuclear-capable hypersonic glide vehicle that circled the globe before speeding towards its target
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Hypersonic speeds are those that exceed five times the speed of sound, that is, anything that can move at speeds of Mach 5 or above, which means at least at 1.6 km per second. Hypersonic missile packs the manoeuvrability of much slower subsonic cruise missiles and the hypersonic speed greater than or equal to ICBMs, making it harder to track and defend against Context – China reportedly tested a nuclear-capable hypersonic glide vehicle that circled the globe before speeding towards its target
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A can do a work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days, then the fraction of the work that is completed is
Correct
Solution (c)
A’s 1 day’s work = 1/15
B’s 1 day’s work = 1/20
(A + B)’s 1 day’s work = (1/15+1/20)= 7/60
(A + B)’s 4 day’s work = (7x 4)/60 = 7/15
Hence, Option(c) is the right answer
Incorrect
Solution (c)
A’s 1 day’s work = 1/15
B’s 1 day’s work = 1/20
(A + B)’s 1 day’s work = (1/15+1/20)= 7/60
(A + B)’s 4 day’s work = (7x 4)/60 = 7/15
Hence, Option(c) is the right answer
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A can do a piece of work in 4 hours; B and C together can do it in 3 hours, while A and C together can do it in 4 hours. How long will B alone take to do it ?
Correct
Solution (b)
A’s 1 hour’s work = 1/4
(B + C)’s 1 hour’s work = 1/3
(A + C)’s 1 hour’s work = 1/2
(A + B + C)’s 1 hour’s work = (1/4+1/3) = 7/12
B’s 1 hour’s work = ((A+B+C) – (A+C)) = (7/12-1/2) = 1/12
Therefore, B alone will take 12 hours to do the work.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
A’s 1 hour’s work = 1/4
(B + C)’s 1 hour’s work = 1/3
(A + C)’s 1 hour’s work = 1/2
(A + B + C)’s 1 hour’s work = (1/4+1/3) = 7/12
B’s 1 hour’s work = ((A+B+C) – (A+C)) = (7/12-1/2) = 1/12
Therefore, B alone will take 12 hours to do the work.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
A does 75% of a work in15 days. He then calls in B and they together finish the remaining work in 2.5 days. How long B alone would take to do the whole work?
Correct
Solution (c)
75 % in terms of fraction is 3/4.
So, ¾ of the work is done in 15 days
Whole work can be done by A in (15×4/3) = 20 days.
Now, (1 -3/4) i.e.,1/4 work is done by A and B in 2.5 days.
Whole work will be done by A and B in (4 x 2.5) = 10 days.
A’s 1 day’s work = 1/20
(A + B)’s 1 day’s work = 1/ 10
Therefore B’s 1 day’s work = ((A+B) – (A) = (1/10-1/20) = (2-1/20) = 1/20.
So, B alone would do the work in 20 days
Incorrect
Solution (c)
75 % in terms of fraction is 3/4.
So, ¾ of the work is done in 15 days
Whole work can be done by A in (15×4/3) = 20 days.
Now, (1 -3/4) i.e.,1/4 work is done by A and B in 2.5 days.
Whole work will be done by A and B in (4 x 2.5) = 10 days.
A’s 1 day’s work = 1/20
(A + B)’s 1 day’s work = 1/ 10
Therefore B’s 1 day’s work = ((A+B) – (A) = (1/10-1/20) = (2-1/20) = 1/20.
So, B alone would do the work in 20 days
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A, B and C can do a piece of work in 4, 6 and 15 days respectively. In how many days can they finish if they work together?
Correct
Solution (b)
A’s 1 day work = 1/4
B’s 1 day work = 1/6
C’s 1 day work = 1/15
If they work together = ( (1/4) + (1/6) + (1/15)) = ( (15+10+4)/60))= 29/60 days
Incorrect
Solution (b)
A’s 1 day work = 1/4
B’s 1 day work = 1/6
C’s 1 day work = 1/15
If they work together = ( (1/4) + (1/6) + (1/15)) = ( (15+10+4)/60))= 29/60 days
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow the passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only:
The claims advanced here may be condensed into two assertions: first, that visual culture is what images, acts of seeing, and attendant intellectual, emotional, and perceptual sensibilities do to build, maintain, or transform the worlds in which people live. And second, that the study of visual culture is the analysis and interpretation of images and the ways of seeing or gazes that configure the agents, practices, conceptualities, and institutions that put images to work.
Accordingly, the study of visual culture should be characterized by several concerns. First, scholars of visual culture need to examine any and all imagery – high and low, art and non-art. They must not restrict themselves to objects of a particular beauty or aesthetic value. Indeed, any kind of imagery may be found to offer up evidence of the visual construction of reality.
Second, the study of visual culture must scrutinize visual practice as much as images themselves, asking what images do when they are put to use. If scholars engaged in this enterprise inquire what makes an image beautiful or why this image or that constitutes a masterpiece or a work of genius, they should do so with the purpose of investigating an artist’s or a work’s contribution to the experience of beauty, taste, value, or genius. No amount of social analysis can account fully for the existence of Michelangelo or Leonardo. They were unique creators of images that changed the way their contemporaries thought and felt and have continued to shape the history of art, artists, museums, feeling, and aesthetic value. But study of the critical, artistic, and popular reception of works by such artists as Michelangelo and Leonardo can shed important light on the meaning of these artists and their works for many different people. And the history of meaning-making has a great deal to do with how scholars as well as lay audiences today understand these artists and their achievements.
Third, scholars studying visual culture might properly focus their interpretative work on life worlds by examining images, practices, visual technologies, taste, and artistic style as constitutive of social relations. The task is to understand how artifacts contribute to the construction of a world.
Fourth, scholars may learn a great deal when they scrutinize the constituents of vision, that is, the structures of perception as a physiological process as well as the epistemological frameworks informing a system of visual representation.
Q.30) All of the following statements may be considered valid inferences from the passage, except:
Correct
Solution (b)
The passage does not mention ‘institutional structures’ or talk about these being essential to the study of visual culture.
From the line, “…task is to understand how artifacts contribute to the construction of a world”, we understand a is true.
Option c is true, based on the line “scholars may learn a great deal when they scrutinize the constituents of vision, that is, the structures of perception as a physiological process as well as the epistemological frameworks informing a system of visual representation”.
Option d is also true, based on the first paragraph.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The passage does not mention ‘institutional structures’ or talk about these being essential to the study of visual culture.
From the line, “…task is to understand how artifacts contribute to the construction of a world”, we understand a is true.
Option c is true, based on the line “scholars may learn a great deal when they scrutinize the constituents of vision, that is, the structures of perception as a physiological process as well as the epistemological frameworks informing a system of visual representation”.
Option d is also true, based on the first paragraph.
All the Best
IASbaba