IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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Hello Friends
The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Saturday)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 44– CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Which of the following is not an approach in Human Geography
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Areal differentiation is one of the perspectives of human geography in which importance is given to the uniqueness of the geographical area rather than the standard model creation. The first technical word ” Areal Differentiation” was mentioned by Hartshorne in his book ” Nature of geography”.
Spatial organization is the way a group or phenomenon is arranged on the surface of the Earth. Geographers like to split things into functional regions, or areas defined by business and economic activities around a focal point or node
The quantitative revolution (QR) was a paradigm shift that sought to develop a more rigorous and systematic methodology for the discipline of geography. It came as a response to the inadequacy of regional geography to explain general spatial dynamics.
Quantitative Revolution is the approach that is not used in Human Geography.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Areal differentiation is one of the perspectives of human geography in which importance is given to the uniqueness of the geographical area rather than the standard model creation. The first technical word ” Areal Differentiation” was mentioned by Hartshorne in his book ” Nature of geography”.
Spatial organization is the way a group or phenomenon is arranged on the surface of the Earth. Geographers like to split things into functional regions, or areas defined by business and economic activities around a focal point or node
The quantitative revolution (QR) was a paradigm shift that sought to develop a more rigorous and systematic methodology for the discipline of geography. It came as a response to the inadequacy of regional geography to explain general spatial dynamics.
Quantitative Revolution is the approach that is not used in Human Geography.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following pairs:
- Environmental Determinism: Human beings can inhibit nature by obeying it, as possibilities can be created within limits which do not damage the environment.
- Possibilism: It says that although the natural environment places certain constraints and limitations on human life, culture is determined independently of nature by human social conditions.
- Neo Determinism: The surrounding environment is the main deciding factor in human behavior, and differences in human behavior stem from differences in its environment.
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Environmental Determinism: The surrounding environment is the main deciding factor in human behavior, and differences in human behavior stem from differences in its environment.
Possibilism: Geographical possibilism is a school of thought in cultural geography that says that although the natural environment places certain constraints and limitations on human life, culture is determined independently of nature by human social conditions.
Neo Determinism: The concept shows that neither is there a situation of absolute necessity (i.e. environmental determinism) and nor is there a condition of absolute freedom (i.e. possibilism).
Human beings can inhibit nature by obeying it, as possibilities can be created within limits which do not damage the environment.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Environmental Determinism: The surrounding environment is the main deciding factor in human behavior, and differences in human behavior stem from differences in its environment.
Possibilism: Geographical possibilism is a school of thought in cultural geography that says that although the natural environment places certain constraints and limitations on human life, culture is determined independently of nature by human social conditions.
Neo Determinism: The concept shows that neither is there a situation of absolute necessity (i.e. environmental determinism) and nor is there a condition of absolute freedom (i.e. possibilism).
Human beings can inhibit nature by obeying it, as possibilities can be created within limits which do not damage the environment.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(PVTGs) in India:- In India, tribal population makes up for 10.6% of the total population.
- Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups are categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs.
- Among the 85 listed PVTG’s the highest number are found in Odisha.
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs): PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups. They have declining or stagnant population, low level of literacy, pre-agricultural level of technology and are economically backward.
They generally inhabit remote localities having poor infrastructure and administrative support.
In India, tribal population makes up for 8.6% of the total population.
In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as PVTGs.
In this context, in 1975, the Government of India initiated to identify the most vulnerable tribal groups as a separate category called PVTGs and declared 52 such groups, while in 1993 an additional 23 groups were added to the category, making it a total of 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes.
PVTGs are categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs.
Among the 75 listed PVTG’s the highest number are found in Odisha.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs): PVTGs are more vulnerable among the tribal groups. They have declining or stagnant population, low level of literacy, pre-agricultural level of technology and are economically backward.
They generally inhabit remote localities having poor infrastructure and administrative support.
In India, tribal population makes up for 8.6% of the total population.
In 1973, the Dhebar Commission created Primitive Tribal Groups (PTGs) as a separate category, who are less developed among the tribal groups. In 2006, the Government of India renamed the PTGs as PVTGs.
In this context, in 1975, the Government of India initiated to identify the most vulnerable tribal groups as a separate category called PVTGs and declared 52 such groups, while in 1993 an additional 23 groups were added to the category, making it a total of 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes.
PVTGs are categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs.
Among the 75 listed PVTG’s the highest number are found in Odisha.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Which of the following agencies releases the State of World Population Report?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The State of World Population report is United Nations Population Fund’s annual flagship publication. It has been published yearly since 1978.
It shines a light on emerging issues in the field of sexual and reproductive health and rights, bringing them into the mainstream and exploring the challenges and opportunities they present for international development.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
The State of World Population report is United Nations Population Fund’s annual flagship publication. It has been published yearly since 1978.
It shines a light on emerging issues in the field of sexual and reproductive health and rights, bringing them into the mainstream and exploring the challenges and opportunities they present for international development.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Malthusian Theory of Population:
- This theory states that the food supply increases in arithmetical progression whereas the population increases in geometrical progression.
- The theory underestimates scientific and technological advancements.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Malthusian Theory of Population:
It is one of the three most popular theories of population published in 1798 by Thomas Robert Malthus. The theory explains the relationship between the growth in food supply and in population.According to this theory, the human population increases in geometrical progression and if unchecked doubles itself every 25 years. On the other hand, the food supply increases in a slow arithmetical progression due to the operation of the law of diminishing returns based on the supposition that the supply of land is constant. And if unchecked, the population tends to outrun food supply, thus creating an imbalance.
His doctrine advocates that food supply increases in arithmetical progression but he underestimated the technological advancements of the force of production by human through controlling nature over time.
Further, his suggested preventive measures (by human themselves) such as late marriage, celibacy, moral restraint, etc. or, the positive measures (by nature) such as vice, misery, famine, war, disease, pestilence, floods, etc. to check the population growth are very pessimistic.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Malthusian Theory of Population:
It is one of the three most popular theories of population published in 1798 by Thomas Robert Malthus. The theory explains the relationship between the growth in food supply and in population.According to this theory, the human population increases in geometrical progression and if unchecked doubles itself every 25 years. On the other hand, the food supply increases in a slow arithmetical progression due to the operation of the law of diminishing returns based on the supposition that the supply of land is constant. And if unchecked, the population tends to outrun food supply, thus creating an imbalance.
His doctrine advocates that food supply increases in arithmetical progression but he underestimated the technological advancements of the force of production by human through controlling nature over time.
Further, his suggested preventive measures (by human themselves) such as late marriage, celibacy, moral restraint, etc. or, the positive measures (by nature) such as vice, misery, famine, war, disease, pestilence, floods, etc. to check the population growth are very pessimistic.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following regarding National Highways in India:
- The shortest National Highway NH766EE runs from Hettikeri to Belekeri port in Karnataka.
- All North-South highways carry Odd number and all East-West highways will have Even numbers
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
National Highways
According to the Ministry of Roads, Transport and Highways, there are 599 National Highways in India. India has 151,019 km (93,839 mi) of National Highways as of March 2021. National Highways constituted 2.7% of India’s total road network, but carried about 40% of road traffic, as of 2013.
The longest National Highway is NH44, which runs between Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir and Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu, covering a distance of 3,806 km (2,365 mi).
The shortest National Highway is NH766EE, which spans 4.27 km (2.65 mi), from Hettikeri to Belekeri port in Karnataka.
The Leh–Manali Highway connecting Leh in Ladakh to Manali in Himachal Pradesh is the world’s second highest-altitude motorable highway.
All North-South highways will carry EVEN number and all East-West highways will have ODD numbers
All major Highways will be a single-digit or double-digit in a number. North-South highways will increase their numbers from East to West.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
National Highways
According to the Ministry of Roads, Transport and Highways, there are 599 National Highways in India. India has 151,019 km (93,839 mi) of National Highways as of March 2021. National Highways constituted 2.7% of India’s total road network, but carried about 40% of road traffic, as of 2013.
The longest National Highway is NH44, which runs between Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir and Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu, covering a distance of 3,806 km (2,365 mi).
The shortest National Highway is NH766EE, which spans 4.27 km (2.65 mi), from Hettikeri to Belekeri port in Karnataka.
The Leh–Manali Highway connecting Leh in Ladakh to Manali in Himachal Pradesh is the world’s second highest-altitude motorable highway.
All North-South highways will carry EVEN number and all East-West highways will have ODD numbers
All major Highways will be a single-digit or double-digit in a number. North-South highways will increase their numbers from East to West.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Urban Agglomeration may consist of:
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Urban agglomeration is a highly developed spatial form of integrated cities. Majority of metropolitan and mega cities are urban agglomerations.
An urban agglomeration may consist of any one of the following three combinations:
(i) A town and its adjoining urban outgrowths,
(ii) Two or more contiguous towns with or without their outgrowths, and
(iii) A city and one or more adjoining towns with their outgrowths together forming a contiguous spread
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
Urban agglomeration is a highly developed spatial form of integrated cities. Majority of metropolitan and mega cities are urban agglomerations.
An urban agglomeration may consist of any one of the following three combinations:
(i) A town and its adjoining urban outgrowths,
(ii) Two or more contiguous towns with or without their outgrowths, and
(iii) A city and one or more adjoining towns with their outgrowths together forming a contiguous spread
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Which of the following National waterways is correctly matched:
- National Waterway-1: Allahabad-Haldia
- National Waterway-2: Dhubri-Sadiya
- National Waterway-3: Kakinada-Puducherry
- National Waterway-4: Kottapuram-Kollam
Select the answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The Inland Waterways Authority of India Act, 1985 empowers the Government to declare waterways with potential for development of shipping and navigation as National Waterways and develop such waterways for efficient shipping and navigation. 5 National waterways declared under it are as follows.
National Waterway-1:
- Allahabad-Haldia
- Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system
- 1620 km
National Waterway-2:
- Dhubri-Sadiya
- River Brahmaputra
- 891 km
National Waterway-3:
- Kottapuram-Kollam
- West Coast canal along with Udyogmandal and Champakara Canals.
- 205 km
National Waterway-4:
- Kakinada-Puducherry
- Rivers Godavari and Krishna
- 1078 km
National Waterway-5
- East Coast canal integrated with Brahmani and Mahanadi delta rivers.
- 588 km
Besides these five waterways, National Waterway Act, 2016 declared 106 additional national waterways in India.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The Inland Waterways Authority of India Act, 1985 empowers the Government to declare waterways with potential for development of shipping and navigation as National Waterways and develop such waterways for efficient shipping and navigation. 5 National waterways declared under it are as follows.
National Waterway-1:
- Allahabad-Haldia
- Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system
- 1620 km
National Waterway-2:
- Dhubri-Sadiya
- River Brahmaputra
- 891 km
National Waterway-3:
- Kottapuram-Kollam
- West Coast canal along with Udyogmandal and Champakara Canals.
- 205 km
National Waterway-4:
- Kakinada-Puducherry
- Rivers Godavari and Krishna
- 1078 km
National Waterway-5
- East Coast canal integrated with Brahmani and Mahanadi delta rivers.
- 588 km
Besides these five waterways, National Waterway Act, 2016 declared 106 additional national waterways in India.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Which of the following bodies was associated in conducting the Socio-Economic Caste Census 2011:
- Ministry of Home Affairs
- Ministry of Rural Development
- Ministry of Urban Development
- Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation
- The Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) -2011: The Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) was conducted through a comprehensive door to door survey across India for generating data on a large number of social and economic indicators relating to households in both rural and urban areas.
SECC was conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development, Ministry of Urban Development, Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation, The Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner and the State Governments.
It was the first-ever caste census post Independence in India, the results of which were released by the government in 2015.
SECC-2011 was also the first paperless census in the country conducted by handheld electronic devices in 640 districts in the country.
Dr. N C Saxena committee (for rural areas) and S.R. Hashim committee (for urban areas) was constituted to suggest the design of the new BPL census. They recommended a three-fold classification of households.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) -2011: The Socio-Economic Caste Census (SECC) was conducted through a comprehensive door to door survey across India for generating data on a large number of social and economic indicators relating to households in both rural and urban areas.
SECC was conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development, Ministry of Urban Development, Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation, The Office of the Registrar General & Census Commissioner and the State Governments.
It was the first-ever caste census post Independence in India, the results of which were released by the government in 2015.
SECC-2011 was also the first paperless census in the country conducted by handheld electronic devices in 640 districts in the country.
Dr. N C Saxena committee (for rural areas) and S.R. Hashim committee (for urban areas) was constituted to suggest the design of the new BPL census. They recommended a three-fold classification of households.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Which of the following is/are the consequences of migration?
- Increase in Remittances
- Development of slums in urban areas.
- Alteration of age and sex composition of states.
- Social changes.
- Physical and mental stress on women.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Consequences of Migration
Migration creates both benefits and problems for the areas; people migrate from and migrate to. Consequences can be observed in economic, social, cultural, political and demographic terms.Economic Consequences
A major benefit for the source region is the remittance sent by migrants. Punjab, Kerala and Tamil Nadu receive very significant amount from their international migrants.Besides this, unregulated migration to the metropolitan cities of India has caused overcrowding.
Development of slums in industrially developed states such as Maharashtra, Gujarat,
Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu and Delhi is a negative consequence of unregulated migration within the country.Demographic Consequences
Migration leads to the redistribution of the population within a country. Rural urban migration is one of the important factors contributing to the population growth of cities.High out migration from Uttarakhand, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Eastern Maharashtra
have brought serious imbalances in age and sex composition in these states.Social Consequences
Migrants act as agents of social change. The new ideas related to new technologies, family planning, girl’s education, etc. get diffused from urban to rural areas through them.Migration leads to intermixing of people from diverse cultures.
Overcrowding of people due to rural urban migration has put pressure on the existing social and physical infrastructure in the urban areas. This ultimately leads to unplanned growth of
urban settlement and formation of slums shanty colonies.Apart from this, due to over-exploitation of natural resources, cities are facing the acute problem of depletion of ground water, air pollution, and disposal of sewage and management of solid wastes.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Consequences of Migration
Migration creates both benefits and problems for the areas; people migrate from and migrate to. Consequences can be observed in economic, social, cultural, political and demographic terms.Economic Consequences
A major benefit for the source region is the remittance sent by migrants. Punjab, Kerala and Tamil Nadu receive very significant amount from their international migrants.Besides this, unregulated migration to the metropolitan cities of India has caused overcrowding.
Development of slums in industrially developed states such as Maharashtra, Gujarat,
Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu and Delhi is a negative consequence of unregulated migration within the country.Demographic Consequences
Migration leads to the redistribution of the population within a country. Rural urban migration is one of the important factors contributing to the population growth of cities.High out migration from Uttarakhand, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Eastern Maharashtra
have brought serious imbalances in age and sex composition in these states.Social Consequences
Migrants act as agents of social change. The new ideas related to new technologies, family planning, girl’s education, etc. get diffused from urban to rural areas through them.Migration leads to intermixing of people from diverse cultures.
Overcrowding of people due to rural urban migration has put pressure on the existing social and physical infrastructure in the urban areas. This ultimately leads to unplanned growth of
urban settlement and formation of slums shanty colonies.Apart from this, due to over-exploitation of natural resources, cities are facing the acute problem of depletion of ground water, air pollution, and disposal of sewage and management of solid wastes.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the UN-Habitat:
- It is a UN agency responsible for sustainable urban development and human settlements.
- India has been the President of UN – Habitat only thrice.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
UN Habitat
It is a UN agency responsible for sustainable urban development and human settlements. It is an intergovernmental body established in 1978.Headquartered in UN Office at Nairobi, Kenya. It is also a member of United Nation Development Programme (UNDP).
It promotes socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities with the goal of providing adequate shelter for all.
UN-Habitat works in more than 70 countries in five continents focusing on seven areas:
- Urban Legislation, Land and Governance;
- Urban Planning and Design;
- Urban Economy;
- Urban Basic Services;
- Housing and Slum Upgrading;
- Risk Reduction and Rehabilitation;
- Urban Research and Capacity Development
India has been designated as the President of the UN-Habitat in 1988, 2007 and 2017.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
UN Habitat
It is a UN agency responsible for sustainable urban development and human settlements. It is an intergovernmental body established in 1978.Headquartered in UN Office at Nairobi, Kenya. It is also a member of United Nation Development Programme (UNDP).
It promotes socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities with the goal of providing adequate shelter for all.
UN-Habitat works in more than 70 countries in five continents focusing on seven areas:
- Urban Legislation, Land and Governance;
- Urban Planning and Design;
- Urban Economy;
- Urban Basic Services;
- Housing and Slum Upgrading;
- Risk Reduction and Rehabilitation;
- Urban Research and Capacity Development
India has been designated as the President of the UN-Habitat in 1988, 2007 and 2017.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements on Human Development Index:
- It is a composite index calculated using 3 dimensions and 4 indicators.
- India is behind Bhutan and Bangladesh in the index.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
HDI is part of the Human Development Report that is published by the United Nations Development Programme. The Human Development Index (HDI) is a summary measure of average achievement in key dimensions of human development:
Three dimension:
- Long and healthy life
- Knowledge
- A decent standard of living
Four Indicators:
- Life expectancy at birth
- Expected years of schooling
- Mean years of schooling
- GNI per capita
The HDI is the geometric mean of normalized indices for each of the three dimensions.
India has been positioned at 131 out of 189 countries and territories, according to the report, while Bhutan is at 129, Bangladesh at 133, Nepal at 142, and Pakistan at 154.
India’s HDI value for 2019 is 0.645 which put it in the medium human development category.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Basic Info:
HDI is part of the Human Development Report that is published by the United Nations Development Programme. The Human Development Index (HDI) is a summary measure of average achievement in key dimensions of human development:
Three dimension:
- Long and healthy life
- Knowledge
- A decent standard of living
Four Indicators:
- Life expectancy at birth
- Expected years of schooling
- Mean years of schooling
- GNI per capita
The HDI is the geometric mean of normalized indices for each of the three dimensions.
India has been positioned at 131 out of 189 countries and territories, according to the report, while Bhutan is at 129, Bangladesh at 133, Nepal at 142, and Pakistan at 154.
India’s HDI value for 2019 is 0.645 which put it in the medium human development category.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
What are the differences between rural and urban settlements?
- Rural Settlements depend on primary activities whereas urban settlements
depend on secondary and tertiary activities. - Social relations among rural people are informal whereas formal among urban
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The basic differences between rural and urban settlements are as follows :The rural settlements derive their life support or basic economic needs from land based primary economic activities, whereas, urban settlements, depend on processing of raw materials and manufacturing of finished goods on the one hand and a variety of services
on the other.Cities act as nodes of economic growth, provide goods and services not only to urban dwellers but also to the people of the rural settlements in their hinterlands in return for food and raw materials. This functional relationship between the urban and rural settlements takes place through transport and communication network.
Rural and urban settlements differ in terms of social relationship, attitude and outlook.
Rural people are less mobile and therefore, social relations among them are intimate. In urban areas, on the other hand, way of life is complex and fast, and social relations are formal.Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The basic differences between rural and urban settlements are as follows :The rural settlements derive their life support or basic economic needs from land based primary economic activities, whereas, urban settlements, depend on processing of raw materials and manufacturing of finished goods on the one hand and a variety of services
on the other.Cities act as nodes of economic growth, provide goods and services not only to urban dwellers but also to the people of the rural settlements in their hinterlands in return for food and raw materials. This functional relationship between the urban and rural settlements takes place through transport and communication network.
Rural and urban settlements differ in terms of social relationship, attitude and outlook.
Rural people are less mobile and therefore, social relations among them are intimate. In urban areas, on the other hand, way of life is complex and fast, and social relations are formal. - Rural Settlements depend on primary activities whereas urban settlements
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
According to 2011 census, consider the following statements regarding Child-Sex Ratio:
- The Child Sex Ratio is defined as the number of females per 1000 males in the age group 0–5 years.
- Arunachal Pradesh has the highest child sex ratio among the Indian states while Haryana has the lowest child sex ratio.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Census 2011-Child Sex Ratio
As per the Census, 2011 the child sex ratio (0-6 years) has shown a decline from 927 females per thousand males in 2001 to 919 females per thousand males in 2011.In the census 2001, the child sex ratio of India was 927 which declined to 919 in the
census 2011.As per the census 2011, Arunachal Pradesh has the highest child sex ratio among the Indian states i.e. 972 while Haryana has the lowest child sex ratio i.e.834 per thousand males.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Basic Info:
Census 2011-Child Sex Ratio
As per the Census, 2011 the child sex ratio (0-6 years) has shown a decline from 927 females per thousand males in 2001 to 919 females per thousand males in 2011.In the census 2001, the child sex ratio of India was 927 which declined to 919 in the
census 2011.As per the census 2011, Arunachal Pradesh has the highest child sex ratio among the Indian states i.e. 972 while Haryana has the lowest child sex ratio i.e.834 per thousand males.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Principle of Non-refoulement?
- Principle of Non-refoulement forbids a country receiving asylum seekers from returning them to a country in which they would be in likely danger of persecution.
- The principle also applies to states that are not parties to the 1951 Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees or its 1967 Protocol.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Principle of Non-refoulement:
Non-refoulement is a fundamental principle of international law that forbids a country receiving asylum seekers from returning them to a country in which they would be in likely danger of persecution based on “race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social
group or political opinion”.Unlike political asylum, which applies to those who can prove a well-grounded fear of persecution based on certain category of persons, non-refoulement refers to the generic repatriation of people, includingrefugees into war zones and other disaster locales.
It is a principle of customary international law, as it applies even to states that are not parties to the 1951 Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees or its 1967 Protocol. It is also a principle of the Trucial law of nations.
The principle of non-refoulement arises out of an international collective memory of the failure of nations during World War II to provide a safe haven to refugees fleeing certain genocide at the hands of the Nazi regime.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Principle of Non-refoulement:
Non-refoulement is a fundamental principle of international law that forbids a country receiving asylum seekers from returning them to a country in which they would be in likely danger of persecution based on “race, religion, nationality, membership of a particular social
group or political opinion”.Unlike political asylum, which applies to those who can prove a well-grounded fear of persecution based on certain category of persons, non-refoulement refers to the generic repatriation of people, includingrefugees into war zones and other disaster locales.
It is a principle of customary international law, as it applies even to states that are not parties to the 1951 Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees or its 1967 Protocol. It is also a principle of the Trucial law of nations.
The principle of non-refoulement arises out of an international collective memory of the failure of nations during World War II to provide a safe haven to refugees fleeing certain genocide at the hands of the Nazi regime.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the settlement hierarchy?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Settlement Hierarchy
Isolate dwellings: Such settlement consists of individual units. It can be termed as the initial state of development of a settlement. An isolated dwelling would only have 1 or 2 buildings or families in it.Hamlets: When many individual units are cluster together they form hamlets. The grouping may be due to similar occupation patterns, religion, cultural factors etc. a hamlet has a tiny population (<100) and very few (if any) service.
Villages: When many hamlets combine they from a village. The reason for such grouping may be due to interdependencies of one hamlet on another, thus to form a self-sufficient unit.
Towns: A town is a larger entity which is more self-sufficient and has a stronger economic base.
Cities: Where large concentration of people exists, multiple economic activities exist.
Metropolis: A metropolis is a large city, with a population of at least one million living in its urban agglomeration.
Megalopolis: An extensive, metropolitan area or a long chain of continuous metropolitan areas.
Mega Cities: Cities with population of 5 million and above are known as mega cities, according to Census of India. But United Nations considers mega cities as those that have a population of 10 million and above. In India, Greater Mumbai, Kolkata and Delhi are examples of mega cities
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
Settlement Hierarchy
Isolate dwellings: Such settlement consists of individual units. It can be termed as the initial state of development of a settlement. An isolated dwelling would only have 1 or 2 buildings or families in it.Hamlets: When many individual units are cluster together they form hamlets. The grouping may be due to similar occupation patterns, religion, cultural factors etc. a hamlet has a tiny population (<100) and very few (if any) service.
Villages: When many hamlets combine they from a village. The reason for such grouping may be due to interdependencies of one hamlet on another, thus to form a self-sufficient unit.
Towns: A town is a larger entity which is more self-sufficient and has a stronger economic base.
Cities: Where large concentration of people exists, multiple economic activities exist.
Metropolis: A metropolis is a large city, with a population of at least one million living in its urban agglomeration.
Megalopolis: An extensive, metropolitan area or a long chain of continuous metropolitan areas.
Mega Cities: Cities with population of 5 million and above are known as mega cities, according to Census of India. But United Nations considers mega cities as those that have a population of 10 million and above. In India, Greater Mumbai, Kolkata and Delhi are examples of mega cities
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the recently released 20th Livestock Census:
- It is an initiative of the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare covering all domesticated animals and their headcounts.
- Harayana has the highest number of Livestock according to the Census.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The Livestock Census has been conducted in the country periodically since 1919-20. The Livestock Census covers all domesticated animals and its headcounts. So far 19 such censuses have been conducted in participation with State Governments and UT Administrations. The 20th Livestock Census was conducted in participation with all States and Union Territories.
It is an initiative of the Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying under Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying.
As per the Census:
The total Livestock population in India rises 4.6 per cent to nearly 536 million as compared to the previous Census.
The percentage of different domesticated animals in the total Livestock are as under: Cattle
(35.94%), Goat (27.80%), Buffaloes (20.45%), Sheep (13.87%) and Pigs (1.69%).The population of cows in the country has risen by 18 per cent in the last seven years, while that of oxen dipped by 30 per cent.
Besides, there was a spectacular 16.8 per cent increase in the poultry population in the country to 851.81 million, mainly on account of a 46 per cent rise in backyard poultry birds, whose numbers have gone up to 317 million
Among the States, Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of livestock of 67.8 million (68.7 million in 2012), followed by Rajasthan 56.8 million (57.7 million), Madhya Pradesh: 40.6 million (36.3 million) and West Bengal: 37.4 million (30.3 million).
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The Livestock Census has been conducted in the country periodically since 1919-20. The Livestock Census covers all domesticated animals and its headcounts. So far 19 such censuses have been conducted in participation with State Governments and UT Administrations. The 20th Livestock Census was conducted in participation with all States and Union Territories.
It is an initiative of the Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying under Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying.
As per the Census:
The total Livestock population in India rises 4.6 per cent to nearly 536 million as compared to the previous Census.
The percentage of different domesticated animals in the total Livestock are as under: Cattle
(35.94%), Goat (27.80%), Buffaloes (20.45%), Sheep (13.87%) and Pigs (1.69%).The population of cows in the country has risen by 18 per cent in the last seven years, while that of oxen dipped by 30 per cent.
Besides, there was a spectacular 16.8 per cent increase in the poultry population in the country to 851.81 million, mainly on account of a 46 per cent rise in backyard poultry birds, whose numbers have gone up to 317 million
Among the States, Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of livestock of 67.8 million (68.7 million in 2012), followed by Rajasthan 56.8 million (57.7 million), Madhya Pradesh: 40.6 million (36.3 million) and West Bengal: 37.4 million (30.3 million).
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements regarding recently released Good Governance Index:
- The index is biannually released by Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
- Gujarat has topped the composite ranking, followed by Maharashtra and Goa.
- It is based on ten sectors and 58 indicators.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The index was prepared by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
GGI is a comprehensive and implementable framework to assess the State of Governance across the States and UTs which enables ranking of States/Districts.
The objective of GGI is to create a tool that can be used uniformly across the States to assess the impact of various interventions taken up by the Central and State Governments including UTs.
Based on the GGI Framework, the Index provides a comparative picture among the States while developing a competitive spirit for improvement.
The GGI is envisaged as a biannual exercise. It is based on ten sectors and 58 indicators. Gujarat has topped the composite ranking, followed by Maharashtra and Goa.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Basic Info:
The index was prepared by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG), Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
GGI is a comprehensive and implementable framework to assess the State of Governance across the States and UTs which enables ranking of States/Districts.
The objective of GGI is to create a tool that can be used uniformly across the States to assess the impact of various interventions taken up by the Central and State Governments including UTs.
Based on the GGI Framework, the Index provides a comparative picture among the States while developing a competitive spirit for improvement.
The GGI is envisaged as a biannual exercise. It is based on ten sectors and 58 indicators. Gujarat has topped the composite ranking, followed by Maharashtra and Goa.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Which of the following countries is expected to have a relatively higher proportion of the old age population?
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The demographic transition in a country or region can be explained by the Demographic Transition Model (DTM).
It describes the population change from a low stable population to a high stable population as a result of a preliminary fall in the death rate from a high level to be followed later by a fall in the birth rate.
The aging of the planet‘s population will play out differently in different countries. In developed
countries, the increasing number of elderly people is generally witnessed. In developing ones, though, there could be an important impact from a growing working-age population.In countries with well-developed health infrastructure, the following is generally observed:
- low fertility rates
- low birth rate
- Low death rate
As a consequence of the above:
- Population growth remains low due to the low birth rate
- Population in lower age group remains small
- The number of people in the higher age group gradually keeps on increasing, hence their percentage of the total population.
Thus, among the given demographic trends, the country with the lowest birth rate and the lowest death rate is expected to have a relatively higher proportion of the old age population.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
The demographic transition in a country or region can be explained by the Demographic Transition Model (DTM).
It describes the population change from a low stable population to a high stable population as a result of a preliminary fall in the death rate from a high level to be followed later by a fall in the birth rate.
The aging of the planet‘s population will play out differently in different countries. In developed
countries, the increasing number of elderly people is generally witnessed. In developing ones, though, there could be an important impact from a growing working-age population.In countries with well-developed health infrastructure, the following is generally observed:
- low fertility rates
- low birth rate
- Low death rate
As a consequence of the above:
- Population growth remains low due to the low birth rate
- Population in lower age group remains small
- The number of people in the higher age group gradually keeps on increasing, hence their percentage of the total population.
Thus, among the given demographic trends, the country with the lowest birth rate and the lowest death rate is expected to have a relatively higher proportion of the old age population.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Match the following:
Races Location
- Caucasoids They are primarily the people of Africa, south of Sahara
- Mongoloids Aboriginal people of Melanesia
- Negroids Indigenous to Europe and Indian subcontinent
- Australoid Inhabitants of North eastern and southeastern Asia
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
A human race is defined as a group of people with certain common inherited features that distinguish them from other groups of people. It generally differentiates a group of people on the basis of some visible physical traits, such as skin color, hair texture, facial features, and eye formation.
The Human Race can be majorly divided as:
Caucasoid:– It denotes the lighter-complexioned racial group of humankind, which includes the Aryans and peoples indigenous to Europe, N Africa, SW Asia, and the Indian subcontinent and their descendants in other parts of the world.
They are fair-skinned people with a long and narrow nose. They are further divided into different groups which include Nordic of North Europe, Alpine of Central Europe, Mediterranean people (Arabs, Jews and people of Indian Subcontinent).
Mongoloids: Northern Mongolian, Chinese and Indo-Chinese, Japanese and Korean, Tibetan,
Malayan, Polynesian, Maori, Micronesian, Eskimo, American Indian. They are inhabitants of North eastern and southeastern Asia. They are majorly concentrated in China, Japan, Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia etc.Negroid : African, Hottentots, Melanesians/Papua, Negrito, Australian Aborigine, Dravidians,
Sinhalese. They are primarily the people of Africa, south of Sahara. Their skin color ranges from black to brown or yellowish and the length of the head is longer than the breadth. They are divided into two major subgroups i.e African Negro & Oceanic Melanesian.Australoid: The Australoid race is a racial classification used to refer to aboriginal people of
Australia, Melanesia, as well as parts of Southeast AsiaThese races can be further subdivided into as many as 30 subgroups.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Basic Info:
A human race is defined as a group of people with certain common inherited features that distinguish them from other groups of people. It generally differentiates a group of people on the basis of some visible physical traits, such as skin color, hair texture, facial features, and eye formation.
The Human Race can be majorly divided as:
Caucasoid:– It denotes the lighter-complexioned racial group of humankind, which includes the Aryans and peoples indigenous to Europe, N Africa, SW Asia, and the Indian subcontinent and their descendants in other parts of the world.
They are fair-skinned people with a long and narrow nose. They are further divided into different groups which include Nordic of North Europe, Alpine of Central Europe, Mediterranean people (Arabs, Jews and people of Indian Subcontinent).
Mongoloids: Northern Mongolian, Chinese and Indo-Chinese, Japanese and Korean, Tibetan,
Malayan, Polynesian, Maori, Micronesian, Eskimo, American Indian. They are inhabitants of North eastern and southeastern Asia. They are majorly concentrated in China, Japan, Thailand, Vietnam, Malaysia etc.Negroid : African, Hottentots, Melanesians/Papua, Negrito, Australian Aborigine, Dravidians,
Sinhalese. They are primarily the people of Africa, south of Sahara. Their skin color ranges from black to brown or yellowish and the length of the head is longer than the breadth. They are divided into two major subgroups i.e African Negro & Oceanic Melanesian.Australoid: The Australoid race is a racial classification used to refer to aboriginal people of
Australia, Melanesia, as well as parts of Southeast AsiaThese races can be further subdivided into as many as 30 subgroups.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘The North Atlantic Treaty Organization’
- NATO was established in the aftermath of 9/11 attacks
- All the members of NATO are found in North America and Europe only
- An agreement in the original NATO Treaty ensures collective defence
Select the correct statements
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct North Atlantic Treaty also called the North Atlantic Alliance was established in the aftermath of World War II, the organization implements the North Atlantic Treaty, signed 4 April 1949 NATO has thirty members, mainly in Europe and North America. Turkey is a member who’s territory lies in Asia as well Article 5, an agreement that ensures “collective defence”, which means that an attack on one ally will be considered an attack on all allies. Context – NATO was in news due to Russia-Ukraine crisis.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Correct North Atlantic Treaty also called the North Atlantic Alliance was established in the aftermath of World War II, the organization implements the North Atlantic Treaty, signed 4 April 1949 NATO has thirty members, mainly in Europe and North America. Turkey is a member who’s territory lies in Asia as well Article 5, an agreement that ensures “collective defence”, which means that an attack on one ally will be considered an attack on all allies. Context – NATO was in news due to Russia-Ukraine crisis.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Indus Water Treaty’
- The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) is a water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan, brokered by the United Nations
- The Commission is required to meet at least once in a year
- In cases of dispute or disagreement, Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) alone is responsible for arbitration
Select the correct statements
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) is a water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank, to use the water available in the Indus River and its tributaries. It was signed in Karachi on 19 September 1960 by Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan. The Commission is required to meet at least once in a year to discuss potential disputes as well as cooperative arrangements for the development of the Indus System of Rivers. In cases of dispute or disagreement, Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) or a neutral technical expert respectively is called in for arbitration. Context – The 117th Meeting of the Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) comprising of Indus Commissioners of India and Pakistan was held from March 1-3, 2022 in Islamabad, Pakistan
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Indus Waters Treaty (IWT) is a water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank, to use the water available in the Indus River and its tributaries. It was signed in Karachi on 19 September 1960 by Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan. The Commission is required to meet at least once in a year to discuss potential disputes as well as cooperative arrangements for the development of the Indus System of Rivers. In cases of dispute or disagreement, Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) or a neutral technical expert respectively is called in for arbitration. Context – The 117th Meeting of the Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) comprising of Indus Commissioners of India and Pakistan was held from March 1-3, 2022 in Islamabad, Pakistan
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider the following
- American depositary receipts (ADRs)
- Exchange traded funds
- Reinvested earnings
- Intra-company loans
- Mutual funds
Which of the following constitute Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)?
Correct
Solution (a)
Foreign portfolio investment (FPI) refers to the purchase of securities and other financial assets by investors from another country. Examples of foreign portfolio investments include stocks, bonds, mutual funds, exchange traded funds, American depositary receipts (ADRs), and global depositary receipts (GDRs).
Context – There was a large scale outflow of FPI from India.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Foreign portfolio investment (FPI) refers to the purchase of securities and other financial assets by investors from another country. Examples of foreign portfolio investments include stocks, bonds, mutual funds, exchange traded funds, American depositary receipts (ADRs), and global depositary receipts (GDRs).
Context – There was a large scale outflow of FPI from India.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal (BBIN) Initiative’
- It is a subgroup within South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation (SAARC)
- The Motor Vehicle Agreement (MVA) signed under BBIN will permit the member states to ply their vehicles in each other’s territory for transportation of cargo and passengers, including personal vehicles
- Delhi declaration was recently signed by all the members of BBIN
Select the correct statement/s
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal (BBIN) Initiative is a sub-regional architecture of countries in Eastern South Asia, a subregion of South Asia. It is not a grouping within SAARC. The BBIN Motor Vehicles Agreement (MVA) was signed on 15 June 2015 at the BBIN transport ministers meeting in Thimpu, Bhutan. The agreement will permit the member states to ply their vehicles in each other’s territory for transportation of cargo and passengers, including third country transport and personal vehicles. Each vehicle would require an electronic permit to enter another country’s territory, and border security arrangement between nations’ borders will also remain Delhi declaration is related to Afghanistan. It does not come under BBIN. Context – Bangladesh, Nepal and India went ahead with the motor vehicle agreement.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal (BBIN) Initiative is a sub-regional architecture of countries in Eastern South Asia, a subregion of South Asia. It is not a grouping within SAARC. The BBIN Motor Vehicles Agreement (MVA) was signed on 15 June 2015 at the BBIN transport ministers meeting in Thimpu, Bhutan. The agreement will permit the member states to ply their vehicles in each other’s territory for transportation of cargo and passengers, including third country transport and personal vehicles. Each vehicle would require an electronic permit to enter another country’s territory, and border security arrangement between nations’ borders will also remain Delhi declaration is related to Afghanistan. It does not come under BBIN. Context – Bangladesh, Nepal and India went ahead with the motor vehicle agreement.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
‘Carbofuran’ seen in news recently is a
Correct
Solution (a)
Carbofuran is a carbamate pesticide, widely used around the world to control insects on a wide variety of field crops, including potatoes, corn and soybeans.
Context – It was in news due to the death of Himalayan Griffon Vultures in Assam.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Carbofuran is a carbamate pesticide, widely used around the world to control insects on a wide variety of field crops, including potatoes, corn and soybeans.
Context – It was in news due to the death of Himalayan Griffon Vultures in Assam.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
You are given two identical sequences in two rows:
Sequence 1 12 6 9 22.5 78.75 354.375 Sequence 2 7 A B C D E What is the entry in the place of C for the Sequence-II?
Correct
Solution (a)
The inherent pattern in the two sequences has been represented below.
Sequence I Sequence II
12 × 0.5 = 6 7 × 0.5 = 3.5 (A)
6 × 1.5 = 9 3.5 × 1.5 = 5.25 (B)
9 × 2.5 = 22.5 5.25 × 2.5 = 13.125 (C)
22.5 × 3.5 = 78.75
78.75 × 4.5 = 236.25
Incorrect
Solution (a)
The inherent pattern in the two sequences has been represented below.
Sequence I Sequence II
12 × 0.5 = 6 7 × 0.5 = 3.5 (A)
6 × 1.5 = 9 3.5 × 1.5 = 5.25 (B)
9 × 2.5 = 22.5 5.25 × 2.5 = 13.125 (C)
22.5 × 3.5 = 78.75
78.75 × 4.5 = 236.25
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Consider the following sequence of numbers:
3 1 4 9 3 5 8 1 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 9 1 8 3 2 2 4 1 4 9 6
How many odd numbers are followed by the odd number in the above sequence?
Correct
Solution (c)
Given sequence: 3 1 4 9 3 5 8 1 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 9 1 8 3 2 2 4 1 4 9 6
The odd numbers followed by another odd number are: 3, 9, 3, 1, 3 ,1, 9
So, required number of odd numbers = 7
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Given sequence: 3 1 4 9 3 5 8 1 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 9 1 8 3 2 2 4 1 4 9 6
The odd numbers followed by another odd number are: 3, 9, 3, 1, 3 ,1, 9
So, required number of odd numbers = 7
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
A simple mathematical operation in each number of sequence 30, 32, 38, 42, 44, 48, … results in a sequence with respect to prime numbers. Which one of the following is the next number in the sequence?
Correct
Solution (d)
As per the given condition in question:
30 = 29 + 1
32 = 31 + 1
38 = 37 + 1
42 = 41 + 1
44 = 43 + 1
48 = 47 + 1
Next prime number after 47 is 53.
So, 53 + 1 = 54
Incorrect
Solution (d)
As per the given condition in question:
30 = 29 + 1
32 = 31 + 1
38 = 37 + 1
42 = 41 + 1
44 = 43 + 1
48 = 47 + 1
Next prime number after 47 is 53.
So, 53 + 1 = 54
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Consider the following arrangement that has some missing letters: abab_b_bcb_dcdcded_d.
The missing letters which complete the arrangement are
Correct
Solution (c)
The given sequence follows following sequence
a b a b a
b c b c b
c d c d c
d e d e d
So, the missing letters are: a, c, c, e
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The given sequence follows following sequence
a b a b a
b c b c b
c d c d c
d e d e d
So, the missing letters are: a, c, c, e
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.
India’s economic fortunes continue to be tied to the sharply fluctuating price of oil. At a gathering of prominent oil ministers in New Delhi, it was urged to oil-producing countries to reduce the cost of energy in order to aid the global economy in its path towards recovery. Indian PM also called for a review of payment terms, demanding the partial use of the rupee instead of the U.S. dollar to pay for oil, in order to ease the burden on oil-importing countries in the wake of the strengthening of the dollar. With well over 80% of its oil demand being met through imports, India clearly has a lot at stake as oil prices have risen by as much as 70% in rupee terms in the last one year. Notably, speaking at the same event, Saudi Arabian Energy Minister, refused to openly commit to lower oil prices, opting instead to say that the price of oil could have been much higher but for the efforts taken by his country to boost supply. This is not surprising given the absence of significant rival suppliers in the global oil market willing to help out India.
India’s policymakers now face the difficult task of safely steering the economy in the midst of multiple external headwinds. For one, the current account deficit widened to 2.4% of gross domestic product in the first quarter of 2018-19 and is expected to reach 3% for the full year. The rupee, which is down about 16% since the beginning of the year, doesn’t seem to be showing any signs of recovery either. Further, the growth in the sales of petrol and diesel has already been affected adversely as their prices have shot through the roof. All this will likely weigh negatively on the prospects of the Indian economy, the world’s fastest-growing, in the coming quarters. In this scenario, the decision to marginally cut taxes imposed on domestic fuels is unlikely to be of any significant help to consumers. What is required is a steep cut in Central and State taxes for the benefit to carry through to the consumers, which, of course, is unlikely given the government’s fiscal needs. Another long-term solution to the oil problem will be to increasingly tap into domestic sources of energy supply while simultaneously encouraging consumers to switch to green alternatives. This will require a stronger policy framework and implementation. In the short term, the government could look to diversifying its international supplier base to manage shocks better. But such a choice carries geopolitical risks, such as in the case of Iran. Since it will take a length of time to wean the economy off oil imports, policymakers should also be willing to think beyond just the next election if India’s over-reliance on oil is to come to an end for good.
Q.30) Which among the following is the reason that India is very much concerned with the oil prices in the international market?
Correct
Solution (c)
Refer to, “With well over 80% of its oil demand being met through imports, India clearly has a lot at stake as oil prices have risen by as much as 70% in rupee terms in the last one year.”
It is clear from the above lines that India is concerned since it imports the majority of its oil shares from other countries. That is why it matters to the country that the prices in the international market are going up or down.
Among the given options, only option c is there that perfectly explains the reason of the concern shown by India regarding the prices of the oil in the international market. Other options are either out of context or they are not correct according to the information given in the passage.
This makes option c the correct choice among the given options.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Refer to, “With well over 80% of its oil demand being met through imports, India clearly has a lot at stake as oil prices have risen by as much as 70% in rupee terms in the last one year.”
It is clear from the above lines that India is concerned since it imports the majority of its oil shares from other countries. That is why it matters to the country that the prices in the international market are going up or down.
Among the given options, only option c is there that perfectly explains the reason of the concern shown by India regarding the prices of the oil in the international market. Other options are either out of context or they are not correct according to the information given in the passage.
This makes option c the correct choice among the given options.
All the Best
IASbaba