IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
1. Daily RaRe Series (RRS) Videos on High Probable Topics (Monday – Saturday)
- In video discussions, special focus is given to topics which have high probability to appear in UPSC Prelims Question Paper.
- Each session will be of 20 mins to 30 mins, which would cover rapid revision of 15 high probable topics (both static and current affairs) important for Prelims Exam this year according to the schedule.
Note – The Videos will be available only in English.
2. Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes
- Right material plays important role in clearing the exam and Rapid Revision (RaRe) Notes will have Prelims specific subject-wise refined notes.
- The main objective is to help students revise most important topics and that too within a very short limited time frame.
Note – PDFs of Daily Tests & Solution and ‘Daily Notes’ will be updated in PDF Format which are downloadable in both English & हिंदी.
3. Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule and in the RaRe videos.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
4. Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
5. Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Saturday)
- CSAT has been an achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 5 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (30 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis in Both English and हिंदी.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Download 60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Notes & Solutions DAY 60– CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2022 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the declaration of certain wild animals as ‘vermin’ in India:
- The State Government has the authority to declare a wild animal as vermin.
- Animals listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 cannot be declared as vermin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter. The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and part II of Schedule II of the law to be vermin for any area for a given period of time. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct As per Section 62 of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, States can send a list of wild animals to the Centre requesting it to declare them vermin for selective slaughter. The Central Government may by notification, declare any wild animal other than those specified in Schedule I and part II of Schedule II of the law to be vermin for any area for a given period of time. -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Eco-Sensitive Zones (ESZ) in India:
- The activities in these zones are mostly prohibitive in nature.
- An ESZ is established for at least 100 kilometers around a protected area.
- The Kasturirangan committee report has proposed more than fifty percent of the total area of Western Ghats to be declared as ESZ.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The National Board of Wildlife has decided that the activities in the ESA would be of regulatory nature rather than prohibitive nature, unless and otherwise so required. An ESZ could go up to 10 kilometers around a protected area as provided in the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002. The Kasturirangan committee report proposes 37 percent of the total area of the Western Ghats, which is roughly 60,000 square kilometers, to be declared as an eco-sensitive area (ESA). Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect The National Board of Wildlife has decided that the activities in the ESA would be of regulatory nature rather than prohibitive nature, unless and otherwise so required. An ESZ could go up to 10 kilometers around a protected area as provided in the Wildlife Conservation Strategy, 2002. The Kasturirangan committee report proposes 37 percent of the total area of the Western Ghats, which is roughly 60,000 square kilometers, to be declared as an eco-sensitive area (ESA). -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Which of the following categories are covered under the Climate Change Performance Index (CCPI) 2022?
- Greenhouse gas emissions
- Renewable energy
- Deforestation
- Climate policy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Greenhouse gas emissions (40 per cent of the overall score) Renewable energy (20 per cent) Energy use (20 per cent) Climate policy (20 per cent) Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Correct Greenhouse gas emissions (40 per cent of the overall score) Renewable energy (20 per cent) Energy use (20 per cent) Climate policy (20 per cent) -
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Recently seen in the news, Puntius denisonii or the Denison barb is:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Denison Barb:
- Recently, Denison barb (Miss Kerala) has been included in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Bill, 2021.
- The Denison Barb, Denison’s barb, Miss Kerala is a native freshwater fish species commonly found in parts of Karnataka and Kerala.
- It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- It is commonly seen in the aquarium trade; pet collection caused it to become endangered and is its single major threat.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Denison Barb:
- Recently, Denison barb (Miss Kerala) has been included in Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Bill, 2021.
- The Denison Barb, Denison’s barb, Miss Kerala is a native freshwater fish species commonly found in parts of Karnataka and Kerala.
- It is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- It is commonly seen in the aquarium trade; pet collection caused it to become endangered and is its single major threat.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements about the Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES):
- It is an intergovernmental organisation formed/established to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services.
- The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to it.
- All States Members of the United Nations are eligible for IPBES membership.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It is an intergovernmental organisation formed/established to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to it. All States Members of the United Nations are eligible for IPBES membership. It is not a United Nations body. India has been its founding member since 2012. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct It is an intergovernmental organisation formed/established to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services. The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) provides secretariat services to it. All States Members of the United Nations are eligible for IPBES membership. It is not a United Nations body. India has been its founding member since 2012. -
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Asiatic Black Bear and Sloth Bear:
- Both are listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
- The gall bladder of the Asiatic Black bear is poached for use in traditional medicine.
- Both hibernate during the winter months.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus), and sloth bear (Melursus ursinus) are currently listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. The gall bladder of the Asiatic black bear is poached in high numbers for use in traditional medicine, while sloth bears are killed for their skin and claws. Asiatic Black Bears hibernate through the winter months. The sloth bear usually spends the day snoozing in a cave, preferring one near a river bank and unlike other bears, it doesn’t hibernate but does have a period of comparative inactivity during the monsoon.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Asiatic black bear (Ursus thibetanus), and sloth bear (Melursus ursinus) are currently listed as Vulnerable on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. The gall bladder of the Asiatic black bear is poached in high numbers for use in traditional medicine, while sloth bears are killed for their skin and claws. Asiatic Black Bears hibernate through the winter months. The sloth bear usually spends the day snoozing in a cave, preferring one near a river bank and unlike other bears, it doesn’t hibernate but does have a period of comparative inactivity during the monsoon.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Tarballs, that have recently have resurfaced on the beaches of Mumbai and Goa, sometimes seen in news are:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Tarballs:
- Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that form when crude oil floats on the ocean surface. They are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments. They are transported from the open sea to the shores by sea currents and waves. Some of the balls are as big as a basketball while others are smaller globules and can weigh as much as 6-7 kgs.
- The popular beaches of Mumbai and Goa in recent times are covered in sticky tarballs that gave off a foul fuel smell.
- It is suspected that the oil comes from the large cargo ships in the deep sea and gets pushed to the shore as tarballs during monsoon due to wind speed and direction. All the oil spilt in the Arabian sea eventually gets deposited on the western coast in the form of tarballs in the monsoon season when wind speed and circulation pattern favour transportation of these tarballs.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Tarballs:
- Tarballs are dark-coloured, sticky balls of oil that form when crude oil floats on the ocean surface. They are formed by weathering of crude oil in marine environments. They are transported from the open sea to the shores by sea currents and waves. Some of the balls are as big as a basketball while others are smaller globules and can weigh as much as 6-7 kgs.
- The popular beaches of Mumbai and Goa in recent times are covered in sticky tarballs that gave off a foul fuel smell.
- It is suspected that the oil comes from the large cargo ships in the deep sea and gets pushed to the shore as tarballs during monsoon due to wind speed and direction. All the oil spilt in the Arabian sea eventually gets deposited on the western coast in the form of tarballs in the monsoon season when wind speed and circulation pattern favour transportation of these tarballs.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Stenohaline organisms are species that can only tolerate specific ranges of salinities.
- Euryhaline organisms are commonly found in habitats such as estuaries and tide pools.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Stenohaline organisms are species that can only tolerate specific ranges of salinities. They are opposite of a stenohaline organism. A euryhaline organism can withstand different salinities and can cope with a wide range of different environments. Euryhaline organisms are commonly found in habitats such as estuaries and tide pools.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Stenohaline organisms are species that can only tolerate specific ranges of salinities. They are opposite of a stenohaline organism. A euryhaline organism can withstand different salinities and can cope with a wide range of different environments. Euryhaline organisms are commonly found in habitats such as estuaries and tide pools.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
The terms E12 and E15 recently in news are related to:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Emission standards for biofuels:
- The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has notified mass emission standards for E12 (12% Ethanol with Gasoline) and E15 (15% Ethanol 12 with gasoline) biofuels. This will enable the automotive industry to manufacture E12 and E15 compliant motor vehicles. These rules may be called Central Motor Vehicles (25th Amendment) Rules, 2021(CMVR). The compatibility of the vehicle to the level of ethanol blend of E12 or E15 or E20 or E85 or E100 shall be defined by the vehicle manufacturer and the same shall be displayed on the vehicle by putting a clearly visible sticker after the serial number. For the bi-fuel vehicles, the reference gasoline fuel shall be as per E5 or E10 or E12 or E15 as declared by the manufacturer during approval. Vehicles manufacturer shall submit the vehicle to the test agencies referred under rule 126, for CMVR compliance.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Emission standards for biofuels:
- The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways has notified mass emission standards for E12 (12% Ethanol with Gasoline) and E15 (15% Ethanol 12 with gasoline) biofuels. This will enable the automotive industry to manufacture E12 and E15 compliant motor vehicles. These rules may be called Central Motor Vehicles (25th Amendment) Rules, 2021(CMVR). The compatibility of the vehicle to the level of ethanol blend of E12 or E15 or E20 or E85 or E100 shall be defined by the vehicle manufacturer and the same shall be displayed on the vehicle by putting a clearly visible sticker after the serial number. For the bi-fuel vehicles, the reference gasoline fuel shall be as per E5 or E10 or E12 or E15 as declared by the manufacturer during approval. Vehicles manufacturer shall submit the vehicle to the test agencies referred under rule 126, for CMVR compliance.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to Compressed Bio-Gas (CBG):
- Biogas is purified to remove carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide gases to prepare CBG.
- CBG has a calorific value similar to CNG and hence can be utilized as green renewable automotive fuel.
- The CBG can be transported through cylinder cascades or pipelines to retail outlets.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Biogas is purified to remove carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide gases to prepare CBG. It has a pure methane content of over 90%.
CBG has a calorific value similar to CNG and hence can be utilized as green renewable automotive fuel. The CBG can be transported through cylinder cascades or pipelines to retail outlets. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Biogas is purified to remove carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide gases to prepare CBG. It has a pure methane content of over 90%.
CBG has a calorific value similar to CNG and hence can be utilized as green renewable automotive fuel. The CBG can be transported through cylinder cascades or pipelines to retail outlets. -
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding Nurdles is not correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
a) b) c) d) Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Nurdles are highly persistent pollutants that continue to circulate in ocean currents. Nurdles are tiny plastic pellets that form the raw materials of most of today’s plastic products and are made of polyethylene, polypropylene, polystyrene, polyvinyl chloride and other plastics. Nurdles act as rafts for harmful bacteria such as E coli and Cholera. Nurdles act as toxic sponges attracting many toxic chemicals on its surface. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
a) b) c) d) Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Nurdles are highly persistent pollutants that continue to circulate in ocean currents. Nurdles are tiny plastic pellets that form the raw materials of most of today’s plastic products and are made of polyethylene, polypropylene, polystyrene, polyvinyl chloride and other plastics. Nurdles act as rafts for harmful bacteria such as E coli and Cholera. Nurdles act as toxic sponges attracting many toxic chemicals on its surface. -
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements regarding very short-lived halogenated substances (VSLS):
- They are ozone-depleting halogen-containing substances found in the stratosphere.
- 90% of VSLS are produced by anthropogenic causes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect They are ozone-depleting halogen-containing substances found in the stratosphere. Approximately 90% of VSLS are produced by natural processes and their rate of production is increasing. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect They are ozone-depleting halogen-containing substances found in the stratosphere. Approximately 90% of VSLS are produced by natural processes and their rate of production is increasing. -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Ecological Threat Report 2021 has been published by:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The ‘Ecological Threat Report (ETR) 2021: Understanding ecological threats, resilience and peace’ was released by the Institute of Economics and Peace, an international think tank.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The ‘Ecological Threat Report (ETR) 2021: Understanding ecological threats, resilience and peace’ was released by the Institute of Economics and Peace, an international think tank.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
With reference to the Earth shot Prize, consider the following statements:
- It is awarded for contributions towards achieving UN Sustainable Development Goals.
- It has been instituted by Earth System Governance Project.
- No Indian has ever won this award.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect It is awarded for contributions towards achieving UN Sustainable Development Goals. It is an award set up by Prince William and the Royal Foundation, the charity founded by the Duke and Duchess of Cambridge, and historian David Attenborough (Winner of Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2019). The Earthshot Prize 2021 Indian Winner: ‘Clean our Air’ Takachar, India: A portable machine created to turn agricultural waste into fertilizer so that farmers do not burn their fields and cause air pollution. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect It is awarded for contributions towards achieving UN Sustainable Development Goals. It is an award set up by Prince William and the Royal Foundation, the charity founded by the Duke and Duchess of Cambridge, and historian David Attenborough (Winner of Indira Gandhi Peace Prize, 2019). The Earthshot Prize 2021 Indian Winner: ‘Clean our Air’ Takachar, India: A portable machine created to turn agricultural waste into fertilizer so that farmers do not burn their fields and cause air pollution. -
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Montreal Process, Near East Process, Bhopal–India Process are related to:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Montreal Process, Near East Process, Bhopal-India Process are related to Sustainable Forest Management.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Montreal Process, Near East Process, Bhopal-India Process are related to Sustainable Forest Management.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
According to India’s Hazardous and Other Wastes (Management and Transboundary Movement) Rules, which of the following wastes has/have been prohibited for import?
- Waste edible fats and oils of vegetable or animal origin
- Household waste
- Critical care medical equipment
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Waste edible fats and oils of vegetable or animal origin Household waste Critical care medical equipment Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Waste edible fats and oils of vegetable or animal origin Household waste Critical care medical equipment -
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to Society of Integrated Coastal Zone Management (SICOM):
- SICOM is the National Project Management Unit of the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) project.
- Its objective is to check violations to CRZ (Coastal Regulation Zone) through improved technology-enabled enforcement.
- It has been established under the aegis of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct SICOM is the National Project Management Unit of the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) project. Its objective is to check violations to CRZ (Coastal Regulation Zone) through improved technology-enabled enforcement. It has been established under the aegis of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct SICOM is the National Project Management Unit of the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) project. Its objective is to check violations to CRZ (Coastal Regulation Zone) through improved technology-enabled enforcement. It has been established under the aegis of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. -
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to ‘Strategic Approach to International Chemicals Management (SAICM)’:
- It is a part of the United Nations Environment Programme.
- It was adopted at the World Summit on Sustainable Development, 2002.
- ‘Project Lead in Paint’ is an initiative of SAICM.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It is a part of the United Nations Environment Programme. It was adopted by the First International Conference on Chemicals Management (ICCM1) on 6 February 2006 in Dubai. ‘Project Lead in Paint’ is an initiative of SAICM. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct It is a part of the United Nations Environment Programme. It was adopted by the First International Conference on Chemicals Management (ICCM1) on 6 February 2006 in Dubai. ‘Project Lead in Paint’ is an initiative of SAICM. -
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
In the context of environmental conservation, Glowing Glowing Gone campaign has been launched to:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Glowing Glowing Gone Campaign:
- In partnership with the United Nations Environment Programme, the Ocean Agency has launched Glowing Glowing Gone, a creative awareness campaign that draws attention towards conservation of coral reefs.
- Coral fluorescence, or ‘glowing’ coral, is a last line of defence before coral dies and bleaches. In a desperate attempt to survive increasing ocean heat waves due to climate change, some corals glow in vibrant colour. The corals produce brightly coloured chemicals in their flesh that act as a sunscreen.
- Through Glowing Glowing Gone, The Ocean Agency hopes to garner public support to inspire policy and funding to conserve coral reefs and save an ecosystem on which our entire planet depends.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Glowing Glowing Gone Campaign:
- In partnership with the United Nations Environment Programme, the Ocean Agency has launched Glowing Glowing Gone, a creative awareness campaign that draws attention towards conservation of coral reefs.
- Coral fluorescence, or ‘glowing’ coral, is a last line of defence before coral dies and bleaches. In a desperate attempt to survive increasing ocean heat waves due to climate change, some corals glow in vibrant colour. The corals produce brightly coloured chemicals in their flesh that act as a sunscreen.
- Through Glowing Glowing Gone, The Ocean Agency hopes to garner public support to inspire policy and funding to conserve coral reefs and save an ecosystem on which our entire planet depends.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Match the following tiger reserves with the states they belong to.
- Namdapha: Assam
- Achanakmar: Chhattisgarh
- Mukandra Hills: Rajasthan
- Sariska: Odisha
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect Namdapha: Arunachal Pradesh Achanakmar: Chhattisgarh Mukandra Hills: Rajasthan Sariska: Rajasthan Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect Namdapha: Arunachal Pradesh Achanakmar: Chhattisgarh Mukandra Hills: Rajasthan Sariska: Rajasthan -
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘World Forest Congress’
- It serves as a forum for governments, civil society and private sector to exchange views
- It has been held under the aegis of International Union for Conservation of Nature and World Wide Fund for Nature
- The Sustaining an Abundance of Forest Ecosystems (SAFE) initiative was launched by WFC at the Seoul convention
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct WFC serves as a forum for governments, civil society and private sector to exchange views and to formulate recommendations for implementation at national, regional and global levels It has been held (generally every six years) under Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) since 1954. Theme for this year was “Building a Green, Healthy and Resilient Future” Assuring the Future of Forests with Integrated Risk Management (AFFIRM) Mechanism to enable countries better understand, manage and affront forest fires and Sustaining an Abundance of Forest Ecosystems (SAFE) initiative were launched at WFC held at Seoul recently Context – World Forestry Congress adopted Seoul Forest Declaration recently
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct WFC serves as a forum for governments, civil society and private sector to exchange views and to formulate recommendations for implementation at national, regional and global levels It has been held (generally every six years) under Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) since 1954. Theme for this year was “Building a Green, Healthy and Resilient Future” Assuring the Future of Forests with Integrated Risk Management (AFFIRM) Mechanism to enable countries better understand, manage and affront forest fires and Sustaining an Abundance of Forest Ecosystems (SAFE) initiative were launched at WFC held at Seoul recently Context – World Forestry Congress adopted Seoul Forest Declaration recently
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
With reference to ‘Places of Worship Act of 1991’, consider the following statements
- It provides for the maintenance of the religious character of all places of worship as it existed on the 15th day of August, 1947
- Any legal proceeding with respect to the conversion of the religious character of any place of worship existing on August 15, 1947 pending before any court are abated
Select the correct statement(s)
Correct
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The act provides for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on the 15th day of August, 1947. However, Section 5 stipulates that the Act shall not apply to the Ramjanmabhoomi-Babri Masjid case, and to any suit, appeal, or proceeding relating to it. Section 4(2) says any legal proceeding with respect to the conversion of the religious character of any place of worship existing on August 15, 1947, pending before any court, shall abate — and no fresh suit or legal proceedings shall be instituted. The proviso to this subsection saves suits, appeals and legal proceedings that are pending on the date of commencement of the Act, if they pertain to the conversion of the religious character of a place of worship after the cut-off date. Context – Supreme Court will hear a challenge to the order of a civil court in Varanasi directing a videographic survey of the Maa Shringar Gauri Sthal in the Kashi Vishwanath temple-Gyanvapi mosque complex.
Incorrect
Solution(b)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The act provides for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of worship as it existed on the 15th day of August, 1947. However, Section 5 stipulates that the Act shall not apply to the Ramjanmabhoomi-Babri Masjid case, and to any suit, appeal, or proceeding relating to it. Section 4(2) says any legal proceeding with respect to the conversion of the religious character of any place of worship existing on August 15, 1947, pending before any court, shall abate — and no fresh suit or legal proceedings shall be instituted. The proviso to this subsection saves suits, appeals and legal proceedings that are pending on the date of commencement of the Act, if they pertain to the conversion of the religious character of a place of worship after the cut-off date. Context – Supreme Court will hear a challenge to the order of a civil court in Varanasi directing a videographic survey of the Maa Shringar Gauri Sthal in the Kashi Vishwanath temple-Gyanvapi mosque complex.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘National Startup Advisory Council’
- The council will suggest measures to foster a culture of innovation amongst citizens and students
- Minister of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship is the chairman of this council
Select the correct statement(s)
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The functions of NSAC are – 1. Suggests measures to foster a culture of innovation amongst citizens and students, promote innovation in all sectors of the economy across the country.
2. Suggests measures to facilitate public organisations to assimilate innovation with a view to improving public service delivery, promote creation, protection and commercialization of intellectual property rights.
3. Suggest measures to make it easier to start, operate, grow and exit businesses by reducing regulatory compliances and costs, promote ease of access to capital for startups.
Chairman of NSAC is the Minister for Commerce & Industry and the Convener of the Council is the Joint Secretary of Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. Context – Minister of Commerce and Industry launched the NavIC Grand Challenge at National Startup Advisory Council (NSAC) meeting.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The functions of NSAC are – 1. Suggests measures to foster a culture of innovation amongst citizens and students, promote innovation in all sectors of the economy across the country.
2. Suggests measures to facilitate public organisations to assimilate innovation with a view to improving public service delivery, promote creation, protection and commercialization of intellectual property rights.
3. Suggest measures to make it easier to start, operate, grow and exit businesses by reducing regulatory compliances and costs, promote ease of access to capital for startups.
Chairman of NSAC is the Minister for Commerce & Industry and the Convener of the Council is the Joint Secretary of Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade. Context – Minister of Commerce and Industry launched the NavIC Grand Challenge at National Startup Advisory Council (NSAC) meeting.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
‘Macolin Convention’ seen in news recently is related to
Correct
Solution (d)
The Council of Europe Convention on the Manipulation of Sports Competitions, known as the Macolin Convention, is a multilateral treaty aimed at checking match-fixing. It came into force on September 1, 2019.
Context – The 12th meeting of Interpol’s Match-Fixing Task Force (IMFTF), in which the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was one of the participants, concluded with a call for harmonised global efforts to curb competition manipulation.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
The Council of Europe Convention on the Manipulation of Sports Competitions, known as the Macolin Convention, is a multilateral treaty aimed at checking match-fixing. It came into force on September 1, 2019.
Context – The 12th meeting of Interpol’s Match-Fixing Task Force (IMFTF), in which the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) was one of the participants, concluded with a call for harmonised global efforts to curb competition manipulation.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Kanheri Caves’:
- Artistic evidence of all the three vehicles of Buddhism is found here
- Earliest reference of Kanheri is ascribed to Fa-Hien
- Kanheri flourished under the patronage of Mauryas, Nandas and Kushanas
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Kanheri consists of excavations primarily undertaken during the Hinayana phase but also has several examples of the Mahayana stylistic architecture as well as few printings of the Vajrayana order. Kanheri was mentioned in the travelogues of foreign travellers. The earliest reference of Kanheri is ascribed to Fa-Hein who visited India during 399-411 CE and later by several other travellers Kanheri flourished under the patronage of Satavahana, Traikutakas, Vakatakas and Silaharas and through donations made by the wealthy merchants of the region. Its importance is heightened by the fact that it is the only centre where a continuous progression of Buddhist faith and architecture is observed as an unbroken legacy right from 2nd century CE (cave no. 2 stupa) to 9th century CE Context – Ministry of Tourism inaugurated public amenities at Kanheri Caves.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect Kanheri consists of excavations primarily undertaken during the Hinayana phase but also has several examples of the Mahayana stylistic architecture as well as few printings of the Vajrayana order. Kanheri was mentioned in the travelogues of foreign travellers. The earliest reference of Kanheri is ascribed to Fa-Hein who visited India during 399-411 CE and later by several other travellers Kanheri flourished under the patronage of Satavahana, Traikutakas, Vakatakas and Silaharas and through donations made by the wealthy merchants of the region. Its importance is heightened by the fact that it is the only centre where a continuous progression of Buddhist faith and architecture is observed as an unbroken legacy right from 2nd century CE (cave no. 2 stupa) to 9th century CE Context – Ministry of Tourism inaugurated public amenities at Kanheri Caves.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
For each hour a watch is going slow by 30 seconds. Now the time is 7 a.m., when the clock is set right. What will be the time in watch when the actual time is 7 p.m.?
Correct
Solution (a)
30 seconds lost in 1 hr.
So, in 12 hours, time lost = 30 × 12 = 360 seconds = 6 minutes
So, when actual time at 7:00 PM watch will show 6:54 PM
Incorrect
Solution (a)
30 seconds lost in 1 hr.
So, in 12 hours, time lost = 30 × 12 = 360 seconds = 6 minutes
So, when actual time at 7:00 PM watch will show 6:54 PM
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
A watch which gains 5 seconds in 3 minutes was set right at 7 a.m. In the afternoon of the same day, when the watch indicated quarter past 4 o’clock, the true time is:
Correct
Solution (c)
Watch was set right at 7 a.m.
Time from 7 a.m. to 4.15 p.m. =9hrs 15min=37/4 hrs.
3 min 5 sec of this clock = 3 min of the correct clock.
Thus, 37/720 hrs of this clock=1/20hrs.of the correct clock.
Therefore 37/4 hrs of this clock=1/20×720/37×37/4hrs of the correct clock.
= 9 hrs. of the correct clock.
Therefore,9 hrs. 15 min of this clock = 9 hrs of the correct clock
Hence the correct time is 9 hrs after 7 a.m. i.e., 4 p.m.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Watch was set right at 7 a.m.
Time from 7 a.m. to 4.15 p.m. =9hrs 15min=37/4 hrs.
3 min 5 sec of this clock = 3 min of the correct clock.
Thus, 37/720 hrs of this clock=1/20hrs.of the correct clock.
Therefore 37/4 hrs of this clock=1/20×720/37×37/4hrs of the correct clock.
= 9 hrs. of the correct clock.
Therefore,9 hrs. 15 min of this clock = 9 hrs of the correct clock
Hence the correct time is 9 hrs after 7 a.m. i.e., 4 p.m.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
If every second Saturday and all Sundays are holidays in a 30 days month beginning on Saturday, then how many working days are there in that month ? (Month starts from Saturday)
Correct
Solution (b)
As month begins on Saturday, so 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th days will be Sundays.
While 8th and 22nd days are second Saturdays.
Thus, there are 7 holidays in all. Hence, no. of working days = 30 – 7 =23
Incorrect
Solution (b)
As month begins on Saturday, so 2nd, 9th, 16th, 23rd, 30th days will be Sundays.
While 8th and 22nd days are second Saturdays.
Thus, there are 7 holidays in all. Hence, no. of working days = 30 – 7 =23
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
If 10th May, 1997 was a Monday, what was the day on Oct 10, 2001?
Correct
Solution (d)
In this question, the reference point is May 10, 1997 and we need to find the number of odd days from May 10, 1997 up to Oct 10, 2001.
Now, from May 11, 1997 – May 10, 1998 = 1 odd day (Dividing 365 days by 7 )
May 11, 1998 – May 10, 1999 = 1 odd day
May 11, 1999 – May 10, 2000 = 2 odd days (2000 was leap year)
May 11, 2000 – May 10, 2001 = 1 odd day
Thus, the total number of odd days up to May 10, 2001 = 5
The remaining 21 days of May will give 0 odd days.
In June, we have 2 odd days; in July, 3 odd days; in August, 3 odd days; in September,2 odd days and up to 10th October, we have 3 odd days.
Hence, total number of odd days = 18 i.e. 4 odd days.
Since, May 10, 1997 was a Monday, and then 4 days after Monday would be Friday.
So, Oct 10, 2001 was Friday.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
In this question, the reference point is May 10, 1997 and we need to find the number of odd days from May 10, 1997 up to Oct 10, 2001.
Now, from May 11, 1997 – May 10, 1998 = 1 odd day (Dividing 365 days by 7 )
May 11, 1998 – May 10, 1999 = 1 odd day
May 11, 1999 – May 10, 2000 = 2 odd days (2000 was leap year)
May 11, 2000 – May 10, 2001 = 1 odd day
Thus, the total number of odd days up to May 10, 2001 = 5
The remaining 21 days of May will give 0 odd days.
In June, we have 2 odd days; in July, 3 odd days; in August, 3 odd days; in September,2 odd days and up to 10th October, we have 3 odd days.
Hence, total number of odd days = 18 i.e. 4 odd days.
Since, May 10, 1997 was a Monday, and then 4 days after Monday would be Friday.
So, Oct 10, 2001 was Friday.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only
British colonial policy went through two policy phases, or at least there were two strategies between which its policies actually oscillated, sometimes to its great advantage. At first, the new colonial apparatus exercised caution, and occupied India by a mix of military power and subtle diplomacy, the high ground in the middle of the circle of circles. This, however, pushed them into contradictions. For, whatever their sense of the strangeness of the country and the thinness of colonial presence, the British colonial state represented the great conquering discourse of Enlightenment rationalism, entering India precisely at the moment of its greatest unchecked arrogance. As inheritors and representatives of this discourse, which carried everything before it, this colonial state could hardly adopt for long such a self-denying attitude. It had restructured everything in Europe—the productive system, the political regimes, the moral and cognitive orders—and would do the same in India, particularly as some empirically inclined theorists of that generation considered the colonies a massive laboratory of utilitarian or other theoretical experiments. Consequently, the colonial state could not settle simply for eminence at the cost of its marginality; it began to take initiatives to introduce the logic of modernity into Indian society. But this modernity did not enter a passive society. Sometimes, its initiatives were resisted by pre-existing structural forms. At times, there was a more direct form of collective resistance. Therefore the map of continuity and discontinuity that this state left behind at the time of independence was rather complex and has to be traced with care.
Most significantly, of course, initiatives for modernity came to assume an external character. The acceptance of modernity came to be connected, ineradicably, with subjection. This again points to two different problems, one theoretical, the other political. Theoretically, because modernity was externally introduced, it is explanatorily unhelpful to apply the logical format of the ‘transition process’ to this pattern of change. Such a logical format would be wrong on two counts. First, however subtly, it would imply that what was proposed to be built was something like European capitalism. (And, in any case, historians have forcefully argued that what it was to replace was not like feudalism, with or without modificatory adjectives.) But, more fundamentally, the logical structure of endogenous change does not apply here. Here transformation agendas attack as an external force. This externality is not something that can be casually mentioned and forgotten. It is inscribed on every move, every object, every proposal, every legislative act, and each line of causality. It comes to be marked on the epoch itself. This repetitive emphasis on externality should not be seen as a nationalist initiative that is so well rehearsed in Indian social science.
Quite apart from the externality of the entire historical proposal of modernity, some of its contents were remarkable. Economic reforms, or rather alterations did not foreshadow the construction of a classical capitalist economy, with its necessary emphasis on extractive and transport sectors. What happened was the creation of a degenerate version of capitalism—what early dependency theorists called the ‘development of underdevelopment’.
Which of the following observations is a valid conclusion to draw from the author’s statement that “the logical structure of endogenous change does not apply here. Here transformation agendas attack as an external force”?
Correct
Solution (d)
‘Endogenous change’ means change from within. The first line means that the transformation of the Indian society did not proceed due to changes within the system. ‘Transformation agendas attack as an external force’ means the agenda to transform the society was imposed upon by external forces. Here, the external force is the colonial agenda. Option d, sums this up best.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
‘Endogenous change’ means change from within. The first line means that the transformation of the Indian society did not proceed due to changes within the system. ‘Transformation agendas attack as an external force’ means the agenda to transform the society was imposed upon by external forces. Here, the external force is the colonial agenda. Option d, sums this up best.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
All the Best
IASbaba