DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th February 2023

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Governance

Context: Recently, the Competition Commission of India (CCI) Invoked the “doctrine of necessity” to clear six deals involving mergers & acquisitions (M&A) and investment proposals.

About Doctrine of necessity:

• It allows the legal authorities to carry out certain activities which are not permitted in the normal course.
• This term is used to describe a principle of constitutional law, where in an emergency or an exigent circumstance, a state may legally act which in other circumstances is deemed to be illegal.
• The term was first used in 1954 in a controversial judgment in Pakistan.
• The Doctrine of Necessity was changed to the Doctrine of Absolute Necessity in the case of “Election Commission of India v. Dr. Subramaniam Swamy”
• Outcome: This doctrine shall be used only in case of absolute necessity.
• It acts as a defense against violating the law making the decision valid and not biased.
• Doctrine of necessity acts as an exception to ‘Nemo judex in causa sua’, where an authority is disqualified on the grounds of a biased decision.

Source:  Business Standard

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022)

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2022)

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Economy

Context: Scientists at the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) has forecasted the impact of the hot weather on crop yield in Punjab and Haryana where InfoCrop is one such forecast tool.

About InfoCrop:

• It is India’s only dynamic crop simulation model.
• It is developed and released by IARI in 2015.
• It aims to study the long-term impact of climate change and crop management practices on yield.
• It is a process based dynamic (real time) simulation model to calculate the growth of yield of 11 crops.
• 11 crops: paddy, wheat, maize, sorghum, pearl millet, pigeon pea, chickpea, soybean, groundnut, potato and cotton.
• It also has the life cycle data for almost all the local varieties of those 11 crops.
• It provides data on the effects of weather, soil and crop management (sowing, seed rate, organic matter nitrogen and irrigation) and pests.
• It provides daily and summary outputs on growth and yield parameters, nitrogen uptake and balance, greenhouse gas emissions, soil water.
• It performs better for tropical regions.
• In 2004, InfoCrop version 1 was launched whereas version 2.1 was launched in 2015.

Other forecasting models:

• The Mahalanobis National Crop Forecast Centre provides pre-harvest forecasts for eight major crops at the national, state and district levels.
• It works under the Union Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

Other key facts:

• Currently, India does not have a system to forecast crop loss due to heatwaves or other extreme weather conditions.

Source:  DownToEarth

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2022)

1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Consider the following statements:

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022)

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Economy

Context: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India announced the launching of a pilot project on QR code-based coin vending machine.

About QR Code-based Coin Vending Machine:

• The machine is to be launched in 12 cities in the first phase.
• The QCVM is a cashless coin dispenser that dispenses coins in exchange for a debit to the customer’s bank account via the Unified Payments Interface (UPI).
• These machines will use UPI-based code systems to provide coins.
• Earlier the machines tendered the bank notes physically.
• Here the consumer need not use currency notes.
• Rather he shall use his bank account password or a pin to get coins.
• As he enters the pin or password, the vending machine verifies with his bank account and issues coins from his bank account directly.
• Earlier, the consumer had to drop in currency notes to get coins.

Source: The Hindu

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022)

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market
2. The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021)

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Governance

Context: DHARA the annual meeting of the members of the River Cities Alliance (RCA), is being organised by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) in association with the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA).

• DHARA which stands for Driving Holistic Action for Urban Rivers, is a platform to co-learn and discuss solutions for managing local water resources.

About River Cities Alliance:

• River Cities Alliance (RCA) was launched in 2021 as a dedicated platform for river cities across India to discuss and exchange information for sustainable management of urban rivers.
• It includes cities from both the Ganga basin and non-Ganga basin states.
• River Cities Alliance is a first-of-its-kind Alliance in the world, symbolising the successful partnership of the two Ministries i.e., the Ministry of Jal Shakti and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
• The Alliance focuses on three broad themes- Networking, Capacity Building and Technical Support.

Source: PIB

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022)

1. Database created by coalition of research organisations
2. Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
3. Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
4. Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Q.2) Consider the following statements:

1. The Climate Group is an international non-profit organisation that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022)

1. 1,2, 4 and 5
2. 1,3 and 4 only
3. 2,3 and 5 only
4. 1,2, 3, 4 and 5

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Environment and Ecology

Context:  Andhra Pradesh Forest Department is initiating a series of measures to develop the place and document the flora and fauna of the region.

About Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary:

• The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is a forest located near Visakhapatnam, near Andhra Pradesh.
• The sanctuary is a tropical deciduous forest with a canopy of tree cover of mixed composition along with scrubland and meadows.
• It is bordered by Simhachalam hill range on the West and Gambheeram reservoir on the North-east.
• Important species: 
  • Fauna: The indicator species is the Indian leopard. Other species found here are Indian clouded gecko, bulbuls, barbets, cuckoos, flycatchers, hornbills and leafbirds, starlings
  • Flora: Jamun tree, Red cutch tree, Teak,  Indigo tree, Rosewood, Neem.

Source: The Hindu

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? (2020)

1. Nagarhole National Park
2. Papikonda National Park
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020)

1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Gangotri National Park
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Manas National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1 and 4 only

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Environment and Ecology

Context:  Role of Industrial Aerosols in contributing to Global Cooling. A new study reveals that inactive volcanoes contributed 66 percent of sulphate emissions, known to cool the planet, in the preindustrial era.

About Aerosols:

• Aerosols are defined as a combination of liquid or solid particles suspended in a gaseous or liquid environment.
• In the atmosphere, these particles are mainly situated in the low layers of the atmosphere (< 1.5 km) since aerosol sources are located on the terrestrial surface.
• However, certain aerosols can still be found in the stratosphere, especially volcanic aerosols ejected into the high altitude layers.
• Source of aerosols 
  • Natural sources – sea salt generated from breaking waves, mineral dust blown from the surface by wind, and volcanoes.
  • Anthropogenic aerosols – sulphate, nitrate, and carbonaceous aerosols, and are mainly from fossil fuel combustion sources.

Effects of aerosols:

• They affect the atmospheric chemical composition.
• They can reduce visibility.
• They have important impacts on air quality and human health (e.g. aerosols can cause damage to heart and lungs).

• They serve as nuclei for cloud droplets or ice crystals in ice clouds.

Source: DownToEarth   

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ?

1. Cotton
2. Rice
3. Sugarcane
4. Wheat

Q.2) Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain? (2022)

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Environment

Context:  A new beetle species has been discovered in India, according to a paper published in the New Zealand-based journal Zootaxa.

About Omorgus Khandesh: 

• It is necrophagous, therefore, also called a keratin beetle
• It belongs to the Trogidae family. 
• Features: 
  • The beetles of this group are sometimes called hide beetles as they tend to cover their body under the soil and hide.
  • They are not photogenic; they are usually black or grey and encrusted in dirt.
  • Their bumpy appearance is distinct, with short, dense setae all over the body.

Significance:

• The beetle is important for forensic science as it helps detect the time of death of an animal or human.

Source: DownToEarth

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022)

1. Golden Mahseer
2. Indian Nightjar
3. Spoonbill
4. White Ibis

Q.2) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022)

1. Ant
2. Cockroach
3. Crab
4. Spider

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Syllabus

• Prelims –  Science and Technology

Context:  Equatorial Guinea has confirmed its first-ever outbreak of Marburg virus disease.

About Marburg Viral Disease:

•  Marburg virus disease (MVD), formerly known as Marburg hemorrhagic fever, is a severe, often fatal illness in humans.
• Marburg virus is the member of the Filoviridae family (filovirus). 

Transmission:

• Rousettus aegyptiacus, fruit bats of the Pteropodidae family, are considered to be natural hosts of the Marburg virus.
• The Marburg virus is transmitted to people from fruit bats and spreads among humans through human-to-human transmission  via direct contact with the blood, organs or other bodily fluids of infected people, and with surfaces and materials contaminated with these fluids.

Treatment:

There are no authorised vaccines or drugs to treat Marburg, but rehydration treatment to alleviate symptoms can improve the chances of survival.

Source: DownToEarth

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022)

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Consider the following:

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus

Which of the above can be cultured in an artificial/ synthetic medium? (2021)

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Indian Economy

Context: CBDT notifies Income-tax Return Forms for assessment year 2023-24

Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT):

• It is a statutory body established as per the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
• It is India’s official financial action task force unit.
• It is administered by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance.
• At present, the CBDT has six members
• Ex-officio members of the Board also function as a division of the Ministry of Finance

Functions of the CBDT:

• Oversight of the Internal Revenue Service as a whole.
• Suggestions for the tax rates to be changed.
• In accordance with government policies, planning changes to the taxes structure of India.
• It is proposed that direct tax legislation be amended.
• It is in charge of the collection and levying of direct taxes.

Income Tax Return:

• Income Tax Returns, often known as ITRs, are forms used to declare net tax liabilities, claim tax deductions, and report gross taxable income. Individuals who make a specific amount of money are required to file IT returns.
• Income Tax Return Forms are notified by CBDT

Source:    All India Radio

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBS.

Which of the statements given above are correct? (2022)

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct? (2022)

1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Polity and Governance

Context: The present Lok Sabha and five state Assemblies have not elected Deputy Speakers.

About Office of Deputy Speaker:

• Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
• Article 178 contains the corresponding position for Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly of a state.

Elected By:

• Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place.
• The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker
• The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Reforms).

Term of Office and Removal:

• Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of the Lok Sabha (5 years).
• Deputy Speaker may vacate his/her office earlier in any of the following three cases
  • If he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha.
  • If he resigns by writing to the Speaker.
  • If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha.

Responsibilities and Powers (Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha):

• Article 95 of the constitution, the Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant.
• Special privilege, that is, whenever he/she is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he/she automatically becomes its chairman.

Deputy Speaker and Tenth Schedule (Exception):

• Para 5 of the Tenth Schedule (commonly known as the anti-defection law) says that a person who has been elected Speaker/ Deputy Speaker shall not be disqualified:
  • Voluntarily gives up the membership of the political party

Previous Year Questions

Q.1)  With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 2 and 4 only

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Syllabus

• Mains – GS 3 (Environment)

Context: Recently, the report “Global Sea-level Rise and Implications” was released by the World Meteorological Organisation (WMO).

Key highlights of the report:

• Threats of Sea level rise: India, China, Bangladesh and the Netherlands face the highest threat of sea-level rise globally.
  • The report stated that several big cities in all continents are threatened by the rise in sea level.
  • These include Shanghai, Dhaka, Bangkok, Jakarta, Mumbai, Maputo, Lagos, Cairo, London, Copenhagen, New York, Los Angeles, Buenos Aires and Santiago.
• Stimulating factors: If trends in urbanisation in exposed areas continue, this will exacerbate the impacts, with more challenges where energy, water and other services are constrained,” it reported.
  • The impacts of average sea-level rise are boosted by storm surges and tidal variations, as was the situation during the landfall of hurricane Sandy in New York and Cyclone Idai in Mozambique.
• Melting of ice mass in Antarctica: According to future estimates based on climate models and ocean-atmosphere physics, the WMO reported that the speed of melting of the largest global ice mass in Antarctica is uncertain.

Impact of Sea level rise:

• Submergence: According to the report, while sea-level rise is not globally uniform and varies regionally, continued and accelerating sea-level rise will encroach on coastal settlements and infrastructure and commit low-lying coastal ecosystems to submergence and loss.
• All round impact: Sea level rise is a major economic, social and humanitarian challenge.
• It threatens coastal farmlands and water reserves and resilience of infrastructures as well as human lives and livelihoods, the report noted.
• Food insecurity: Climate change will increasingly put pressure on food production and access, especially in vulnerable regions, undermining food security and nutrition and increases in frequency, intensity and severity of droughts, floods and heatwaves, and continued sea level rise will increase risks to food security in vulnerable regions.

Primary reasons for the Sea Level Rise: The change in sea levels is linked to three primary factors, all induced by ongoing global climate change:

• Melting glaciers:
  • Large ice formations such as mountain glaciers naturally melt a bit each summer.
  • In the winter, snows, primarily from evaporated sea water, are generally sufficient to balance out the melting.
  • Recently, though, persistently higher temperatures caused by global warming have led to greater than average summer melting as well as diminished snowfall due to later winters and earlier springs.
• Thermal expansion:
  • When water heats up, it expands.
  • About half of the sea-level rise over the past 25 years is attributable to warmer oceans simply occupying more space.
• Loss of Greenland and Antarctica’s ice sheets:
  • As with mountain glaciers, increased heat is causing the massive ice sheets that cover Greenland and Antarctica to melt more quickly.
  • Scientists also believe that meltwater from above and seawater from below is seeping beneath Greenland’s ice sheets, effectively lubricating ice streams and causing them to move more quickly into the sea.
  • While melting in West Antarctica has drawn considerable focus from scientists, especially with the 2017 break in the Larsen C ice shelf, glaciers in East Antarctica are also showing signs of destabilizing.

Way Forward:

• Coastal cities and settlements play a key role in moving toward higher climate resilient development given firstly, almost 11% of the global population of 896 million people lived within the Low Elevation Coastal Zone in 2020, potentially increasing to beyond 1 billion people by 2050.
• These people, and associated development and coastal ecosystems, face escalating climate compounded risks, including sea level rise.
• The Coastal cities can implement the following measures to address sea level rise
  • Using Beaches As Barriers
  • Building Seawalls
  • Raising Roads
  • Building Stormwater Pumps
  • Upgrading Sewage Systems
  • Creating Natural Infrastructure
  • Slowing Land Sinkage
  • Global Plans to reduce the impacts of Sea Level rise:
• In Jakarta, a $40 billion project will aim to protect the city with an 80-foot-high seawall.
• Rotterdam, home to the global Centre on Adaptation, has offered a model to other cities seeking to combat flooding and land loss.
• The Dutch city has built barriers, drainage, and innovative architectural features such as Water Square with temporary ponds.

Source: Indian Express

Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT):

1. It is a statutory body
2. It is administered by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Consider the following:

1. Breaking waves
2. Mineral dust
3. Volcanoes
4. fossil fuel combustion

Which of the above are sources of aerosol pollution?

1. 1 2 and 3 only
2. 2 3 and 4 only
3. 1 2 and 4 only
4. 1 2 3 and 4

Q.3) The Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Telangana
4. Odisha

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’ 16th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – b

Q.2) – b

Q.3) – d