[DAY 25] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Features of parliamentary system of government

1. Nominal and Real Heads of the State:

• The nominal executive and the ceremonial head of state.
• The Prime Minister of India, who is also the real executive, is the head of government whereas the President is the nominal head.
• According to Article 74, the President’s functions would be aided and advised by a council of ministers led by the Prime Minister.

2. The Executive is a part of the Legislative Branch:

• The Executive is a branch of government that reports to the legislature. To be a member of the executive in India, one must be a member of parliament. Hence option 5 is correct.
• However, if a person is not a member of parliament, the constitution allows him to be appointed as a minister for a maximum of six months before ceasing to be one.

3. Majority Party Rule:

• The government is formed by the party that obtains the majority of seats in the Lower House elections.
• The President of India invites the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha to form a government.
• In the event that no single party has a majority, the President may invite a coalition of parties to form a government. Hence option 4 is correct.

4. Collective Responsibility:

• The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the parliament.
• The lower chamber of parliament has the power to oust a government by passing a no-confidence resolution in the house.
• In India, a government only lasts as long as it has the backing of the majority of Lok Sabha members. Hence option 2 is correct.

5. The Prime Minister as the Center of Power:

• The Prime Minister of India is the true executive.
• He is the leader of the council of ministers, and the head of the ruling government.

6. A Parliamentary Opposition:

• In the parliament, no government can command a 100 percent majority.
• The opposition is critical in ensuring that the political executive does not abuse its power arbitrarily.

7. Independent Civil Service:

Civil servants advise and carry out the government’s decisions.

8. Bicameral Legislature:

• The majority of countries that use the parliamentary system, including India, have bicameral legislatures.
• All of these countries’ Lower House members are chosen by the people.
• The Lower House can be dissolved if the government’s term is over if there is no way to establish a government due to a lack of majority in the house.

9. Office of Secrecy:

• In this system, members of the executive must adhere to the principle of confidentiality in subjects such as proceedings, executive meetings, and policymaking.
• Before joining their offices in India, ministers swear an oath of secrecy.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The President from time to time has to summon the each house of the parliament.
• The maximum gap between two sessions of parliament cannot be more than six months. Hence option 1 is correct.
• A sitting of parliament can be terminated by adjournment or adjournment sine die or prorogation or dissolution. An adjournment suspends the work in a sitting for specified a time, which may be hours or days or weeks.
• Whereas adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of parliament for an indefinite period. The power of adjournment and adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the house. Hence option 2 is correct and option 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: A whip is appointed by every political party with objective of ensuring discipline within the party. The office of the whip, in India, is mentioned neither in the constitution nor in the rules of the house, nor in any parliament statutes.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: India we follow the first past post system, where a candidate who wins the majority of votes gets, elected even if it is less than 50 percent of the total votes polled. The same applies for election to the lok sabha.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The resignation of the Council of Ministers may take place under the following circumstances:
• Automatic dissolution, that is, on the expiry of its tenure of five years.
• Whenever the President decides to dissolve the House, when:A No-Confidence Motion is passed by the Lok Sabha. Hence, option 1 is correct.
• Motion of Thanks i.e. the address of the President at the first session after each general election and the first session of every fiscal year, is defeated in Lok Sabha. Hence, option 2 is correct.
• A Money Bill gets defeated in the Lok Sabha. With regard to Money Bill, Rajya Sabha has restricted powers and can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha can either accept or reject. Hence, option 3 is correct.
• The Censure Motion is moved for censuring the council of ministers for specific policies and actions. If it is passed in Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers need not resign from the office

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission and commission. Hence option a is correct.
• The death or resignation of the prime minister automatically brings about the dissolution of the council of ministers, but the demise, dismissal or resignation of a minister only creates a ministerial vacancy. Hence option b is correct.
• In India, The prime minister enjoys a pre-eminent place in the government. The council of ministers cannot exists without the prime minister. The council of ministers came into existence only after the prime minister has taken the oath of office. Hence option c is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Article 84 -Qualification for membership of Parliament: A person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in Parliament unless he/she,
• Is a citizen of India, and makes and subscribes before some person authorized in that behalf by the Election Commission an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the purpose in the Third Schedule.
• Is, in the case of a seat in the Council of States, not less than thirty years of age and, in the case of a seat in the House of the People, not less than twenty five years of age. Hence option d is incorrect.
• Possesses such other qualifications as may be prescribed in that behalf by or under any law made by Parliament.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. The President, however, can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written recommendation from the cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the Prime Minister. Hence option (a) is correct.
• The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within one month from the date of its proclamation by the President. Once approved by both the houses of the Parliament the emergency continues for six months. Hence option (b) is correct.
• After completion of six months, the emergency can be extended for another six months with the approval of both the houses of Parliament. Thus the emergency can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months. This provision for periodical parliamentary approval was also added by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Before that, the emergency, once approved by the Parliament, could remain in operation as long as the Executive (cabinet) desired.
• Every resolution approving the proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either House of Parliament by a special majority that is, (a) a majority of the total membership of that house, and (b) a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that house present and voting. Impeachment resolution of the President is one case where a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of the house is required for approval. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
• A proclamation of emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval. Hence option (d) is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Private Member Bill can be passed in either house of the Parliament. And it can be introduced by any member of the parliament other than a minister. Hence option 1 is incorrect.

Committee on Private Members Bill and Resolution:

• This Committee consists of 15 members and the Deputy Speaker is its Chairman when nominated as a member of the Committee. The Committee is nominated by the Speaker. The functions of the Committee are to allot time to Private Members’ Bills and Resolutions, to examine Private Members’ Bills seeking to amend the Constitution before their introduction in Lok Sabha. Hence option 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Electoral bonds are interest free instruments like Promissory note that will be available for purchase from state bank of India within a designated window of 1 days in every quarter of the financial year. An additional period of a month will be notified in the year of elections to the lok sabha it can be brought for any value in multiples of Rs1000, Rs 100000, Rs 1 lakh, or Rs 1 crore.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Only the political parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than 1% of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.
• Statement 3 is correct: Electoral bonds may be purchased by person, who is citizen of India or a company incorporated or established in India. A person being an individual can buy these bonds either singly or jointly with other individuals.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue and no payment is being made to any payee Political Party if the Electoral Bond is deposited after expiry of the validity period.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The scheme of Youth Parliament was started on the recommendation of the Fourth All India Whips Conference. Hence option 1 is incorrect
• Its objectives are:

1. To acquaint the younger generations with practices and procedures of Parliament.
2. To imbibe the spirit of discipline and tolerance cultivating character in the minds of youth.
3. To inculcate in the student community the basic values of democracy and to enable them to acquire a proper perspective on the functioning of democratic institutions.

• The ministry of parliamentary affairs provides necessary training and encouragement to the states in introducing the scheme. Hence option 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Under Article107 (3) of the constitution, A Bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses. Prorogation of the house is done by president of India. By prorogation it means that the session of the house is terminated. However, it does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the house.
• Statement 2 is correct: The dissolution is the only provision which is applicable to Lok Sabha and not Rajya Sabha. Rajya Sabha is the permanent house of the parliament.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Supplementary Grant – It is granted when the amount authorized by the Parliament through the appropriation act for a particular service for the current financial year is found to be insufficient for that year.
• Additional Grant – It is granted when a need has rised during the current financial year for additional expenditure upon some new service not contemplated in the budget for that year.
• Excess Grant – It is granted when money has been spent on any service during a financial year in excess of the amount granted for that service in the budget for that year.It is voted by the Lok Sabha after the financial year. Hence only one pair is correct.

Before the demands for excess grants are submitted to the Lok Sabha for voting, they must be approved by the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament.

• Vote of Credit – It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India, when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget.

It is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha.

• Exceptional Grant – It is granted for a special purpose and forms no part of the current service of any financial year.
• Token Grant – It is granted when funds to meet the proposed expenditure on a new service can be made available by re-appropriation.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Financial bills are of three kinds:
  Money bills-Article 110.
  2. Financial bills (I)-Article 117 (1).
  3. Financial bills (II)-Article 117 (3). Hence option 1 is incorrect.
• Money bills are simply a species of financial bills.
• All money bills are financial bills but all financial bills are not money bills. Hence option 3 is correct.
• A financial bill (I) is similar to a money bill – both of them can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha; and both of them can be introduced only on the recommendation of the president. Hence option 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Special Mention: A matter which is not a point of order or which cannot be raised during question hour, half-an hour discussion, short duration discussion or under adjournment motion, calling attention notice or under any rule of the House can be raised under the special mention in the Rajya Sabha. Hence option 1 is correct.
• Short Duration Discussion: It is also known as two-hour discussion as the time allotted for such a discussion should not exceed two hours. The members of the Parliament can raise such discussions on a matter of urgent public importance. The Speaker can allot two days in a week for such discussions. There is neither a formal motion before the house nor voting. This device has been in existence since 1953. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Half an Hour Discussion: It is meant for discussing a matter of sufficient public importance, which has been subjected to a lot of debate and the answer to which needs elucidation on a matter of fact. The Speaker can allot three days in a week for such discussions. Hence option 3 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Privilege Motion: It is concerned with the breach of parliamentary privileges by a minister. It is moved by a member when he feels that a minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House or one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or distorted facts. Its purpose is to censure the concerned minister. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
• Calling Attention Motion: It is introduced in the Parliament by a member to call the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance, and to seek an authoritative statement from him on that matter. Like the zero hour, it is also an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure and has been in existence since 1954.Hence option 2 is correct.
• Motion of Thanks: The first session after each general election and the first session of every fiscal year is addressed by the president. In this address, the president outlines the policies and programmes of the government in the previous year and coming year. This address of the president, which corresponds to the ‘speech from the Throne in Britain’, is discussed in both the Houses of Parliament on a motion called the ‘Motion of Thanks’. At the end of the discussion, the motion is put to vote. Hence option 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha).
• A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses. Hence option 3 is correct.
• A bill not passed by the two Houses due to disagreement and if the president has notified the holding of a joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha, does not lapse.
• A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
• A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.
• A bill passed by both Houses but returned by the president for reconsideration of Houses does not lapse. Hence option 2 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Returning Officer (RO) – The Returning Officer of a Parliamentary or assembly constituency is responsible for the conduct of elections in the Parliamentary or assembly constituency concerned.
• The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an officer of the government or a local authority as the Returning Officer for each of the assembly and parliamentary constituencies in consultation with the State Government/Union Territory Administration. Hence option 1 is correct.
• District Election Officer (DEO) – Subject to the superintendence, direction and control of the Chief Electoral Officer, the District Election Officer supervises the election work of a district.
• The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an officer of the state Government as the District Election Officer in consultation with the State Government. Hence option 2 is correct.
• Chief Electoral Officer (CEO) – The Chief Electoral Officer of a State/Union Territory is authorized to supervise the election work in the State/Union Territory subject to the overall superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission.
• The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an Officer of the Government of the State/Union Territory as the Chief Electoral Officer in consultation with that State Government/Union Territory Administration. Hence option 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Constitution under Article 114 states that ‘no money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law’. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Accordingly, an appropriation bill is introduced to provide for the appropriation, out of the Consolidated Fund of India, all money required to meet: (a) The grants voted by the Lok Sabha. (b) The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
• Post the discussions on Budget proposals and the Voting on Demand for Grants, the government introduces the Appropriation Bill in the Lok Sabha. It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Appropriation Bill becomes the Appropriation Act after it is assented to by the President. This act authorizes (or legalizes) the payments from the Consolidated Fund of India. This means that the government cannot withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India till the enactment of the appropriation bill.
• The passing of the Appropriation Bill takes time and usually goes on till the end of April. But the government needs money to carry on its normal activities after 31 March (the end of the financial year). To overcome this functional difficulty, the Constitution under Article 116 has authorized the Lok Sabha to make any grant in advance in respect to the estimated expenditure for a part of the financial year, pending the completion of the voting of the demands for grants and the enactment of the appropriation bill.
• This provision is known as the ‘vote on account’. It is passed (or granted) after the general discussion on budget is over. It is generally granted for two months for an amount equivalent to one-sixth of the total estimation.
• To avoid the ‘vote on account’ and the delay in the enactment of the Budget, the government in 2018 shifted the budget session ahead by 1 month i.e. in the last week of January.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Article 352 Proclamation of Emergency – The Constitution employs the expression ‘proclamation of emergency’ to denote the National Emergency only due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
• An Emergency due to the failure of the constitutional machinery in the states (Article 356) is popularly known as ‘President’s Rule’. It is also known by other two names- ‘State Emergency’ or ‘constitutional Emergency’. However, the Constitution does not use the word ‘emergency’ for this situation.
• Financial Emergency is proclaimed under Article 360 – due to a threat to the financial stability or credit of India.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The 38th Constitution Amendment Act, 1975:
• It made the declaration of a National Emergency Immune from the judicial review. However, this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1976. Further, in the Minerva Mills case (1980) the Supreme Court held that proclamation of national emergency can be challenged in a court on the ground of malafide or that the declaration was based on wholly extraneous and irrelevant facts or is absurd or perverse.
• The 42nd amendment, 1976, was enacted during the Emergency. It attempted to reduce the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts to pronounce upon the constitutional validity of laws. It laid down the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens to the nation. This amendment brought about the most widespread changes to the constitution in its history and is sometimes called a mini-Constitution.
• 44th amendment 1978, was enacted by the Janata Party largely aimed at undoing several changes that had been made to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment enacted during the emergency.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The GCOS is co-sponsored by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO), the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), and the International Council for Science (ICSU). GCOS regularly reports on the adequacy of the current climate observing system to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
• The Global Climate Observing System (GCOS) was established in 1992 as an outcome of the Second World Climate Conference, to ensure that the observations and information needed to address climate-related issues are obtained and made available to all potential users.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• A genealogical DNA test is a DNA-based test used in genetic genealogy that looks at specific locations of a person’s genome in order to find or verify ancestral genealogical relationships, or (with lower reliability) to estimate the ethnic mixture of an individual.
• The mtDNA test can be taken by both males and females, because everyone inherits their mtDNA from their mother, as the mitochondrial DNA is located in the egg cell. However, a Y-DNA test can only be taken by a male, as only males have a Y-chromosome.
• Y-DNA and mtDNA cannot be used for ethnicity estimates, but can be used to find one’s haplogroup, which is unevenly distributed geographically. MtDNA and Y-DNA tests are utilized to identify archeological cultures and migration paths of a person’s ancestors along a strict mother’s line or a strict father’s line.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (c)

Explanation

Senna spectabilis was introduced as an ornamental species and for use as firewood from South and Central America, the species has become highly invasive in the Sigur plateau in both the core and buffer zones of the MTR. Over the last few years, its bright yellow flowers have become more visible across the Tiger Reserve. Conservationists say the invasive weed has a negative effect on local biodiversity, crowding out native species and limiting food availability for wildlife. Senna spectabilis, along with Lantana camara, is among five major invasive weeds that had taken over vast swathes of the Nilgiris, with wattle being the other major invasive species.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The Gangetic Dolphin is a fresh-water species, and one of the few river dolphins found in the world. The Gangetic Dolphin has been recognized as India’s National Aquatic Animal and is the official animal of the Indian city of Guwahati.
• The Ganges river dolphins usually come in pairs or they’re just single and are not known to do acrobatic maneuvers near boats or when they’re distressed. Little is known about their behavior because they are usually shy around boats and are hard to observe. Ganges river dolphins use echolocation to find food.
• India’s Ministry of Environment and Forests declared dolphins ‘nonhuman persons’ and as such has forbidden their captivity for entertainment purposes; keeping dolphins in captivity must satisfy certain legal prerequisites.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The United Nations General Assembly designated 31 October as World Cities Day, by its resolution 68/239. As with World Habitat Day, a global observance is held in a different city each year and the day focuses on a specific theme.
• The Day is expected to greatly promote the international community’s interest in global urbanization, push forward cooperation among countries in meeting opportunities addressing challenges of urbanization and contributing to sustainable urban development around the world.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (d)

Explanation

Required percentage = ((45-60)/60) = 25%

Therefore, there is a decline of 25% from 1997 to 1998.

Solution (c)

Explanation

Average production over the given years

= 1/8( 25+ 40+ 60 + 45 + 65 + 50 + 75 + 80) = 55

Therefore, the production has exceeded the average during 1997, 1999, 2001, 2002. So, the answer is four times.

Solution (d)

Explanation

Average production (in 10000 tonnes) of 1996 and 1997= (40 + 60)/2= 50

We shall find the average production (in 10000 tonnes) for each of the given alternative pairs:

2000 and 2001 = (50 + 75)/2  = 62.5

1999 and 2000 = (65 + 50)/2  = 57.5

1998 and 2000 = (45 + 50)/2  = 47.5

1995 and 1999 = (25 + 65)/2  = 45

1995 and 2001 = (25 + 75)/2  = 50

Therefore , the average production of 1996 and 1997 is equal to the average production of 1995 and 2001.

Solution (c)

Explanation

Required percentage = ((80-25)/25)% = 220%

Solution (d)

Explanation

Refer to the passage below:

‘…to appraise the possibility of making the biometrics-based unique identifier mandatory for claiming refunds. Already the GST Network …has made it mandatory for  new dealers registering under the composition scheme for small businesses  to either authenticate their Aadhaar or submit to  physical verification of their business, …’

On reading the passage carefully, we see all the above remedial measures listed as recommendations to reduce fraudulent activities.

Hence, option d is the correct answer.