[DAY 37] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2023 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The concept of ‘Concurrent List’ in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of Australia. It has 52 subjects.
• 42nd amendment Act 1976 shifted below mentioned five subjects from State list to Concurrent List:

1. Education
2. Forests
3. Protection of wild animals and birds
4. Weights and measures and
5. Administration of justice, constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

• Other Important subjects of concurrent lists :

1. Population control and family planning.
2. Forest
3. Trade unions
4. Marriage
5. Adoption
6. Succession

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• At present, 10 States namely Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, HimachalPradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and Telangana have Fifth Schedule Areas. PESA is an Act to provide for theextension of the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats to the Scheduled Areas. In terms of section 2 of this Act,
• “Scheduled Areas” means the Scheduled Areas as referred to in clause (1) of article 244 of the Constitution. The State of Bihar is not covered under this definition.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Following legal powers have been givento Gram Sabha/PRIs under PESA Act:

1. Safeguard and preserve the traditions and customs of the people, their cultural identity, community resourcesand the customary mode of dispute resolution. Hence option 1 is correct.
2. Approve plans, programmes and projects for social and economic development before such plans, programmes and projects are taken up for implementation by the Panchayat at the village level. Hence option 2 is correct.
3. Identification or selection of persons as beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other programmes.
4. Certification of utilization of funds by the Panchayat for the plans, programmes and projects for identification or selection of persons as beneficiaries under the poverty alleviation and other programmes.
5. Right to be consulted before making acquisition of land in the Scheduled Areas for development projects and before re-settling or rehabilitating persons affected by such projects in the Scheduled Areas.
6. Right to plan and manage minor water bodies in the Scheduled Areas.
7. Recommendations prior to grant of prospecting license or mining lease for minor minerals and for grant ofconcession for the exploitation of minor minerals by auction in the Scheduled Areas. Power to enforceprohibition or to regulate or restrict the sale and consumption of any intoxicant.
8. Ownership of minor forest produce.
9. Power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas and to restore any unlawfully alienated land of aScheduled Tribe.
10. Power to manage village markets.
11. Power to exercise control over money lending to the Scheduled Tribes. Hence option 3 is correct.
12. Power to exercise control over institutions and functionaries in all social sectors.
13. Power to control over local plans and resources for such plans including tribal sub plans.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
• They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, States Reorganization Act of 1956.
• The act divided the country into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern,Western and Southern) and provided a zonal council for each zone.
• In India, at present, there are 6 Zonal Council. Originally five councils were created as per the States Reorganization Act 1956 as follows: Hence option 2 is correct.

1. Northern Zonal Council: Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir,Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh
2. Central Zonal Council: Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
3. Eastern Zonal Council: Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal;Western Zonal Council: Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the UnionTerritories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli
4. Southern Zonal Council: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
5. North Eastern Council: The North eastern council was set up in 1971 to deal with the problems of seven north east states of India. It was set up under the legislation called North Eastern

• Council Act, 1972. The State of Sikkim has also been included in the North Eastern Council vide North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002 notified on 23rd December, 2002.Consequently, action for exclusion of Sikkim as member of Eastern Zonal Council has been initiated by Ministry of Home Affairs. The chairman of the Zonal council is Union Home Minister and Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.

• Each zonal council consists of the following members:
  (a) Home minister of Central government.
  (b) Chief Ministers of all the States in the zone.
  (c) Two other ministers from each state in the zone.
  (d) Administrator of each union territory in the zone.
• Home minister is the common chairman of all zonal councils. Hence option 3 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: The constitution authorizes the parliament to determine the qualifications of members of the commission and the manner in which they should be elected. Accordingly, the parliament has specified the qualifications of the chairman and members of the commission the chairman should be a person having experience in public affairs.
• Statement 2 is correct: Finance commission is a constitution body established under Article 280 of the Indian constitution. It is to be set up by the Indian president at the end of every 5 years. The members hold office for such period as specified by the president in his order. The members are eligible for re-appointment.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The finance commission are not binding on the government and even though it suggests measures as to distribution of net proceeds between center and state ensuring transparency in finance administration is ambiguous.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Based on the recommendations made by various Committees and Commissions, various reforms have been introduced in our electoral system, election machinery and election process. Some of the important reforms include:
• The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as the assembly elections.
• The EVMs were used for the first time in 1998 on an experimental basis in selected constituencies in the elections to the Assemblies of Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Delhi. The EVMs were used for the first time in the general elections (entire state) to the Assembly of Goa in 1999.
• In 1999, a provision was made for voting by certain classes of persons through postal ballot. Thus, any class of persons can be notified by the Election Commission, in consultation with the government, and the persons belonging to such notified class can give their votes by postal ballot, and not in any other manner, at elections in their constituency or constituencies.
• In 2003, the election Commission issued an order directing every candidate seeking election to the Parliament or a State Legislature to furnish on his nomination paper the declaration of Criminal Antecedents, Assets, etc., by Candidates.
• In 2010, a provision was made to confer voting rights to the citizens of India residing outside India due to various reasons. Accordingly, every citizen of India – (a) whose name is not included in the electoral roll (b) who has not acquired the citizenship of any other country (c) who is absent from his place of ordinary residence in India owing to his employment, education or otherwise outside India (whether temporarily or not) – shall be entitled to have his name registered in the electoral roll in the Parliamentary / Assembly constituency in which his place of residence in India as mentioned in his passport is located.
• The Supreme Court in September 2013 upheld the right of voters to reject all candidates contesting the elections, saying it would go a long way in cleansing the political system of the country. The top court directed the Election Commission to have an option of NOTA on EVMs and ballot papers in a major electoral reform. The NOTA option was first used in the assembly elections held in five states in 2013.
• Hence, option (c) is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Jan Chowkidar (People’s watch) is a Patna based NGO. Its plea centered on Sections 62 of the RoPA 1951. Section 62 of the act said:
• Only an elector can be a representative. If a person is not qualified to vote, he cannot represent the people.
• Section 62 implies that if a person is jailed or in lawful detention at the time of elections, he shall not be eligible for voting. However, if a person is in preventive custody, he can vote.
• The question was that – If only an elector can be representative, then how those who lose being an elector on account of their jail or custody, can contest the elections?
• In 2004, the Patna High Court had that when a person in custody is disqualified from voting he or she must be disqualified from contesting in elections too.

Lily Thomas v. Union of India case, 2004:

• SC ruled that any Member of Parliament (MP), Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA) or Member of a Legislative Council (MLC) who is convicted of a crime and given a minimum of two years’ imprisonment, loses membership of the House with immediate effect.
• This is in contrast to the earlier position, wherein convicted members held on to their seats until they exhausted all judicial remedy in lower, state and the Supreme Court of India. Further, Section 8(4) of the Representation of the People Act, which allowed elected representatives three months to appeal their conviction.

PUCL Case, 2004:

• SC upheld the constitutional right of citizens to cast a negative vote in elections.
• Supreme Court held that a Right to vote also includes a right not to vote i.e. right to reject. Which has its genus in freedom of speech and expression.
• Also, the Right to secrecy is an integral part of a free and fair election. While the name of the voters who have not cast their votes was publically disclosed, but by casting a negative vote, secrecy will be maintained.
• The judgment of the Hon’ble Supreme Court, in this case, is significant not only because it introduced the option of NOTA on the EVMs but also because it dignified the right to vote
• In the LIC of India case, 1995, the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Mundapota Kela – Mundapota Kela is a de-notified tribal community belongs to the State of They are known for their street performance of burying their heads in a hole dug in the ground. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
• Tharu Tribe – A Tharu tribe-dominated village along the Indo-Nepal border will be developed as a tourist destination under the Uttar Pradesh government’s “One District, One Eco Tourism Spot” scheme. Hence option 2 is incorrect.
• Hakki-pikki – The HakkiPikki are a semi-nomadic tribe of Karnataka who have travelled and lived in various parts of the country over the past few decades. Hence option 3 is correct.
• Kattunayakan Tribe – Kattunayakan tribe is one of the 75 PVTGs of India and is mainly found in parts of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. They speak a mix of various Dravidian languages chiefly Tamil and Malayalam. Hence option 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Census 2011, there are a total of 75 PVTGs out of 705 Scheduled Tribes, spread over 17 states and one Union Territory (UT).
• Statement 2 is correct: Criteria for PVTGs:
• Pre-agricultural level of technology.
• Low level of literacy.
• Economic backwardness.
• A declining or stagnant population.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The categorization is done by the Ministry of Home Affairs and not by the Ministry of Tribal affairs.
• Statement 4 is correct: Odisha has the highest number of PVTGs in India while no PVTGs are found in the states of Punjab and Haryana.

Solution (c)

Explanation :

Solution (b)

Explanation: 

Statement 1 is Incorrect: The President is empowered to establish an inter-state council to serve the public interest.

Statement 2 is Incorrect: The Prime Minister is the chairman of the Inter-state council.

Statement 3 is Incorrect: There is no such rule that mandates Inter -state council meetings must be held at least thrice a year.

Statement 4 is correct: Sarkaria Commission recommended the constitution of a permanent Inter-state council.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: If the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two third of the members present and voting that is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so, Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or more all India service. Or the parliament can create a new all-India service provided that the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a special majority.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect: Article 309 of the Indian constitution empowers the central and state government to regulate recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public service and posts through an act of the appropriate legislature.
• Statement 3 is Incorrect: For the deputation of all Indian service officers concurrence of both union and state government is necessary. In case of disagreement, the decision of the central government will prevail over the state government. State government concerned shall give effect to the decision of the central government. However, no time limit is mentioned.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The Indian constitution has made the following provisions with respect to the inter-state council :

1. Article 261 of the Indian Constitution deals with Public acts, records, and judicial proceedings.
2. Article 262 deals with the Adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys.

• Art 263 contemplates the establishment of an inter-state council to effect coordination between the states and between the center and states.

1. Articles 301 to 307 in Part XIII of the Constitution deal with trade, commerce, and intercourse within the territory of India. Hence all the statements are correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation: Unitary feature of the constitution :

1. Strong Centre.
2. States Not Indestructible.
3. Single Constitution.
4. Flexibility of the Constitution.
5. No Equality of State Representation.
6. Emergency Provisions.
7. Single Citizenship.
8. Integrated judiciary.
9. All India service. Hence option 1 is correct.
10. Appointment of the governor. Hence option 2 is correct.
11. Veto over state bills
12. Integrated Audit Machinery.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• While an opinion poll is conducted before balloting to gauge the intentions of voters, an exit survey is conducted after elections to find out who they actually voted for. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Agencies conducting an exit poll follow a range of different procedures or methods. One of the most common methods is a sampling. These agencies might opt for random or systematic sampling. The random sampling at times can be of an entire electorate and not just of voters outside a booth — covering parameters such as age, sex, caste, region and more.
• Section 126A of the Representation of the People’s Act, 1951 clearly states that “No person shall conduct any exit poll and publish or publicize by means of the print or electronic media or disseminate in any other manner, whatsoever, the result of an exit poll during such period as may be notified by the Election Commission in this regard.”
• Election Commission had declared that Exit polls can be telecast by agencies, including all websites, only after the final phase of polling. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The EC said the advisory would include the display of any opinion poll and of standard debates, analysis, visuals and sound-bytes, among other things.
• TV, radio channels, cable networks, websites and social media platforms should ensure that the contents of programmes telecast/broadcast/displayed by them during the 48-hour period before the end of polls in each phase “do not contain any material, including views or appeals by participants that may be construed as promoting or prejudicing the prospect” of any particular party or candidate.
• Moreover, some media agencies tried to conduct exit polls under the garb of opinion polls while voting in some of the constituencies is to be conducted. This dissemination of results of the opinion poll in effect becomes dissemination of results of exit polls in respect of the said constituencies
• EC has cleared that no opinion polls could be conducted for constituencies that had already voted.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Model Code of Conduct for the guidance of political parties and candidates is a set of norms which has been evolved with the consensus of political parties who have consented to abide by the principles embodied in the said code and also binds them to respect and observe it in its letter and spirit.
• The Election Commission ensures its observance by political party(-ies) in power, including ruling parties at the Centre and in the States and contesting candidates in the discharge of its constitutional duties for conducting the free, fair and peaceful elections to the Parliament and the State Legislatures under Article 324 of the Constitution of India. It is also ensured that official machinery for the electoral purposes is not misused. Further, it is also ensured that electoral offences, malpractices and corrupt practices such as impersonation, bribing and inducement of voters, threat and intimidation to the voters are prevented by all means. In case of violation, appropriate measures are taken.
• The Model Code of Conduct is enforced from the date of announcement of election schedule by the Election Commission and is operational until the process of elections is completed.
• Some of the features of MCC are:
• The Ministers shall not combine their official visit with electioneering work and shall not also make use of official machinery or personnel during the electioneering work, however, the Commission has exempted the Prime Minister from the operation of the model code of conduct provision pertaining to the combining of an official visit with electioneering visit. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• No transport including official air-crafts, vehicles etc. shall be used for the furtherance of the interest of any party or a candidate
• There shall be a total ban on the transfer and posting of all officers/officials directly or indirectly connected with the conduct of the election. If any transfer or posting of an officer is considered necessary, prior approval of the Commission shall be obtained. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• There is no objection provided that he does not make any political speech on the occasion and the function is to be conducted only by Govt. officials. No advertisement depicting the photograph of Chief Minister/Minister/Speaker shall be released.
• Governor may participate and address the Convocation. Chief Minister or Ministers may be advised not to participate and address the Convocation.
• The Central Ministers / Chief Minister / Ministers in the States and other political functionaries can attend the Independence Day/Republic Day celebration. However, it will be ensured that no political speeches highlighting the achievements of the  party  in  power  are  made  on  the  Hence statement 3 is not correct.
• Ministers and other authorities shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary funds from the time elections are announced.
• Fresh release of funds under MPs/MLAs/MLCs Local Area Development Fund of any scheme shall not be made in any area where the election is in progress, till the completion of the election process.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct:  Vamsadhara Water Dispute is between Odisha and Andhra Pradesh because Andhra Pradesh wants to build the Neradi bridge across the Vamsadhara river but this will be possible only after Odisha’s consent.
• Statement 2 is correct: Inter-State Water Dispute Bill 2019 was introduced based on Sarkaria Commission’s report.
• The tribunal would be appointed on the recommendation of a selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Chief Justice of India, and ministers from the Law and Justice, and Jal Shakti (water) ministries.
• Statement 3 is correct: Inter-state water dispute bill 2019 makes it mandatory for the Centre to constitute a tribunal on states’ requests or suo motu.It binds the Centre to set up the DRC (Dispute resolution commission) to amicably resolve the issue through negotiations in one year. If the DRC cannot settle the dispute, the Centre must refer it to the interstate tribunal within three months.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Bye-elections are elections, which are held to fill previously elected offices that have fallen vacant, before the ceasure of such elected offices’ tenure. The main motive behind conducting bye-elections in India is also for serving the above-said purpose. Bye-elections (also known as By-elections or Special elections) are commonly referred to in India by the name Bypolls.
• Provisions for Bye polls are provided under the Representation of Peoples Act, 1951 under Sections 147, 149, 150, 151 and 151(A).
• ECI is empowered to conduct bye polls when the seat of a member elected to Council of States or House of People or State Legislative Assembly or State Legislative Council becomes;
• vacant (or)
• declared vacant (or)
• the member’s election to any of such bodies is in itself declared to be void
• Vacancy can be created if an elected candidate dies, resigns or vacate one of the two seats won by him in the election.
• Tie between the top two candidates is dealt with under section 102 of RPA 1951 as follows:
• any decision made by the returning officer would be effective
• and if the question is not determined by such a decision, then High Court shall decide between them by lottery
• Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Electronic Voting Machine was introduced in India to conduct free and fair elections. Hence, the Indian Parliament amended the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and introduced Section 61-A which lays down the provisions for the use of Electronic Voting Machine by the Election Commission of India to Conduct General and State election in India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is possible to use EVMs for simultaneous elections for Parliament and State Legislative Assembly and the existing EVMs have been designed keeping this requirement in view.
• An Electronic Voting Machine consists of two Units – a Control Unit and a Balloting Unit – joined by a five-meter cable. This is a stand-alone setup, not connected to any network either through wired or wireless technology. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Control Unit is with the Presiding Officer or a Polling Officer and the Balloting Unit is placed inside the voting compartment. Instead of issuing a ballot paper, the Polling Officer in-charge of the Control Unit will press the Ballot Button. This will enable the voter to cast his vote by pressing the blue button on the Balloting Unit against the candidate and symbol of his choice.
• EVMs manufactured in 1989-90 were used on an experimental basis for the first time in 16 Assembly Constituencies in the States of Madhya Pradesh (5), Rajasthan (5) and NCT of Delhi (6) at the General Elections to the respective Legislative Assemblies held in November, 1998.
• Booth-capturing means taking away or damaging of ballot boxes or ballot papers, this cannot be prevented by the use of EVMs as EVMs can also be forcibly taken away or damaged by miscreants. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation;

• For every constituency, there is a list of voters which is called the electoral roll.
• Article 326 of the Constitution, and Sec. 19 of R. P. Act, 1950 stipulate that the minimum age for registration of a voter is 18 years.
• In many states, the voters’ list for the panchayat and municipality elections is different from the one used for Parliament and Assembly elections. The distinction stems from the fact that the supervision and conduct of elections in our country are entrusted with two constitutional authorities — the Election Commission (EC) of India and the State Election Commissions (SECs).
• EC is charged with the responsibility of conducting polls to the offices of the President and Vice-President of India, and to Parliament, the state assemblies and the legislative councils. The SECs, on the other hand, supervise municipal and panchayat elections. They are free to prepare their own electoral rolls for local body elections, and this exercise does not have to be coordinated with the EC.
• So do all states have a separate voters list for their local body elections? No. Each SEC is governed by a separate state Act. Some state laws allow the SEC to borrow and use the EC’s voter’s rolls in for the local body elections. In others, the state commission uses the EC’s voters list as the basis for the preparation and revision of rolls for municipality and panchayat elections. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Currently, all states, except Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Odisha, Assam, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala, Odisha, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, adopt EC’s rolls for local body polls. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The incumbent government has pitched a common electoral roll and simultaneous elections as a way to save an enormous amount of effort and expenditure. Preparation of a separate voters list causes duplication of essentially the same task between two different agencies, thereby duplicating the effort and the expenditure.
• In terms of Section 19 (b) of the R. P. Act, 1950, if a person is an ordinary resident and working in a place different from his native place, then he is not enrolled in the electoral roll of his native place. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• There is no bar to enroll in the electoral a roll on the basis of a pending trial, unless the applicant has been declared disqualified by a court of law, for being an elector. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Manthan is a platform that promotes collaboration at scale between industry and the scientific research and development ecosystem. Manthan empowers multiple stakeholders to collaborate for co-creating solutions aligned with the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and our national scientific missions. Statement 1 is correct
• The development of the platform was conceptualized and implemented by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) to the Government of India. Statement 2 is incorrect

 Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (d)

Rht13 is a semi-dwarf gene. Reduced height gene means that seeds can be planted deeper in the soil, giving access to moisture, without the adverse effect on seedling emergence seen with existing wheat varieties.

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Community Innovator Fellowship (CIF) is an initiative of Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog in collaboration with UNDP India to facilitate knowledge building and provide infrastructure support to aspiring community innovators essential for their entrepreneurship journey. Statement 1 is incorrect
• A Community Innovator Fellow is an individual with an entrepreneurial mind-set, with an idea to solve a community challenge through her/his enterprise. Statement 2 is incorrect
• This is a one-year-long intensive fellowship program wherein an aspiring community innovator can apply irrespective of their socio-economic background. During the course of this fellowship, each fellow would be hosted at an Atal Community Innovation Centre and would acquire SDG awareness, entrepreneurial skills and life skills while working on her/his idea. Statement 3 is correct

 Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Personality rights refer to the right of a person to protect his/her personality under the right to privacy or property. These rights are important to celebrities as their names, photographs or even voices can easily be misused in various advertisements by different companies to boost their sales. Therefore, it is necessary for renowned personalities/celebrities to register their names to save their personality rights. Statement 1 is incorrect
• Publicity rights are governed by statutes like the Trade marks Act 1999 and the Copyright Act 1957. There is no separate codified law in India dealing with personality or celebrity rights (“Personality Rights”) and the position and development of such rights and laws in India is still at a nascent stage largely governed by judicial pronouncements of courts. Statement 2 is incorrect

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence functions under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs in the Ministry of Finance, Department of Revenue, Government of India. DRI is the premier intelligence and enforcement agency on anti-smuggling matters. Statement 1 is correct
• DRI with its presence across India and abroad has been carrying out its mandate of preventing and detecting cases of smuggling of narcotic drugs & psychotropic substances, gold, diamonds, precious metals, wildlife items, cigarettes, arms, ammunitions & explosives, counterfeit currency notes, foreign currency, SCOMET items, hazardous & environmentally sensitive materials, antiques etc. and taking punitive action against the organised crime groups engaged DRI is also engaged in unearthing commercial frauds and customs duty evasion. Statement 2 is incorrect
• The agency can refer cases registered under the Customs Act to the Income Tax Department for action under the Income Tax Act according to the charter of DRI. Statement 3 is correct

Source: CLICK HERE

Solution(a)

Required runs = 282 in 50 overs

Runs scored in 10 overs = 32

Remaining runs to reach the target = 250 runs in 40 overs

Required run rate = 250/40 = 6.25 runs per over.

Solution(a)

Required average = ( ( 67 * 2) + ( 35 * 2 ) + ( 9 * 3 )) / 7

= ( 134 + 70 + 27) / 7

= 231 / 7

= 33 years.

Solution(c)

Given that the captain age is 26 years.

Given that wicket-keeper age is 3 years older than the captain.

Therefore, the wicket-keeper age is 26+3=29 years.

Let the average age of the whole team be x’

Therefore, x’ = 11 sum of the ages of the whole team members ​

⟹11 x’ =26+29+sum of the ages of the remaining 9 team members

⟹sum of the ages of the remaining 9 team members=11 x’ −55 ——-(1)

Given that the average of the remaining 9 players is one year less the whole team.

Therefore, average of the remaining team is x’ −1

⟹ x’ −1= sum of the ages of the remaining 9 team members/9 ​

⟹sum of the ages of the remaining 9 team members=9 x’ −9 ——(2)

from (1) and (2) we get 11 x’ −55=9 x’ −9

⟹11 x’ −9 x’ =55−9

⟹2 x’ =46

⟹ x’ =23

Therefore, the average of the team is 23 years

Solution(d)

The average marks obtained by three girls = 2 * the average of marks obtained by 8 boys

(Sum of marks obtained by all girls / 3 ) = 2 * (  Sum of marks obtained by all boys / 8 )

(Sum of marks obtained by all girls / 3 ) =  ( Sum of marks obtained by all boys / 4 )

(Sum of marks obtained by all boys ) = 4 * (  Sum of marks obtained by all girls / 3 )

Marks obtained by all boys and girls = 182

Sum of marks obtained by all girls + sum of marks obtained by all girls = 182

( 4/3 + 1)  Sum of marks obtained by all girls = 182

7/3 * Sum of marks obtained by all girls = 182

Sum of marks obtained by all girls = (182 * 3 ) /7

Sum of marks obtained by all girls = 78

Number of girls = 3

Therefore, each girl has obtained = 78/3 = 26 marks.

Solution (d)

Refer to the following, “Others like Korea and China without a large pool of scientists make up by facilitating foreign research in every conceivable way….”

Clearly option d is the correct answer.