IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following with respect to ‘Know India Programme (KIP)’
- The KIP is primarily aimed at Indian diaspora youth between the ages of 21-35.
- KIP participants visit various Indian states to experience regional diversity and cultural heritage.
- The program comes under Ministry of Tourism.
Select the correct statement(s)
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The Know India Programme (KIP) is a unique initiative by the Indian Ministry of External Affairs, designed specifically for Indian diaspora youth aged 21-35. It aims to bridge the gap between these young people and their ancestral homeland, fostering a deeper understanding and appreciation for contemporary India
KIP participants get an opportunity to acquaint themselves with the history and culture of India as a civilization as well as the advancements and achievements of modern India across diverse domains, including but not limited to the realms of economy, industry, education, science and technology, telecommunications, information technology, and space science. The Know India Programme (KIP) is a unique initiative by the Indian Ministry of External Affairs, Context: Know-India-Programme-meas-flagship-for-youth-diaspora-completes-20-years.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The Know India Programme (KIP) is a unique initiative by the Indian Ministry of External Affairs, designed specifically for Indian diaspora youth aged 21-35. It aims to bridge the gap between these young people and their ancestral homeland, fostering a deeper understanding and appreciation for contemporary India
KIP participants get an opportunity to acquaint themselves with the history and culture of India as a civilization as well as the advancements and achievements of modern India across diverse domains, including but not limited to the realms of economy, industry, education, science and technology, telecommunications, information technology, and space science. The Know India Programme (KIP) is a unique initiative by the Indian Ministry of External Affairs, Context: Know-India-Programme-meas-flagship-for-youth-diaspora-completes-20-years.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
With reference to ‘Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs)’, consider the following statements
Statement 1- D-SIBs are like financial giants – their failure could have a domino effect, shaking the entire banking system and harming the economy.
Statement 2- Regulators closely monitor D-SIBs and require them to hold extra capital to prevent any crisis
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
- While ICICI Bank maintains its previous categorization, SBI and HDFC Bank have moved to higher buckets
About Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
- The BCBS finalized its framework for dealing with D-SIBs in October 2012. The D-SIB framework focuses on the impact that the distress or failure of banks will have on the domestic economy.
- As opposed to the G-SIB framework, D-SIB framework is based on the assessment conducted by the national authorities, who are best placed to evaluate the impact of failure on the local financial system and the local economy.
- The RBI had issued the framework for dealing with D-SIB in 2014. The D-SIB framework requires the Reserve Bank to disclose the names of banks designated as D-SIBs starting from 2015 and place these banks in appropriate buckets depending upon their Systemic Importance Scores (SISs).
- The indicators which are used for assessment are: size, interconnectedness, substitutability and complexity.
- Based on their systemic importance scores in ascending order, banks are plotted into four different buckets and are required to have additional Common Equity Tier 1 Capital (CET1) requirements ranging from 0.20% to 0.80% of risk weighted assets (RWA).
- CET1 is the highest quality of regulatory capital, as it absorbs losses immediately when they occur. It is a capital measure introduced in 2014 globally as a precautionary means to protect the economy from a financial crisis.
- RWA, are used to link the minimum amount of capital that banks must have, with the risk profile of the bank’s lending activities (and other assets).
- In case a foreign bank having branch presence in India is a Global Systemically Important Bank (G-SIB), it has to maintain additional CET1 capital surcharge in India as applicable to it as a G-SIB, proportionate to its Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) in India.
Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released its list of domestic systemically important banks (D-SIBs) for 2023, including the State Bank of India (SBI), HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
- While ICICI Bank maintains its previous categorization, SBI and HDFC Bank have moved to higher buckets
About Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs):
- The BCBS finalized its framework for dealing with D-SIBs in October 2012. The D-SIB framework focuses on the impact that the distress or failure of banks will have on the domestic economy.
- As opposed to the G-SIB framework, D-SIB framework is based on the assessment conducted by the national authorities, who are best placed to evaluate the impact of failure on the local financial system and the local economy.
- The RBI had issued the framework for dealing with D-SIB in 2014. The D-SIB framework requires the Reserve Bank to disclose the names of banks designated as D-SIBs starting from 2015 and place these banks in appropriate buckets depending upon their Systemic Importance Scores (SISs).
- The indicators which are used for assessment are: size, interconnectedness, substitutability and complexity.
- Based on their systemic importance scores in ascending order, banks are plotted into four different buckets and are required to have additional Common Equity Tier 1 Capital (CET1) requirements ranging from 0.20% to 0.80% of risk weighted assets (RWA).
- CET1 is the highest quality of regulatory capital, as it absorbs losses immediately when they occur. It is a capital measure introduced in 2014 globally as a precautionary means to protect the economy from a financial crisis.
- RWA, are used to link the minimum amount of capital that banks must have, with the risk profile of the bank’s lending activities (and other assets).
- In case a foreign bank having branch presence in India is a Global Systemically Important Bank (G-SIB), it has to maintain additional CET1 capital surcharge in India as applicable to it as a G-SIB, proportionate to its Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) in India.
Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has released its list of domestic systemically important banks (D-SIBs) for 2023, including the State Bank of India (SBI), HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank.
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
With reference to ‘Kuril Islands’ consider the following statements
- It is disputed island between Japan and China.
- It is located in South China Sea.
Select the INCORRECT statement(s)
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The Kuril Islands, a volcanic archipelago stretching between Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula and Japan’s Hokkaido, hold geopolitical significance. These islands, disputed between Russia and Japan, are a complex blend of natural beauty and historical tensions.. The Kuril Islands are located in the Sea of Okhotsk, which is part of the northwest Pacific Ocean. The Sea of Okhotsk is bordered by the Kamchatka Peninsula of Russia to the west, the Kuril Islands to the northeast, the Russian mainland and Sakhalin Island to the west, and Hokkaido, Japan, to the south. The Kuril Islands stretch from the northeastern tip of Hokkaido to the southern tip of Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula, forming a volcanic archipelago in this maritime region. Context: An earthquake of magnitude 6.3 on the Richter Scale jolted Japan’s Kuril Islands.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect The Kuril Islands, a volcanic archipelago stretching between Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula and Japan’s Hokkaido, hold geopolitical significance. These islands, disputed between Russia and Japan, are a complex blend of natural beauty and historical tensions.. The Kuril Islands are located in the Sea of Okhotsk, which is part of the northwest Pacific Ocean. The Sea of Okhotsk is bordered by the Kamchatka Peninsula of Russia to the west, the Kuril Islands to the northeast, the Russian mainland and Sakhalin Island to the west, and Hokkaido, Japan, to the south. The Kuril Islands stretch from the northeastern tip of Hokkaido to the southern tip of Russia’s Kamchatka Peninsula, forming a volcanic archipelago in this maritime region. Context: An earthquake of magnitude 6.3 on the Richter Scale jolted Japan’s Kuril Islands.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
‘Neora Valley National Park’ which was recently in news is located in
Correct
Solution (b)
- Neora Valley National Park, nestled in the Eastern Himalayas of West Bengal, India, is a pristine biodiversity hotspot. Spanning around 88 square kilometers.
- The park is characterized by dense forests, gushing rivers, and diverse flora and fauna. Home to elusive species like the Red Panda, Himalayan Tahr, and numerous avian species, it attracts nature enthusiasts and researchers alike.
- The park’s elevation, ranging from 183 to 3,200 meters, contributes to its rich ecological diversity. With its breathtaking landscapes and unique wildlife,
- Neora Valley National Park stands as a conservation haven, preserving the natural treasures of the Eastern Himalayan region.
Context: A recent image captured by trap cameras in the Neora Valley National Park in the hills of West Bengal has confirmed the presence of Royal Bengal Tigers at an altitude of 10,509 feet above sea level.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- Neora Valley National Park, nestled in the Eastern Himalayas of West Bengal, India, is a pristine biodiversity hotspot. Spanning around 88 square kilometers.
- The park is characterized by dense forests, gushing rivers, and diverse flora and fauna. Home to elusive species like the Red Panda, Himalayan Tahr, and numerous avian species, it attracts nature enthusiasts and researchers alike.
- The park’s elevation, ranging from 183 to 3,200 meters, contributes to its rich ecological diversity. With its breathtaking landscapes and unique wildlife,
- Neora Valley National Park stands as a conservation haven, preserving the natural treasures of the Eastern Himalayan region.
Context: A recent image captured by trap cameras in the Neora Valley National Park in the hills of West Bengal has confirmed the presence of Royal Bengal Tigers at an altitude of 10,509 feet above sea level.
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
With reference to ‘Polygraph tests’ consider the following statements
- Polygraph tests, commonly known as lie detector tests, are admissible as evidence in Indian courts.
- The use of polygraph tests in India is regulated by the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
- Consent from the individual undergoing the polygraph test is not required for it to be legally administered in India
How many statement(s) given above are correct
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Polygraph test results are generally not admissible as evidence in Indian courts. The reason for this is the perceived lack of absolute reliability and the potential for false positives and false negatives. Courts often consider polygraph results as suggestive but not conclusive proof of guilt or innocence. The use of polygraph tests in India is not specifically regulated by the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act. Instead, the admissibility and use of polygraph tests are guided by general legal principles, and there is no specific legislation that comprehensively addresses the use of lie detector tests. In India, obtaining informed consent from the individual before administering a polygraph test is considered crucial. Consent is a fundamental ethical and legal requirement, and individuals must be fully aware of the nature and implications of the test before agreeing to undergo it. The absence of consent could render the test inadmissible or raise ethical concerns. Additional information
Legal and Constitutional Rulings
- Selvi vs State of Karnataka & Anr (2010): The Supreme Court ruled that lie detector tests should be voluntary, with legal implications explained to the accused.
- K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal (1997): The Court deemed involuntary administration of these tests as potentially violating the Right to Life and Liberty and the Right to Privacy.
- Indian Evidence Act, 1871: The results of these tests are not admissible as evidence in court.
- National Human Rights Commission Guidelines (1999): Established consent and procedural guidelines for administering polygraph tests.
Context: In the ongoing investigation of the Parliament security breach, Delhi Police sought court permission for polygraph tests on six accused to uncover their motives.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Polygraph test results are generally not admissible as evidence in Indian courts. The reason for this is the perceived lack of absolute reliability and the potential for false positives and false negatives. Courts often consider polygraph results as suggestive but not conclusive proof of guilt or innocence. The use of polygraph tests in India is not specifically regulated by the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act. Instead, the admissibility and use of polygraph tests are guided by general legal principles, and there is no specific legislation that comprehensively addresses the use of lie detector tests. In India, obtaining informed consent from the individual before administering a polygraph test is considered crucial. Consent is a fundamental ethical and legal requirement, and individuals must be fully aware of the nature and implications of the test before agreeing to undergo it. The absence of consent could render the test inadmissible or raise ethical concerns. Additional information
Legal and Constitutional Rulings
- Selvi vs State of Karnataka & Anr (2010): The Supreme Court ruled that lie detector tests should be voluntary, with legal implications explained to the accused.
- K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal (1997): The Court deemed involuntary administration of these tests as potentially violating the Right to Life and Liberty and the Right to Privacy.
- Indian Evidence Act, 1871: The results of these tests are not admissible as evidence in court.
- National Human Rights Commission Guidelines (1999): Established consent and procedural guidelines for administering polygraph tests.
Context: In the ongoing investigation of the Parliament security breach, Delhi Police sought court permission for polygraph tests on six accused to uncover their motives.
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