IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Consider the following statements about Tax Buoyancy
- It measures the responsiveness of tax mobilisation to economic growth.
- When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate.
- Philips curve suggests there is an optimum tax rate which maximises total tax revenue.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect · Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in the government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Gross domestic product (GDP). · There is a strong connection between the government’s tax revenue earnings and economic growth.
· As the economy achieves faster growth, the tax revenue of the government also goes up. Tax buoyancy explains this relationship.
· It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
· When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate. It depends upon:
· the size of the tax base;
· the friendliness of the tax administration;
· the rationality and simplicity of tax rates;
· Tax buoyancy will be highest for direct taxes. Generally, direct taxes are more sensitive to the GDP growth rate.
Laffer Curve · It is an economic theory pioneered by economist Arthur Laffer.
· Created in 1974, it visually shows the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments.
· It suggests that tax rates above a certain threshold reduce tax revenue since they incentivize people not to work.
· It suggests there is an optimum tax rate which maximises total tax revenue.
Context: Finance Minister recently presented fiscal consolidation projections that surpass expectations for the current financial year and Budget Estimates (BE) for the next year, despite the conservative tax buoyancy in the estimates.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect · Tax buoyancy explains the relationship between the changes in the government’s tax revenue growth and the changes in Gross domestic product (GDP). · There is a strong connection between the government’s tax revenue earnings and economic growth.
· As the economy achieves faster growth, the tax revenue of the government also goes up. Tax buoyancy explains this relationship.
· It refers to the responsiveness of tax revenue growth to changes in GDP.
· When a tax is buoyant, its revenue increases without increasing the tax rate. It depends upon:
· the size of the tax base;
· the friendliness of the tax administration;
· the rationality and simplicity of tax rates;
· Tax buoyancy will be highest for direct taxes. Generally, direct taxes are more sensitive to the GDP growth rate.
Laffer Curve · It is an economic theory pioneered by economist Arthur Laffer.
· Created in 1974, it visually shows the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments.
· It suggests that tax rates above a certain threshold reduce tax revenue since they incentivize people not to work.
· It suggests there is an optimum tax rate which maximises total tax revenue.
Context: Finance Minister recently presented fiscal consolidation projections that surpass expectations for the current financial year and Budget Estimates (BE) for the next year, despite the conservative tax buoyancy in the estimates.
-
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Consider the following statements about Law Commission of India
- The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1951 under the chairmanship of the former Attorney General for India M. C. Setalvad.
- It is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India.
- It is constituted with definite terms of reference and its recommendations are binding on the government.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect History of Law Commission of India · The first pre-independence law commission was established in 1834 by the British Government in India.
· It was established by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay.
· The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1955 under the chairmanship of the former Attorney General for India M. C. Setalvad.
· This Commission was created for a period of three years and this practice has persisted ever since then, resulting in the reconstitution of Law Commissions every three years via executive orders.
· It is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice. · The executive orders that constitute the Law Commissions also specify their scope and purpose, and thus these fluctuate periodically.
· Since then, twenty one more Law Commissions have been constituted, each with a three-year term and with certain terms of reference.
· The Law Commission has taken up various subjects on references made by the Department of Legal Affairs, Supreme Court and High Courts.
· The Twenty Second Law Commission has been notified with effect from 21st February, 2020 for a term of 3 years.
· It is constituted with definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference. · It functions to the Ministry of Law and Justice as an advisory body.
Context: The 22nd Law Commission of India led by Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi has recommended that the offence of criminal defamation should be retained in the new criminal laws.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect History of Law Commission of India · The first pre-independence law commission was established in 1834 by the British Government in India.
· It was established by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay.
· The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1955 under the chairmanship of the former Attorney General for India M. C. Setalvad.
· This Commission was created for a period of three years and this practice has persisted ever since then, resulting in the reconstitution of Law Commissions every three years via executive orders.
· It is a non-statutory body and is constituted by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law & Justice. · The executive orders that constitute the Law Commissions also specify their scope and purpose, and thus these fluctuate periodically.
· Since then, twenty one more Law Commissions have been constituted, each with a three-year term and with certain terms of reference.
· The Law Commission has taken up various subjects on references made by the Department of Legal Affairs, Supreme Court and High Courts.
· The Twenty Second Law Commission has been notified with effect from 21st February, 2020 for a term of 3 years.
· It is constituted with definite terms of reference to carry out research in the field of law and the Commission makes recommendations to the Government (in the form of Reports) as per its terms of reference. · It functions to the Ministry of Law and Justice as an advisory body.
Context: The 22nd Law Commission of India led by Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi has recommended that the offence of criminal defamation should be retained in the new criminal laws.
-
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Consider the following statements about Wheat Blast
- It is caused by the plant fungus Magnaporthe oryzae that causes bleaching of the heads.
- Magnaporthe oryzae pathogen is resistant to fungicides.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct · Wheat blast, caused by the plant fungus Magnaporthe oryzae, is a fast-acting, severedisease of wheat that causes bleaching of the heads. · Magnaporthe oryzae can infect many grasses, including barley, lolium, rice, and wheat, but specific isolates of this pathogen generally infect limited species; that is, wheat isolates infect preferably wheat plants but can use several more cereal and grass species as alternate hosts.
· It spreads through infected seeds, crop residues, and spores that can travel long distances in the air.
· It thrives in warm and humid conditions, making regions with such climates particularly susceptible
· The pathogen is also resistant to fungicides. · The seriousness of the disease is indicated by the fact that crops are burnt to avoid this disease.
Effects:
· It causes progressive bleaching of the heads, lower yields, and poor seed quality.
· Stems and leaves are discoloured, with dark brown, eye-shaped lesions on leaves.
· Sometimes dark grey spores can be seen.
· It can shrivel and deform the grain in less than a week from the first symptoms.
Context: Researchers who have modeled for the first time how wheat blast will spread in the future found the fungal disease could reduce global wheat production by 13% until 2050.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct · Wheat blast, caused by the plant fungus Magnaporthe oryzae, is a fast-acting, severedisease of wheat that causes bleaching of the heads. · Magnaporthe oryzae can infect many grasses, including barley, lolium, rice, and wheat, but specific isolates of this pathogen generally infect limited species; that is, wheat isolates infect preferably wheat plants but can use several more cereal and grass species as alternate hosts.
· It spreads through infected seeds, crop residues, and spores that can travel long distances in the air.
· It thrives in warm and humid conditions, making regions with such climates particularly susceptible
· The pathogen is also resistant to fungicides. · The seriousness of the disease is indicated by the fact that crops are burnt to avoid this disease.
Effects:
· It causes progressive bleaching of the heads, lower yields, and poor seed quality.
· Stems and leaves are discoloured, with dark brown, eye-shaped lesions on leaves.
· Sometimes dark grey spores can be seen.
· It can shrivel and deform the grain in less than a week from the first symptoms.
Context: Researchers who have modeled for the first time how wheat blast will spread in the future found the fungal disease could reduce global wheat production by 13% until 2050.
-
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements about UNESCO 1970 Convention
- It refers to ‘Means of Prohibiting and Preventing the Illicit Import, Export and Transfer of Ownership of Cultural Property’.
- It applies retrospectively, thus including the peak phase of colonialism.
Choose the incorrect statements:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect · 1970 Convention – It refers to ‘Means of Prohibiting and Preventing the Illicit Import, Export and Transfer of Ownership of Cultural Property’. · It is the principal legal source when a country makes a claim to have its possessions returned.
· Launch – It came into force in 1972.
· State Parties – 144, India ratified in 1977.
· Objectives – To urge States Parties to take measures to prohibit, prevent the illicit trafficking and return the cultural property.
· To provide a common framework for the States Parties on the measures and to safeguard the identity of peoples and promote peaceful societies.
· Principles – Prevention, restitution and international cooperation.
· Limitations – It does not apply retrospectively, so it does not include the peak phase of colonialism. · Ownership approval – The requesting State Party shall furnish, at its expense, the documentation and other evidence necessary to establish its claim for recovery and return.
· Significance of returning artefacts – It can provide significant soft-power benefits for European countries in their extension of influence in regions such as Southeast Asia.
Context: Recently, the pressure on European museums to return artefacts taken from Southeast Asia during colonial times is growing.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect · 1970 Convention – It refers to ‘Means of Prohibiting and Preventing the Illicit Import, Export and Transfer of Ownership of Cultural Property’. · It is the principal legal source when a country makes a claim to have its possessions returned.
· Launch – It came into force in 1972.
· State Parties – 144, India ratified in 1977.
· Objectives – To urge States Parties to take measures to prohibit, prevent the illicit trafficking and return the cultural property.
· To provide a common framework for the States Parties on the measures and to safeguard the identity of peoples and promote peaceful societies.
· Principles – Prevention, restitution and international cooperation.
· Limitations – It does not apply retrospectively, so it does not include the peak phase of colonialism. · Ownership approval – The requesting State Party shall furnish, at its expense, the documentation and other evidence necessary to establish its claim for recovery and return.
· Significance of returning artefacts – It can provide significant soft-power benefits for European countries in their extension of influence in regions such as Southeast Asia.
Context: Recently, the pressure on European museums to return artefacts taken from Southeast Asia during colonial times is growing.
-
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Which of the following is correct about Tidal Disruption Event (TDE), recently seen in news
Correct
Solution (b)
Option b Correct · Tidal disruption events (TDEs) are astronomical phenomena that occur when a star passes close enough to a supermassive black hole and is pulled apart by the black hole’s tidal forces, causing the process of disruption. · Such tidally disrupted stellar debris starts raining down on the black hole and radiation emerges from the innermost region of accreting debris, which is an indicator of the presence of a TDE.
· How does a TDE typically unfold?
· Close Approach: A star in a galaxy approaches a black hole on a very close trajectory due to gravitational interactions within the galaxy.
· Tidal Forces: As the star gets closer to the black hole, the gravitational forces acting on it become increasingly uneven due to the difference in gravitational pull on the near side and far side of the star. These tidal forces can be strong enough to disrupt the star.
· Stellar Disruption: When the tidal forces exceed the self-gravitational forces holding the star together, it undergoes a process called “tidal disruption.” The star is stretched and eventually torn apart into a stream of gas and debris.
· Accretion Disk Formation: The debris from the disrupted star forms an accretion disk around the black hole. This disk is composed of hot gas and dust, and it spirals inwards towards the black hole.
· Energy Release: As the material in the accretion disk spirals inwards, it releases a tremendous amount of energy in the form of X-rays and ultraviolet radiation.
· Flares and Observations: TDEs are often observed as bright flares of radiation from the centre of a galaxy. These flares can last for several months to years, gradually fading as the disrupted star’s material is consumed by the black hole.
Context: An international team of astronomers recently conducted multi-wavelength observations of AT 2023clx—the closest to Earth tidal disruption event (TDE).
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Option b Correct · Tidal disruption events (TDEs) are astronomical phenomena that occur when a star passes close enough to a supermassive black hole and is pulled apart by the black hole’s tidal forces, causing the process of disruption. · Such tidally disrupted stellar debris starts raining down on the black hole and radiation emerges from the innermost region of accreting debris, which is an indicator of the presence of a TDE.
· How does a TDE typically unfold?
· Close Approach: A star in a galaxy approaches a black hole on a very close trajectory due to gravitational interactions within the galaxy.
· Tidal Forces: As the star gets closer to the black hole, the gravitational forces acting on it become increasingly uneven due to the difference in gravitational pull on the near side and far side of the star. These tidal forces can be strong enough to disrupt the star.
· Stellar Disruption: When the tidal forces exceed the self-gravitational forces holding the star together, it undergoes a process called “tidal disruption.” The star is stretched and eventually torn apart into a stream of gas and debris.
· Accretion Disk Formation: The debris from the disrupted star forms an accretion disk around the black hole. This disk is composed of hot gas and dust, and it spirals inwards towards the black hole.
· Energy Release: As the material in the accretion disk spirals inwards, it releases a tremendous amount of energy in the form of X-rays and ultraviolet radiation.
· Flares and Observations: TDEs are often observed as bright flares of radiation from the centre of a galaxy. These flares can last for several months to years, gradually fading as the disrupted star’s material is consumed by the black hole.
Context: An international team of astronomers recently conducted multi-wavelength observations of AT 2023clx—the closest to Earth tidal disruption event (TDE).
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