[DAY 01] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (c)

• The Government of India Act of 1919 implemented Dyarchy in the Provinces, dividing subjects into Reserved and Transferred categories. The executive council, not responsible to the legislative council, managed Reserved Subjects, while Transferred Subjects were administered by the governor with legislative council responsibility. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• The Government of India Act of 1919 introduced separate electorates, reflecting Communal Representation. Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Europeans, and Europeans had distinct electorates, emphasizing communal identities in the electoral process. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• The Government of India Act of 1919 established financial autonomy for provinces by separating Provincial and Central Budgets. Provinces gained the authority to formulate and enact their own budgets independently, providing a degree of fiscal decentralization. (Hence statement 3 is correct).

Solution (b)

• Constitutionalism is a political philosophy emphasizing the importance of limiting government authority through a defined set of laws or a constitution. It aims to prevent arbitrary rule, safeguard individual rights, and establish a framework that outlines the powers and responsibilities of the government. By establishing a constitution, a government’s authority becomes subject to the principles and rules laid out in that constitution, ensuring a system of checks and balances. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• The rule of law emphasizes that no one, including individuals and the government, is above the law. It signifies that the law is supreme and applies equally to all, ensuring fairness, justice, and accountability. Rather than emphasizing the supremacy of individuals, the rule of law places importance on the equal application of legal principles to protect individual rights and prevent arbitrary actions by those in authority. Constitutionalism and the rule of law work in tandem to create a just and accountable governance structure. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect).
• The rule of law is a foundational principle in constitutionalism that establishes the idea that all individuals, including government officials, are subject to and accountable under the law. It prevents the concentration of power in the hands of a few by ensuring that legal principles and standards apply universally. (Hence statement 3 is correct).

Solution (c)

• Theocracy is a form of government where a specific religious ideology dictates leadership, laws, and customs. In such systems, religious clergy may hold key leadership roles, including the highest office in the nation. For example, Iran operates as a theocracy with an Islamic system of governance led by religious figures. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• In theocratic systems, there is often minimal distinction between scriptural laws and legal codes. The laws are heavily influenced by religious doctrines, and religious authorities play a significant role in interpreting and implementing them within the legal framework. This integration of religious principles into the legal system can be observed in various theocratic states. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• Oligarchies are forms of government where a small group of individuals holds power over a nation. The selection of this group is often based on specific qualities such as wealth, heredity, or race. In oligarchies, there tends to be an absence of democratic practices, and decision-making authority is concentrated in the hands of this privileged minority. Oligarchies may have authoritative rulers, and individual rights can be limited. (Hence statement 3 is correct).

Solution (a)

• While Dr. Rajendra Prasad made significant contributions to the Constituent Assembly, it was Sardar Patel who chaired the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities, and Tribal and Excluded Areas. Sardar Patel’s leadership in this committee demonstrated his commitment to addressing critical issues related to fundamental rights and the protection of minority and tribal communities. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect).
• Jawaharlal Nehru’s dual leadership in the Union Powers Committee and the States Committee showcased his comprehensive understanding of the intricacies involved in both central and state governance. This dual responsibility reflects Nehru’s instrumental role in negotiating and defining the distribution of powers between the Union and the States, contributing significantly to the constitutional framework that emerged from the Constituent Assembly’s deliberations. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• S.K. Dar was not a member of the Constituent Assembly but headed the Linguistic Provinces Commission. The presence of S.K. Dar’s direct involvement in these roles indicates that the leadership of the Linguistic Provinces Commission was entrusted to someone else within the Constituent Assembly, highlighting the diverse contributions of various members to the formation of linguistic provinces in post-independence India. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect).

Important Points/ Value Additions:

Solution (b)

• The first Constituent Assembly meeting was on Dec 09, 1946. It predates India’s independence on Aug 15, 1947. The Muslim League boycotted the initial gathering attended by 211 members. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect).
• Dr. Sachidanand Sinha played a pivotal role in the Constituent Assembly of India by being elected as its temporary president during its initial sessions. This esteemed position required him to preside over the assembly’s meetings until the permanent president, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, could assume office. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• Jawaharlal Nehru’s Objective Resolution, moved on Dec 13, 1946, laid the constitutional groundwork. The present Preamble is a modified version, reflecting its foundational principles. (Hence statement 3 is correct).

Solution (b)

• The Indian Constitution drew heavily from the Government of India Act, 1935, adopting its federal structure, Governor’s office, and provisions related to emergencies. The Act laid the groundwork for the constitutional framework, shaping the distribution of powers between the center and states, the role of Governors, and the provisions for declaring emergencies, which were later incorporated into the Indian Constitution. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• The concept of judicial review has not been taken directly from the British Constitution. While the British legal system does not have a codified constitution like the United States, the idea of judicial review has historical roots in British legal principles. However, the development and formalization of judicial review, as a specific and potent power of the judiciary to review and potentially invalidate government actions, is often attributed to the United States, particularly through the landmark case of Marbury v. Madison (1803). (Hence statement 2 is incorrect).
• The Weimar Constitution’s impact on the Indian Constitution is evident in the provision allowing the suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergencies. This provision reflects the lessons learned from the Weimar Republic’s challenges and the need to address exceptional situations. India’s constitutional framers incorporated this feature to provide the government with necessary powers during emergencies while establishing safeguards to prevent misuse, striking a delicate balance between order and liberty. (Hence statement 3 is correct).

Solution (d)

• Constitutional Morality involves a commitment to the core principles and values enshrined in the constitution, ensuring that actions align with the fundamental ideals of justice, equality, and democracy, forming the bedrock of the constitutional framework. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• In the Naz Foundation case, the Supreme Court emphasized that legal judgments should be guided by Constitutional Morality, prioritizing fundamental rights and constitutional principles over subjective public morality to protect individual liberties, especially in matters relating to personal freedoms and equality. (Hence statement 2 is correct).

Solution (b)

• The Kesavananda Bharati Case addressed the question of whether the Preamble could be amended. The Supreme Court held that while the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, amendments must not violate the Constitution’s basic structure, ensuring its core principles remain intact.  (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• The Preamble to the Indian Constitution has not been amended by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act. The 52nd Amendment Act, enacted in 1985, primarily dealt with anti-defection laws and did not involve any changes to the Preamble. The Preamble was amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976, introducing the words “Socialist”, “Secular”, and “Integrity” to the original Preamble.(Hence statement 2 is incorrect).
• The original Preamble indeed characterized the state as a “Sovereign Democratic Republic,” emphasizing key principles of democracy and sovereignty in the nation’s governance. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Solution (c)

• The Charter Act of 1813 marked the termination of the East India Company’s monopoly in India. However, the company retained its monopoly in trade with China and the tea trade with India.
• The act extended the company’s rule in India for an additional 20 years, reaffirming British control over Indian territories.
• Individuals, particularly Christian Missionaries, were granted permission to travel to India to contribute to moral and religious advancements.
• The act introduced regulations on the company’s territorial revenues and commercial profits, emphasizing the separation of territorial and commercial accounts.
• The company’s dividend was fixed at 10.5% per annum, providing stability in financial returns.
• A provision mandated the Company to invest Rs. 1 Lakh annually in the education of Indians, reflecting an early focus on educational initiatives.
• The act empowered Local Governments in India with the authority to impose taxes on individuals and enforce penalties on those who failed to pay, enhancing local fiscal governance.

Solution (a)

• The Indian constitution has adopted the principle of ‘Procedure established by law’ from the Japanese constitution. However, the doctrine of ‘Due process of law’ finds its origin in the constitution of the USA. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• ‘Rule of law’ has been adopted from the British Constitution. The rule of law is the political philosophy that all citizens and institutions within a country, state or community are accountable to the same set of laws, including lawmakers and leaders. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• India has adopted various provisions from the Canadian constitution which have made the Indian federal structure biased towards center like the Federation with a strong center, residuary powers with the center and appointment of state governors by the Centre. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Solution (a)

• Schedule I of the Indian Constitution outlines the names of Union Territories. These territories, while not fully sovereign entities like states, have varying degrees of autonomy and administration under the Central government. Their governance structures differ, some having legislative assemblies while others are directly administered by the President of India or administrators appointed by the Central government. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• Not all Union Territories have legislative assemblies. As of the latest update in 2023, only some Union Territories like Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir have legislative assemblies, allowing them a degree of self-governance and lawmaking power. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect)
• The Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal ministry responsible for handling various administrative and governance-related matters concerning Union territories. It oversees the appointment of administrators or Lieutenant Governors and manages matters related to security, law and order, and overall administration in these territories. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• These states were formerly Union Territories before they attained full statehood. Each went through a process where, after a period of being administered directly by the Central government, they gained statehood with their own elected governments, legislative assemblies, and more autonomy in decision-making within the framework of the Indian Constitution. (Hence statement 4 is correct)

Solution (b)

• On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• It proclaimed that all power and authority of the Sovereign Independent India, its constituent parts, and organs of government, are derived from the people. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual shaping of the Constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Indian Constitution. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Solution (d)

• The Constitution of a country is a set of written rules that are accepted by all people living together in a country. Constitution is the supreme law that determines the relationship among people living in a territory (called citizens) and also the relationship between the people and government.
• It draws a structure that defines fundamental political principles, forms the framework, procedures, powers, and duties of government institutions and lays out Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles and Duties of citizens
• It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kind of people to live together. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• It specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take which decisions. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• It lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the rights of the citizens are. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• It expresses the aspirations of the people creating a good society.
• It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action of government, to find out whether it is good or bad. (Hence statement 4 is correct)

The Constitution of India is the longest written Constitution of any sovereign country in the world. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is the chief architect of the Indian Constitution.

Solution (c)

The parliamentary system of government in India is largely based on the British parliamentary system. However, it never became a replica of the British system and differs in the following respects:

• India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system. In other words, the Head of the State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the State in Britain (that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position. (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal system, judicial review and Fundamental Rights. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• In Britain, the Prime Minister should be a member of the Lower House (House of Commons) of the Parliament. In India, the Prime Minister may be a member of any of the two Houses of Parliament.
• Usually, the members of Parliament alone are appointed as Ministers in Britain. In India, a person who is not a Member of Parliament can also be appointed as minister, but for a maximum period of six months.
• Britain has the system of legal responsibility of the minister while India has no such system. Unlike in Britain, the ministers in India are not required to countersign the official acts of the Head of the State.
• ‘Shadow cabinet’ is a unique institution of the British cabinet system. It is formed by the opposition party to balance the ruling cabinet and to prepare its members for future ministerial office. There is no such institution in India.

Solution (b)

• The Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism that is, all religions in our country (irrespective of their strength) shall have the same status and support from the state. Atheistic State is anti-religion and hence condemns all religions and it is not a secular State. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• The State is neutral in the matter of religion and does not uphold any particular religion as the state religion. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Solution (b)

• Article 3 of the Indian Constitution deals with the formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States. In this regard, the Parliament may by law:
  • Form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States, or by uniting any territory to a part of any State.
  • Increase the area of any State.
  • Diminish the area of any State.
  • Alter the boundaries of any State.
  • Alter the name of any State.
• Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period. (Hence statements 1 and 2 are correct)
• Further, the power of parliament to form new states includes the power to form a new state or union territory by uniting a part of any state or union territory to any other or union territory.
• The President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)

Solution (b)

Explanation:

State Reorganization Commission:

• Fazl Ali Commission also called the States Reorganization Commission was set up to investigate whether the linguistic basis for state separation can be considered or not.
• The creation of Andhra state intensified the demand from other regions for creation of states on linguistic basis.
• This forced the Government of India to appoint in December 1953, a three-member States Re-organisation Commission under the chairmanship of Fazl Ali to reexamine the whole question. Its other two members were K M Panikkar and H N Kunzru. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• It submitted its report in September 1955 and broadly accepted language as the basis of re-organisation of states. But, it rejected the theory of ‘one language– one state’. Its view was that the unity of India should be regarded as the primary consideration in any redrawing of the country’s political units. It identified four major factors that can be taken into account in any scheme of re-organisation of states: (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the country.
• Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.
• Financial, economic and administrative considerations.
• Planning and promotion of the welfare of the people in each state as well as of the nation as a whole.

The commission suggested the abolition of the fourfold classification of states under the original Constitution and creation of 16 states and 3 centrally administered territories. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents. A person born in India on or after 1^st July 1987 is considered as a citizen of India only if either of his parents is a citizen of India at the time of his birth. Further, those born in India on or after 3^rd December 2004 are considered citizens of India only if both of their parents are citizens of India or one of those parents is a citizen of India and the other is not an illegal migrant at the time of their birth. The children of foreign diplomats posted in India and enemy aliens cannot acquire Indian citizenship by birth. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)
• If any foreign territory becomes a part of India, the government of India specifies the persons who among the people of the territory shall be citizen of India. Such persons become the citizens of India from the notified date. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• When an Indian citizen voluntarily (consciously, knowingly and without duress, undue influence or compulsion) acquires the citizenship of another country, his Indian citizenship automatically terminates. This provision, however, does not apply during a war in which India is engaged. (Hence statement 3 is correct)

Solution (b)

Government of India Act, 1858 (Act for the Good Government of India)

• This act known as the Act for the Good Government of India, abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of government, territories and revenues to the British Crown (Hence statement 1 is correct)
• It provided that India henceforth was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. Thus, Viceroy of India was not a new official position.
• Viceroy was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning thus became the first Viceroy of India.
• It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. The secretary of state was a member of the British cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the British Parliament. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect)
• It established a 15-member Council of India to assist the secretary of state for India. The council was an advisory body. The secretary of state was made the chairman of the council.
• It constituted the secretary of state-in-council as a body corporate, capable of suing and being sued in India and in England.

‘The act of 1858 was, however, largely confined to the improvement of the administrative machinery by which the Indian Government was to be supervised and controlled in England. It did not alter in any substantial way the system of government that prevailed in India.’

Solution (b)

Features of the Act of 1909:

This Act is also known as Morley-Minto Reforms (Lord Morley was the then Secretary of State for India and Lord Minto was the then Viceroy of India).

• It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial. The number of members in the Central Legislative Council was raised from 16 to 60. The number of members in the provincial legislative councils was not uniform.
• It retained official majority in the Central Legislative Council but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non-official majority.
• It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both the levels. For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions, move resolutions on the budget, and so on.
• It provided (for the first time) for the association of Indians with the executive Councils of the Viceroy and Governors. Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s Executive Council. He was appointed as the law member. (Hence statement 2 is correct)
• It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act ‘legalised communalism’ and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate. (Hence statement 3 is correct)
• It also provided for the separate representation of presidency corporations, chambers of commerce, universities and zamindars.

Government of India Act of 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reform) created a new office of the High Commissioner for Indian in London and transferred to him some of the functions hitherto performed by the Secretary of State for India. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect)

Solution (b)

• Global Wind Day is an annual event since 2007 to promote wind energy as a clean and renewable source of power. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• It was started by the European Wind Energy Association (EWEA) and later joined by the Global Wind Energy Council (GWEC).
• GWEC is a member-based organisation that represents the entire wind energy sector.
• Global Wind Day 2023 was celebrated on 15th June 2023 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) with the theme of “Pawan – Urja: Powering the Future of India”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• MNRE has set the target of 500 GW renewable energy capacity by 2030 and Wind Atlas at 150 meters above ground level was also launched by the National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE), estimating the onshore wind potential at 1,164 GW.

Solution (b)

• The National Cooperative Union of India (NCUI) is the apex body representing all sectors of the Indian co-operative movement. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Its objectives include the promotion and development of the co-operative movement in India, to educate, guide and assisting the people in their efforts, and to build up and expand the co-operative sector.
• Its membership is open to national and state-level co-operative organisations as well as multi-state co-operative societies. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• As of 2016, NCUI had 260 members, including, 17 National, 163 State, and 80 Multi-State Cooperatives.
• It is organising Indian Cooperative Congress (ICC) with the theme of Amrit Kaal: Prosperity through Cooperation for a Vibrant India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It will be chaired by the Union Minister for Home and Cooperation.
• The objectives of the Indian Cooperative Congress are:
• To discuss various trends in the cooperative movement.
• To showcase the best practices being adopted by the successful cooperatives.
• To deliberate on challenges being faced by the cooperative world.

Solution (c)

• The Central Board for Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory bodyunder the Cinematograph Act 1952. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is headed by a central government-appointed chairperson and 12-45 non-official members.
• The members are eminent persons from social science, education, law, arts, or films background appointed.
• It works under the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
• Films can be publicly exhibited in India only after they are certified by the CBFC. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It examines films for content that may be harmful or unsuitable for some particular audiences, particularly children and young people.
• It ensures that films adhere to ethical standards, respecting cultural values and societal norms.
• After evaluating the content and classifying the film, the CBFC grants a certificate that permits the film’s public exhibition.

Note: Films are certified under four categories:-

• “U”: unrestricted public exhibition.
• “A”: restricted to adult audiences.
• “U/A”: unrestricted public exhibition subject to parental guidance for children below the age of twelve.
• “S”: restricted to specialized audiences such as doctors or scientists. The board may also refuse to certify.

Solution (b)

• The United Nations Office for Outer Space Affairs (UNOOSA) helps countries use space data and technologiesto prevent and manage disasters. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Its objective is to help all countries, especially developing countries, access and leverage the benefits of space to accelerate sustainable development.
• It helps countries understand the fundamentals of international space law and increase their capacity to draft or revise national space law and policy.
• It supports transparency in space activities.
• It helps to promote sustainable development through space.
• It is headquartered in Vienna, Austria. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is headed by an Office of the Director and has five sections
• The Office of the Director (OD) oversees and coordinates the strategic direction and operational priorities of UNOOSA. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Committee, Policy and Legal Affairs Section (CPLA) provide substantive, secretariat, organisational and administrative support.
• Space Applications Section (SAS) plans and implements the United Nations Programme on Space Applications.
• United Nations Platform for Space-Based Information for Disaster Management and Emergency Response (UN-SPIDER) is a programme of UNOOSA to leverage space data and applications for disaster risk reduction.
• The Executive Secretariat of the International Committee on GNSS (ICG) brings together all global navigation satellite system (GNSS) providers.
• The Office of the Director (OD) oversees and coordinates the strategic direction and operational priorities of UNOOSA.

Solution (b)

• Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve is located in Chandrapur district in Maharashtra.
• It is Maharashtra’s oldest and largest national park.
• The reserve is the second Tiger Reserve in Maharashtra.
• It has a tropical dry deciduous forest with dense woodlands.
• It comprises about 67% of the protected area.
• Teak is the predominant tree species.
• The other trees are Bamboo, Ain, Bija, Dhaudab, Haldu, Salai, Semal, Shisham, Sisoo, Surya, and Sirus.

Hence option b is correct.

Note: The first Tiger Reserve established in the Maharashtra is Melghat Tiger Reserve

Solution (b)

Recently, Egypt’s ‘Order of the Nile’ was conferred to India’s Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi.

• The Order of the Nile is Egypt’s highest state honour instituted in 1915. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is a pure gold collarconsisting of three-square gold units comprising pharaonic symbols. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Pharaonic symbols were numerous symbols in the life of ancient Egyptians and varied in their symbols, rituals, and use.
• It is conferred upon Heads of state, Crown Princes, and Vice-Presidents who offer Egypt or humanity invaluable services. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Rani Durgavati was born in 1524in the Chandela dynasty. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• She is hailed as a patriotic rulerand defender of culture, becoming a symbol of pride and honour.
• Madan Mahal is a suburban area of Jabalpur famous for the historical Durgavati fort. The area also has a railway station named Madan Mahal. The fort dates back to 11th century AD. The fort is well associated with Rani Durgavati the Gond Queen and her son Veer Narayan. Rani Durgavati eventually died fighting the Mughals, and is hailed as a martyr in Indian history. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The University of Jabalpurwas renamed Rani Durgavati Vishwavidyalaya by the Madhya Pradesh government in 1983. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• On June 24, 1988, the Indian government released a postage stamp in memory of her.
• The Durgavati Express (11449/11450) runs between Jabalpur Junction and Jammutawi and is named for the Queen.
• The third Inshore Patrol Vessel (IPV) of its kind, ICGS Rani Durgavati, was commissioned by the Indian Coast Guard on July 14, 2018.

Solution (b)

• The Mahadayi River is also known as the Mandovi River.
• It originates in the Western Ghats from the Bhimgad Wildlife Sanctuary in the Belgaum district of Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It flows for about 81 km before emptying into the Arabian Sea.
• The river is formed by the confluence of two rivers: the Daddi and the Markandeya.
• Its left bank tributaries are the Daddi River, Malaprabha River, and Markandeya River.
• Its right bank tributaries are the Tambaraparani River, Bainganga River, Wardha River. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Dams on the Mahadayi River are:
• The Hidkal Dam: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka.
• The Hidkal Dam: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka.
• The Selaulim Dam: Located in South Goa.
• The Virdi Dam: Located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka.
• The Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary is situated on the island of Chorao, which is located in the Mandovi River. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Mahadayi River is of great importance to the states of Goa and Karnataka, serving as a source of water for drinking, irrigation, and tourism.

Solution (b)

• The Florence Nightingale Award is the highest national distinction a nurse can achieve for selfless devotion and exceptional professionalism. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Florence Nightingale was an English social reformer, statistician and the founder of modern nursing. She came to prominence while serving as a manager and trainer of nurses during the Crimean War. She organized to care for wounded soldiers at Constantinople.
• It is given by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It was instituted as a mark of recognition for the meritorious services rendered by nurses and nursing professionals to society.
• The award consists of a cash award of 50000/-, a certificate and a medal. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The award is given to outstanding Nursing personnel employed in Central, State/UTs, Private, Missionary and Voluntary Organizations.

Solution (b)

• Artemis Accord is a non-binding set of principles designed to guide civil space explorationand use in the 21st century. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is a non-binding agreement with no financial commitments.
• It was established in 2020 by NASA, in coordination with the U.S. Department of State, and established the Artemis Accords with eight founder nations.
• Its founding members are Australia, Canada, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, United Arab Emirates, the United Kingdom, and the US. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Artemis Accords signatories as of May 2023 are Australia, Bahrain, Brazil, Canada, Colombia, Czech Republic, France, Israel, Italy, Japan, Luxembourg, Mexico, New Zealand, Nigeria, Poland, the Republic of Korea, Romania, Rwanda, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, Spain, Ukraine, the United Arab Emirates, the United Kingdom, and the United States.

Solution (c)

The smallest 6-digit number is 100000.

111) 100000 (900

0999

—–

100

—

Required number = 100000 + (111 – 100) = 100011.

Solution (a)

Number of leap years in 400 years = 24 * 3 + 25 = 97 years.

Hence, in 400 consecutive years February has the 29th day 97 times

And the remaining eleven months have the 29th day = 400 x 11 = 4400 times.

Thus the 29th day of the month occurs = 97 + 4400 = 4497 times

Solution (a)

Let the two digit number be 10a + b, where ‘b’ is unit and ‘a’ is tens digit respectively.

Thus reverse of the number will be 10b + a

According to given data, (10a + b) – (10b + a) = 27

->9a – 9b = 27 -> a – b = 3.

∴ the difference between two digits of the number is 3

Solution (c)

Let us assume the total number of women =100

Thus out of 100, women less than or equal to 50 years = 80 and, women above 50 years = 20

Number of women plays basketball = 20% of 100 = 20

30% of the women above 50 plays basketball = 30% of 20 = 6

So, remaining 14 women who plays basketball are less than or equal to 50 years.

So the percentage of players who are less than or equal to 50 years = 14/20 x 100 = 70%

Solution (c)

Given that, dimensions of room are 24m long, 16m broad and 18m high.

The longest rod that can be placed in a room has length equal to the diagonal of the room.

We know that diagonal of the cuboid = √(length^2) +(breadth^2) +(height^2)

Length of the longest pole = √(24^2 + 16^2 + 18^2) = √576 + 256 + 324 = √1156 = 34 m