[DAY 18] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ENVIRONMENT , CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a)

The historic Convention on Biological Diversity (‘The Earth Summit’) held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992, called upon all nations to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of its benefits.

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Solution (a)

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Decomposition rate of some of the common wastes that we generate on a daily basis:

• Wet wipes: 100 years
• Straws: 200 years
• Foamed plastic cups: 50 years
• Plastic bags: 10–1,000 years
• Cigarette butts: 18 months to 10 years
• Tin: 50 years
• Tires: 2,000 years
• Nylon fishing nets: 40 years
• Nylon fabric: 30–40 years
• Plastic bottles: 450 years
• Cotton T-shirts: 6 months
• Wool socks: 1–5 years
• Synthetic fabric: over 100 years
• Aluminum cans: 80–100 years
• Orange peels: 6 months
• Sanitary pads and tampons: over 25 years

Solution (c)

To protect our flora and fauna and their habitats, protected areas called wildlife sanctuaries, national parks and biosphere reserves have been earmarked.

1. Wildlife Sanctuary: Areas where animals are protected from any disturbance to them and their habitat.
2. National Park: Areas reserved for wild life where they can freely use the habitats and natural resources.
3. Biosphere Reserve: Large areas of protected land for conservation of wild life, plant and animal resources and traditional life of the tribals living in the area.

The biosphere reserves help to maintain the biodiversity and culture of that area. A biosphere reserve may also contain other protected areas in it. For example, the Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve (M.P) consists of one national park named Satpura and two wildlife sanctuaries named Bori and Pachmarhi.

Solution (d)

Nutrients are supplied to plants by air, water and soil. There are several nutrients which are essential for plants. Air supplies carbon and oxygen, hydrogen comes from water, and soil supplies the other thirteen nutrients to plants. Amongst these, some are required in large quantities and are therefore called macro-nutrients. The other nutrients are used by plants in small quantities and are therefore called micro-nutrients.

Solution (b)

Solution (c)

Note:

• According to Conservation International, a region must fulfill the following two criteria to qualify as a hotspot:

1. The region should have at least 1500 species of vascular plants i.e., it should have a high degree of endemism.
2. It must contain 30% (or less) of its original habitat, i.e. it must be threatened.

• Following the criteria must for an area to be declared as Biodiversity Hotspot, there are major four biodiversity hotspots in India:
• The Himalayas
• Indo-Burma Region
• The Western Ghats
• Sundaland
• India is recognized as one of the mega-diverse countries, rich in biodiversity and associated traditional knowledge.
• India has 23.39% of its geographical area under forest and tree cover.
• With just 2.4% of the land area, India accounts for nearly 7% of the recorded species even while supporting almost 18% of the human population.
• In terms of species richness, India ranks seventh in mammals, ninth in birds and fifth in reptiles.
• In terms of endemism of vertebrate groups, India’s position is tenth in birds with 69 species, fifth in reptiles with 156 species and seventh in amphibians with 110 species.
• India’s share of crops is 44% as compared to the world average of 11%.

Solution (a)

Solution (b)

Captive Breeding

• Captive breeding occurs when members of a wild species are captured, bred, and raised in a special facility under the supervision of wildlife biologists and other experts.
• In these cases, bringing an animal into captivity may represent the last chance to save a species in the wild.
• Captive-produced young can sometimes be released into the wild where populations have declined or disappeared but suitable habitat remains.(Ex. Pygmy Hog)
• When all of the existing habitat is of poor quality or other environmental problems arise, a captive population can be maintained until the problems are resolved or another suitable habitat for the animal in the wild is found.
• When existing habitat is fragmented, captive breeding combined with management may be the only hope for survival by allowing for genetic mixing.
• Captive breeding and release programmes can help birds expand their range when they are trapped in one area of degraded habitat.
• By keeping and breeding birds in captivity, we gain knowledge about them that would be difficult or impossible to obtain in the wild. Sometimes scientific research provides some of the information required to save a species.
• If the situation calls for it, reintroduction or reestablishment in the natural habitat may also be necessary.

Ex Situ Conservation

• Ex situ conservation means “off-site conservation.”
• It is the process of protecting an endangered species, variety, or breed of plant or animal outside of its natural habitat; for example, by removing a portion of the population from a threatened habitat and relocating it to a new location, an artificial environment that is similar to the respective animal’s natural habitat and under the care of humans, such as zoological parks and wildlife safaris.
• The extent to which humans control or modify the natural dynamics of the managed population varies greatly and may include changes to living environments, reproductive patterns, resource access, and protection from predation and mortality.
• Ex situ management can take place both within and outside of a species’ natural geographic range.

Solution (c)

 Biopiracy:

• It is often assumed that traditional knowledge is in public domain and the local communities have no claims over it. Hence, such knowledge can be easily misappropriated.
• Biopiracy here refers to the appropriation of traditional knowledge of biodiversity by outsiders and companies and it includes fraudulent patenting of such biological resources for profit.
• Some examples of biopiracy in India:
  • Turmeric: In 1995, two NRIs in the US were awarded a patent for the wound-healing property of turmeric. India’s Council of Scientific and Industrial Research contested the patent on the argument that the medicinal properties of turmeric were known to Indians since centuries. The patent was cancelled.
  • Basmati Rice: In 1997, the US firm Rice Tec obtained patents for Basmati Rice line and grains, arguing that they invented the variety. Due to massive protests, some of their claims were rejected.
  • Neem: In 1994, the European Patent Office awards a patent to the US firm, W.R. Grace for a method of controlling fungi on plants by the aid of Neem oil. NGOs and Indian farmers successfully contested this patent.
• It is not always easy to fight against biopiracy. In this era of globalization, it is important to record all such traditional and local knowledge of biodiversity.

Convention On Biological Diversity (CBD)

• The CBD came into force in 1993. It secured rights to control access to genetic resources for the countries in which those resources are located.
• One objective of the CBD is to enable lesser-developed countries to better benefit from their resources and traditional knowledge.
• Under the rules of the CBD, bioprospectors are required to obtain informed consent to access such resources and must share any benefits with the biodiversity-rich country.

Biological Diversity Act, 2002: It was enacted by the Parliament, to provide for:

• Conservation of biological diversity,
• Sustainable use of its components
• Fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources and knowledge.

Nagoya Protocol

• It is mandated that benefits derived from the use of biological resources are shared in a fair and equitable manner among the indigenous and local communities.
• When an Indian or foreign company or individual accesses biological resources such as medicinal plants and associated knowledge, it has to take prior consent from the national biodiversity board.
• The board can impose a benefit-sharing fee or royalty or impose conditions so that the company shares the monetary benefit from commercial utilisation of these resources with local people who are conserving biodiversity in the region.

Solution (c)

Notes:

Sacred Groves-

• Sacred groves are communally protected forests which usually have a significant religious connotation for the protecting community.
• In India, there are over lakh sacred groves across different states called by different names like Kaavu in Malayalam, Koyil kaadu in Tamil, Orans in Rajasthan, Devara kaadu in Karnataka, and Sernas in Madhya Pradesh.
• Many rare and endemic species and species having medicinal and economic value can be found here, thus making them Biodiversity Hotspots. They house gene pools of some critically endangered plant species.
• They are often associated with religious beliefs and felling of trees in sacred groves is considered taboo.
• Sacred groves have been legally protected under ‘community reserves’ in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2002.

Solution (c)

Solution (d)

Note:

Agro-biodiversity Hotspot:

• Agrobiodiversity is the result of the interaction between the environment, genetic resources and management systems and practices used by culturally diverse people.
• It comprises the diversity of genetic resources (varieties, breeds) and species used for food, fodder, fibre, fuel and pharmaceuticals.
• It also includes the diversity of non-harvested species that support production (soil microorganisms, predators, pollinators), and those in the wider environment that support agro-ecosystems (agricultural, pastoral, forest and aquatic) as well as the diversity of the agro-ecosystems.
• Agro-biodiversity Hotspots of India include-

1. Cold Desert
2. Western Himalayan
3. Eastern Himalayan
4. Brahmaputra Valley
5. Khasia-Jaintia-Garo Hills
6. North-Eastern Hills
7. Arid Western
8. Malwa Plateau and Central Highlands
9. Kathiawar
10. Bundelkhand
11. Upper Gangetic Plains
12. Lower Gangetic Plains
13. Gangetic Delta
14. Chotanagpur
15. Bastar
16. Koraput
17. Southern Eastern Ghats
18. Kaveri
19. Deccan
20. Konkan
21. Malabar
22. Islands- Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep

Benefits of Agrobiodiversity:

• Increases productivity, food security, and economic returns.
• Reduces the pressure of agriculture on fragile areas, forests, and endangered species.
• Makes farming systems more stable, robust, and sustainable.
• Contributes to sound pest and disease management
• Conserves soil and increases natural soil fertility and health.
• Reduces dependency on external inputs.
• Improves human nutrition and provides sources of medicines and vitamins.
• Conserve ecosystem structure and stability of species diversity.

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Notes:

Solution (a)

Note:

Very Short-Lived Halogenated Substances (VSLSs):

• Halogenated very short-lived substances (VSLSs) are naturally produced in the ocean and emitted to the atmosphere.
• When transported to the stratosphere, these compounds can have a significant influence on the ozone layer and climate.
• VSLS are ozone-depleting halogen-containing substances found in the stratosphere.
• These substances have very short lifetimes, typically less than 6 months.
• Approximately 90% of VSLS are produced by natural processes and their rate of production is increasing.
• “They are bromine compounds produced by seaweed and the ocean’s phytoplankton”.
• Only 10% of ozone depleting chlorine compounds are man-made.
• VSLS are responsible for atmospheric damage once they enter the stratosphere and are a contributing factor to the destruction of the ozone layer.
• In previous decades it was believed that the most significant factor in ozone depletion was the increase in chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
• Currently VSLS are increasing rapidly, mainly due to industrial activities.
• The primary VSLS is n-propyl bromide (C3H7Br).
• Very short-lived substances (VSLS), including dichloromethane (CH2Cl2), chloroform (CHCl3), perchloroethylene (C2Cl4), and 1,2-dichloroethane (C2H4Cl2), are a stratospheric chlorine source and therefore contribute to ozone depletion.
• It has been forecast that brominated VSLS will increase to about 8 – 10% of the total VSLS emission by the end of 21st century.
• There has not been much research in this area, although this is changing as more scientists study this substance to predict its long-term impact on ozone levels.

Solution (d)

Ozone Layer Depletion:

• Ozone Layer Depletion is the chemical destruction of the stratospheric ozone layer that is not caused by natural processes.
• Natural cycles constantly create and deplete ozone in the stratosphere. However, various Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS) fasten the destruction process, resulting in lower-than-normal ozone levels.
• Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), bromine-containing halons and methyl bromide, HCFCs, carbon tetrachloride (CCl4), and methyl chloroform are examples of ODSs.
• Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), was introduced as non-ozone depleting alternatives to support the timely phase-out of CFCs and HCFCs.

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs):

• Hydrofluorocarbons are organic compounds that contain fluorine and hydrogen atoms.
• They are the most common kind of organofluoride compounds.
• They are specifically manufactured, unlike other greenhouse gases which are mostly waste/byproducts.
• HFCs are used as replacements for CFCs and HCFCs.
• They are used in air conditioning and as refrigerants.
• Even though HFCs do not cause ozone layer depletion, they are super greenhouse gases. They cause global warming.
• Their potential to cause global warming is a thousand times more than other GHGs such as methane, carbon dioxide, etc.

Examples: HFC-23, HFC-134a

Kigali Agreement:

• The Kigali Agreement is significant because it addresses the vital question of HFCs.
• HFCs are powerful greenhouse gases and to mitigate climate change, countries must strive to reduce and gradually phase out their production and usage. Hence, the Kigali Agreement assumes significance.
• The important features of this agreement are briefly described below:

1. It is a legally binding agreement between the signatories. And, there are non-compliance measures to ensure its implementation.
2. It sets different targets for countries depending upon the states of development, different socio-economic constraints, and varying technological and scientific capacities.
3. The Kigali Agreement upholds the principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities.
4. The agreement classifies the signatory parties into three as per the phase-down schedules to freeze and reduce the production of HFCs.
5. The first group consists of developed countries, led by the US and the European Union countries, that would have started the phase-down of HFCs by 2019, and reduce the level to 15% of 2012 level by the year 2036.
6. The second group consists of developing economies such as China, Brazil, and also some African States that will start the phase-down by 2024 and decrease it to 20% of 2021 levels by the year 2045.
7. The third group (in which India is placed) consists of developing economies and also some of the hottest nations, that will start the phase-down by 2028 and reduce the level to 15% of 2024-26 levels by the year 2047. Examples: Pakistan, Iran, Saudi Arabia.

Solution (a)

• Sickle Cell Disease (SCD) is a group of inherited red blood cell disorders with symptoms such as chronic anaemia and delayed puberty. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• In SCD, the red blood cells become hard and sticky and look like a C-shaped farm tool called a “sickle”.
• It can be treated through blood transfusions, stem cell transplantation, and hydroxyurea.
• Hydroxyurea is a medication that can help reduce the frequency of painful episodes and prevent some of the long-term complications of the disease. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The National Sickle Cell Anemia Eradication Mission aims to eliminate sickle cell anemia in India by 2047. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• Rubber requires deep and lateritic fertile soil with an acidic pH of 4.5 to 6.0. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It requires a tropical or subtropical climate with a minimum of about 1,200 mm per year of rainfall and no frost.
• The minimum and maximum temperature should range from 25 to 34°C with 80 % relative humidity is ideal for cultivation.
• India is currently the world’s fifth-largest producer of natural rubber. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• India is the second-largest consumer of natural rubber.
• Rubber is used in the manufacturing of tyres due to its excellent grip and wear resistance, medical devices like gloves, syringe plungers, and equipment, sporting goods like tennis balls, golf balls, and protective gear, and footwear for its cushioning and slip-resistant properties. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Rubber Board is a statutory organization constituted under the Rubber Act of 1947. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. It is headed by a Chairman appointed by the Central Government and has 28 members representing various interests in the natural rubber industry.
• It is headquartered in Kottayam in Kerala.
• The Board is responsible for the development of the rubber industry in the country by assisting and encouraging research, development, extension, and training activities related to rubber.

Solution (d)

The planetary boundaries framework was first proposed by Johan Rockstrom to define the environmental limits within which humanity can safely operate to maintain Earth’s stability and biodiversity. The nine planetary boundaries are:

• Ocean acidification
• Biogeochemical flows
• Freshwater use
• Climate change
• Change in biosphere integrity
• Stratospheric ozone depletion.
• Land-system change
• Atmospheric aerosol loading
• Introduction of novel entities

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (b)

The 7th report on antimicrobial use in animals released by the World Organisation for Animal Health (WOAH) states:

• There is a 13% decrease in global antimicrobial usage in animals from 2017 to 2019. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Out of 80 countries, 49 in Asia, the Far East, Oceania, and Europe reported an overall reduction in antimicrobial use.
• Around 68% of the participants have discontinued using antimicrobials as growth promoters while 26% of participants continue to use growth promoters due to a lack of proper legislation or regulations.
• The common antimicrobial growth promoters are flavomycin, bacitracin, avilamycin, and tylosin. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d)

Narmada River is a west-flowing river of the peninsular region flowing through a rift valley between the Vindhya Range on the north and the Satpura Range on the south. Its right tributaries are Hiran, Tendori, Barna, Kolar, Man, Uri, Hatni, and Orsang while its left tributaries are Burner, Banjar, Sher, Shakkar, Dudhi, Tawa, Ganjal, Chhota Tawa, Kundi, Goi, and Karjan. It serves as a traditional boundary between North and South India. Its major dams include Omkareshwar and Maheshwar. It originates from the Amarkantak peak of Maikal Mountain and flows into the Gulf of Khambhat. It drains areas in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat. Hence option d is correct.

Solution (c)

• Chennakeshava Temple is a 12th-century Hindu temple dedicated to Vishnu located on the banks of the Yagachi River. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was commissioned by King Vishnuvardhana in 1117 CE, on the banks of the Yagachi River in Belur also called Velapura, an early Hoysala Empire capital.
• The richly sculptured exterior of the temple narrates scenes from the life of Vishnu and his reincarnations and the epics, Ramayana, and Mahabharata. However, some of the representations of Shiva are also included.
• Hoysaleswara temple is a 12th-century Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva located on the banks of the Dwarasamudra tank. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It was built in 1121 CE during the reign of the Hoysala King, Vishnuvardhana Hoysaleshwara, and is most well-known for the more than 240 wall sculptures that run all along the outer wall.

Solution (c)

The Non-Aligned Movement was formed during the Cold War as an organization of States that did not seek to formally align themselves with either the United States or the Soviet Union but sought to remain independent or neutral. It was founded and held its first conference (the Belgrade Conference) in 1961 under the leadership of Josip Broz Tito of Yugoslavia, Gamal Abdel Nasser of Egypt, Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana, and Sukarno of Indonesia.

The Relevance of the Non-Alignment Movement:

• It acted as a protector for small countries against Western hegemony as the third-world countries were fighting against socio-economic problems since they had been exploited for a long time by other developed nations. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It has played an active role in preserving world peace. It aims to establish a peaceful and prosperous world. It prohibited invasion of any country and promoted disarmament and a sovereign world order. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It acts as a bridge between the political and ideological differences existing in the international environment by promoting an equitable world order. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Battery energy storage systems (BESS) are smart systems as they use algorithms to interact with the grid and make decisions regarding storing and releasing surplus energy. They primarily utilize lithium-ion batteries due to their characteristics like high energy density, decreasing costs, and extended lifespan.

• Battery energy storage systems (BESS) preserve energy generated from renewable sources like sunlight and wind. It balances the supply and demand of renewable energy by releasing it into the grid when required. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• Renewable energy sources have intermittent generation patterns because solar energy is available during the day and heavy wind is also a seasonal phenomenon. It can cause abrupt surges or declines in power generation, leading to power outages. It overcomes the issue of intermittent generation patterns of renewable energy sources by enhancing grid stability. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award is India’s highest cinema honour presented at the National Film Awards ceremony. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Dadasaheb Phalke was the director of India’s inaugural full-length feature film, “Raja Harishchandra,” in 1913. He is known as the “Father of Indian Cinema”.
• Devika Rani is the first awardee of this award which was initiated in 1969. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Waheeda Rehman will be honoured with the 53rd Dadasaheb Phalke Lifetime Achievement Award for the year 2023.
• It is presented annually at the National Film Awards ceremony by the Directorate of Film Festivals.
• Its prize includes a Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus) medallion, a shawl, and a cash prize of 10 lakh. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• The Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) is a part of the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi.
• It is a statutory body established under the Central Boards of Revenue Act, of 1963. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It was formed in 1964 when the Central Board of Revenue was split into the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) and the Central Board of Excise and Customs.
• The Central Board of Excise and Customs was renamed the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs in 2018.
• It is the nodal national agency responsible for administering customs, central excise, service tax, GST, and narcotics in India. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It is the administrative authority for its subordinate organizations, including Custom Houses, Central Excise and Central GST Commissionerate, and the Central Revenues Control Laboratory.

Solution (c)

x + y = 11………(i)

10x + y + 45 = 10y + x ……….. (ii)

From equation (i) and (ii), we get

X = 3 and y =8

So, the number is 38.

Solution (b)

Given series:

2 4 7 8 9 11 16 19 23 25 28 31 36 40 41 46 49 54 67 73 82 89 97

Prime numbers in the series are: 2, 7, 11, 19, 23, 31, 41, 67, 73, 89 and 97.

After deleting prime numbers from the given series, we get:

4 8 9 16 25 28 36 40 46 49 54 82

Arranging them in descending order, we get:

82 54 49 46 40 36 28 25 16 9 8 4

Thus, 36 will be the 7th element from the right end in such an arrangement.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Let there be ‘x’ Amoeba in the first generation, i.e. n₁ = x.

So, n₂ = 10x, but only 50% survive,

So, n₂, survived = 10x/2 = 5x.

n₃ = 10(5x), but only 50% survive,

So, n₃, survived = 10(5x)/2 = 25x = 5²x.

Similarly, n₆,_survived = 5^6-1 x = 5⁵x

Now, it’s given that: 5⁵x = 3125

⇒ 3125x = 3125

∴ x = 1.

Solution (b)

The given digits are 1, 3, 5, 7, 9

Sum of r digit number= ^n-1P_r-1

(Sum of all n digits)×(1111… r times)

N is the number of non zero digits.

Here n=5, r=4

The sum of 4 digit numbers

⁴P₃ (1+3+5+7+9) (1111) = 666600

Solution (c)

Number of students that passed = 52 – 15 = 37

In the list of passed students, position of Ramesh is 22^nd from the top.

So, his position from the bottom = (37 + 1) – 22 = 38 – 22 = 16^th