IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Which of the following are examples of adaptations found in the animals?
- Short straight and sharp claws in Polar bears
- Large ears of Elephants
- Moving in isolation behaviour of Penguins
- Long beak of Toucan bird in rainforests
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct Polar bears have long curved and sharp claws which help them in walking on ice and to catch and hold prey. Presence of white fur reduces their visibility in the snowy background which helps them in catching prey. It also protects them from the extreme cold. Elephants have large ears which help the elephant to keep cool in the hot and humid climate of the rainforest. They also help them to hear even very soft sounds. To prevent themselves freezing to death, penguins huddle together in tightly-packed groups to conserve heat and shelter themselves from the intense winds of the Antarctica. Penguins on the outskirts regularly muscle their way inside the huddle. As there is competition for food in rainforests, some animals are adapted to get food which is not easily reachable. A striking example is that of the bird Toucan, which possesses a long, large beak. This helps a toucan to reach the fruits on branches which are otherwise too weak to support its weight. Notes:
Adaptations are found in the natural world among animals, which help them in surviving in their habitat.
Other adaptations found in the animals- are-
Polar bears –
- They also have a layer of fat under their skin. They are so well-insulated that they have to move slowly and rest often to avoid getting overheated. Physical activities on warm days necessitate cooling. So, the polar bear goes for swimming.
- They have a strong sense of smell so that they can catch their prey for food.
Penguins –
- They also have a thick skin and a lot of fat to protect them from cold. Like polar bears, penguins are also good swimmers. Their bodies are streamlined and their feet have webs, making them good swimmers.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Incorrect Correct Polar bears have long curved and sharp claws which help them in walking on ice and to catch and hold prey. Presence of white fur reduces their visibility in the snowy background which helps them in catching prey. It also protects them from the extreme cold. Elephants have large ears which help the elephant to keep cool in the hot and humid climate of the rainforest. They also help them to hear even very soft sounds. To prevent themselves freezing to death, penguins huddle together in tightly-packed groups to conserve heat and shelter themselves from the intense winds of the Antarctica. Penguins on the outskirts regularly muscle their way inside the huddle. As there is competition for food in rainforests, some animals are adapted to get food which is not easily reachable. A striking example is that of the bird Toucan, which possesses a long, large beak. This helps a toucan to reach the fruits on branches which are otherwise too weak to support its weight. Notes:
Adaptations are found in the natural world among animals, which help them in surviving in their habitat.
Other adaptations found in the animals- are-
Polar bears –
- They also have a layer of fat under their skin. They are so well-insulated that they have to move slowly and rest often to avoid getting overheated. Physical activities on warm days necessitate cooling. So, the polar bear goes for swimming.
- They have a strong sense of smell so that they can catch their prey for food.
Penguins –
- They also have a thick skin and a lot of fat to protect them from cold. Like polar bears, penguins are also good swimmers. Their bodies are streamlined and their feet have webs, making them good swimmers.
-
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Name of Interaction Activity 1. Mutualism Both the species are benefitted 2. Amensalism Both the species are unaffected 3. Competition Both the species are disadvantaged How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution (c)
1. 2. 3. Mutualism Amensalism Competition Correct Incorrect Correct Both the species are benefitted. One species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected. Both the species are disadvantaged. Notes:
Species A Species B Name of Interaction + + Mutualism – – Competition + – Predation + – Parasitism + 0 Commensalism – 0 Ammensalism Examples of different Interactions:
Mutualism:
- Humans and Plants:
The human requires oxygen for life and plants use the carbon dioxide for photosynthesis. Here both human and plants are mutually benefited. Humans use the oxygen given by the plants. In return, plants use carbon dioxide, which is exhaled by the Humans.
- Oxpeckers and Rhinos:
The bird oxpecker lives on the rhino and removes all bugs and parasites on the animal skin by eating them. The Rhino provides the bird with food and in return, the bugs removed from the skin of the rhino. Both rhino and the oxpecker are benefited.
Competition:
An example among animals could be the case of Cheetah and lions since both species feed on similar prey, they are negatively impacted by the presence of the other because they will have less food, however they still persist together, despite the prediction that under competition one will displace the other.
Predation:
Tiger (predator) eating deer (prey), frog eating insects
Parasitism:
Among the animals, ticks, mites and lice are external parasites or ectoparasites.
The fungal parasites include Erysiphe (powdery mildew), Ustilago (smut), Puccinia (rust), etc.; which cause diseases that result in serious losses of economically important crops.
Commensalism:
Association between suckerfish (or Remora or Echeneis) and shark-
The sucker fish has the dorsal fin modified as a sucker(or adhesive) disc, with the help of which it is attached to the body of shark so that the suckerfish gets free transportation.
The sucker fish releases the attachment after sometime and swims in search of food.
Ammensalism:
When cattle trample on grass, the grass is crushed. However, the cattle do not benefit from this action nor is harmed in the process.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
1. 2. 3. Mutualism Amensalism Competition Correct Incorrect Correct Both the species are benefitted. One species is harmed whereas the other is unaffected. Both the species are disadvantaged. Notes:
Species A Species B Name of Interaction + + Mutualism – – Competition + – Predation + – Parasitism + 0 Commensalism – 0 Ammensalism Examples of different Interactions:
Mutualism:
- Humans and Plants:
The human requires oxygen for life and plants use the carbon dioxide for photosynthesis. Here both human and plants are mutually benefited. Humans use the oxygen given by the plants. In return, plants use carbon dioxide, which is exhaled by the Humans.
- Oxpeckers and Rhinos:
The bird oxpecker lives on the rhino and removes all bugs and parasites on the animal skin by eating them. The Rhino provides the bird with food and in return, the bugs removed from the skin of the rhino. Both rhino and the oxpecker are benefited.
Competition:
An example among animals could be the case of Cheetah and lions since both species feed on similar prey, they are negatively impacted by the presence of the other because they will have less food, however they still persist together, despite the prediction that under competition one will displace the other.
Predation:
Tiger (predator) eating deer (prey), frog eating insects
Parasitism:
Among the animals, ticks, mites and lice are external parasites or ectoparasites.
The fungal parasites include Erysiphe (powdery mildew), Ustilago (smut), Puccinia (rust), etc.; which cause diseases that result in serious losses of economically important crops.
Commensalism:
Association between suckerfish (or Remora or Echeneis) and shark-
The sucker fish has the dorsal fin modified as a sucker(or adhesive) disc, with the help of which it is attached to the body of shark so that the suckerfish gets free transportation.
The sucker fish releases the attachment after sometime and swims in search of food.
Ammensalism:
When cattle trample on grass, the grass is crushed. However, the cattle do not benefit from this action nor is harmed in the process.
-
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
Consider the following pairs of organisms and their mode of nutrition:
Organism Mode of nutrition 1. Mushroom Saprotrophic 2. Insectivorous plants Parasitic 3. Algae Autotrophic How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution (c)
1. 2. 3. Mushroom Insectivorous Plants Algae Correct Incorrect Correct Mushroom is a Saprotroph, which means it takes its nutrition from dead and decaying organic matter. It falls under the category of fungus. Insectivorous plants are partial heterotrophs whereas other plants are autotrophs. Insectivores plants are not the examples of parasitic nutrition in plants. Parasitic plants cannot photosynthesize and hence, are depended on other living organisms for their nutrition. Insectivorous plants can photosynthesize but lack only in nitrogen. So, to fulfil this requirement, they consume the digestive nutrients in the insects.
Algae contains chlorophyll can also prepare its own food by photosynthesis. The mode of nutrition in which organisms make food themselves from simple substances is called autotrophic nutrition. Incorrect
Solution (c)
1. 2. 3. Mushroom Insectivorous Plants Algae Correct Incorrect Correct Mushroom is a Saprotroph, which means it takes its nutrition from dead and decaying organic matter. It falls under the category of fungus. Insectivorous plants are partial heterotrophs whereas other plants are autotrophs. Insectivores plants are not the examples of parasitic nutrition in plants. Parasitic plants cannot photosynthesize and hence, are depended on other living organisms for their nutrition. Insectivorous plants can photosynthesize but lack only in nitrogen. So, to fulfil this requirement, they consume the digestive nutrients in the insects.
Algae contains chlorophyll can also prepare its own food by photosynthesis. The mode of nutrition in which organisms make food themselves from simple substances is called autotrophic nutrition. -
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Biomagnification:
- It is the process of a buildup of certain chemical substances or toxins at the higher trophic levels of a food chain.
- In order for biomagnifications to occur, the pollutants must be short-lived.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Biomagnification is the process of a buildup of certain chemical substances or toxins at the higher trophic levels of a food chain. In order for biomagnifications to occur, the pollutants must be long-lived. Notes:
Biomagnifications-
- It refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next.
- In biomagnifications there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another. In order for biomagnifications to occur, the pollutant must be:
- long-lived
- Mobile
- soluble in fats
- Biologically active
- It can be seen in the case of Mercury or DDT. The concentration of Mercury/DDT increases at the successive trophic levels. DDT concentration in zooplankton gets magnified when DDT contaminated water is consumed by the Zooplanktons. In the successive trophic levels like, small fish, big fish, and at top carnivore, the magnification is much higher, which proves the event of Biomagnifications.
- A pollutant having properties like long life, mobile, soluble in fat, biologically active will lead to the process of biomagnifications.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Biomagnification is the process of a buildup of certain chemical substances or toxins at the higher trophic levels of a food chain. In order for biomagnifications to occur, the pollutants must be long-lived. Notes:
Biomagnifications-
- It refers to the tendency of pollutants to concentrate as they move from one trophic level to the next.
- In biomagnifications there is an increase in concentration of a pollutant from one link in a food chain to another. In order for biomagnifications to occur, the pollutant must be:
- long-lived
- Mobile
- soluble in fats
- Biologically active
- It can be seen in the case of Mercury or DDT. The concentration of Mercury/DDT increases at the successive trophic levels. DDT concentration in zooplankton gets magnified when DDT contaminated water is consumed by the Zooplanktons. In the successive trophic levels like, small fish, big fish, and at top carnivore, the magnification is much higher, which proves the event of Biomagnifications.
- A pollutant having properties like long life, mobile, soluble in fat, biologically active will lead to the process of biomagnifications.
-
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
In the context of environment and ecology, consider the following statements regarding ‘standing crop’:
- It is the total amount of food grains available in a region at a given point in time.
- It is measured in terms of the mass of living organisms.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop. A standing crop is the total dried biomass of the living organisms present in a given environment. It is not limited to the food grains. The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area. The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight. Note:
The total amount or weight, or energy content, of (a portion of) organisms existing in a specific area at a particular time, is known as standing crop.
The non-living (inorganic nutrients) like carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus etc. present in the soil at that time is called the standing state.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop. A standing crop is the total dried biomass of the living organisms present in a given environment. It is not limited to the food grains. The standing crop is measured as the mass of living organisms (biomass) or the number in a unit area. The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight. Note:
The total amount or weight, or energy content, of (a portion of) organisms existing in a specific area at a particular time, is known as standing crop.
The non-living (inorganic nutrients) like carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus etc. present in the soil at that time is called the standing state.
-
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Fungi lives in symbiosis with the plant and passes phosphorus from the soil to the plant.
- Azotobacter and Azospirillum are free-living bacteria that fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Fungi are known to form symbiotic associations with plants (mycorrhiza) where the fungi absorb phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant. Plants having such associations show other benefits also, such as resistance to root-borne pathogens, tolerance to salinity and drought, and an overall increase in plant growth and development.
In addition to nitrogen-fixing bacteria like Rhizobium that live in the plant roots, there are some free-living bacteria in the soil like Azospirillum and Azotobacter that fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil. These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by the plant as nutrient. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Fungi are known to form symbiotic associations with plants (mycorrhiza) where the fungi absorb phosphorus from soil and passes it to the plant. Plants having such associations show other benefits also, such as resistance to root-borne pathogens, tolerance to salinity and drought, and an overall increase in plant growth and development.
In addition to nitrogen-fixing bacteria like Rhizobium that live in the plant roots, there are some free-living bacteria in the soil like Azospirillum and Azotobacter that fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil. These bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into organic forms, which is used by the plant as nutrient. -
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
An invasive species can be any kind of living organism that is not native to an ecosystem and causes harm. Consider the following statements:
- An invasive species does not have to come from another country.
- Higher average temperatures and changes in rain and snow patterns caused by climate change will enable some invasive plant species to move into new areas.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct An invasive species does not have to come from another country. Higher average temperatures and changes in rain and snow patterns caused by climate change will enable some invasive plant species to move into new areas. Notes:
Invasive Species-
- Invasive species have devastating effects on wildlife.
- Human health and economies are also at risk from invasive species. Many of our commercial, agricultural, and recreational activities depend on healthy native ecosystems.
- Species that grow and reproduce quickly, and spread aggressively, with potential to cause harm, are given the label “invasive.”
- An invasive species does not have to come from another country.
- Invasive species are primarily spread by human activities, often unintentionally. People, and the goods we use, travel around the world very quickly, and they often carry uninvited species with them.
- When a new and aggressive species is introduced into an ecosystem, it may not have any natural predators or controls.
- It can breed and spread quickly, taking over an area. Native wildlife may not have evolved defenses against the invader, or they may not be able to compete with a species that has no predators.
- One way to curb the spread of invasive species is to plant native plants and remove any invasive plants in your garden.
- Examples if Invasive Species in India:
- Alternanthera philoxeroides
- Cassia uniflora
- Chromolaena odorata
- Eichhornia crassipes
- Lantana camara
- Parthenium hysterophorus
- Prosopis juliflora etc
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct An invasive species does not have to come from another country. Higher average temperatures and changes in rain and snow patterns caused by climate change will enable some invasive plant species to move into new areas. Notes:
Invasive Species-
- Invasive species have devastating effects on wildlife.
- Human health and economies are also at risk from invasive species. Many of our commercial, agricultural, and recreational activities depend on healthy native ecosystems.
- Species that grow and reproduce quickly, and spread aggressively, with potential to cause harm, are given the label “invasive.”
- An invasive species does not have to come from another country.
- Invasive species are primarily spread by human activities, often unintentionally. People, and the goods we use, travel around the world very quickly, and they often carry uninvited species with them.
- When a new and aggressive species is introduced into an ecosystem, it may not have any natural predators or controls.
- It can breed and spread quickly, taking over an area. Native wildlife may not have evolved defenses against the invader, or they may not be able to compete with a species that has no predators.
- One way to curb the spread of invasive species is to plant native plants and remove any invasive plants in your garden.
- Examples if Invasive Species in India:
- Alternanthera philoxeroides
- Cassia uniflora
- Chromolaena odorata
- Eichhornia crassipes
- Lantana camara
- Parthenium hysterophorus
- Prosopis juliflora etc
-
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
Nitrogen deficiency can be prevented by using organic methods which requires time, but it result in a more even distribution of the added nitrogen over time. Which of the following organic methods are used for adding nitrogen to the soil:
- Adding composted manure to the soil
- Planting a green manure crop, such as borage
- Planting nitrogen fixing plants like peas or beans
- Adding coffee grounds to the soil
- Adding Nitrogen as a Plant Fertilizer
Select the correct code:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Organic method Organic method Organic method Organic method Non-organic method Notes:
Nitrogen fixation-
- Plants need nitrogen to make themselves. Without nitrogen, a plant cannot make the proteins, amino acids and even its very DNA.
- This is why when there is a nitrogen deficiency in the soil, plants are stunted. They simply cannot make their own cells. If there is nitrogen all around us, as it makes up 78 percent of the air we breathe.
- In order for plants to use the nitrogen in the air, it must be converted in some way to nitrogen in the soil. This can happen through nitrogen fixation, or nitrogen can be ‘recycled’ by composting plants and manure.
- There are two routes to go when fixing a nitrogen deficiency in the soil, either organic or non-organic.
- Organic:
To correct a nitrogen deficiency using organic methods requires time, but will result in a more even distribution of the added nitrogen over time.
- Adding composted manure to the soil
- Planting a green manure crop, such as borage Planting
- nitrogen fixing plants like peas or beans
- Adding coffee grounds to the soil
- Non-Organic:
Using a nitrogen fertilizer to fix a nitrogen deficiency in the soil will give a big, fast boost of nitrogen to the soil, but will fade quickly.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Statement 5 Correct Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Organic method Organic method Organic method Organic method Non-organic method Notes:
Nitrogen fixation-
- Plants need nitrogen to make themselves. Without nitrogen, a plant cannot make the proteins, amino acids and even its very DNA.
- This is why when there is a nitrogen deficiency in the soil, plants are stunted. They simply cannot make their own cells. If there is nitrogen all around us, as it makes up 78 percent of the air we breathe.
- In order for plants to use the nitrogen in the air, it must be converted in some way to nitrogen in the soil. This can happen through nitrogen fixation, or nitrogen can be ‘recycled’ by composting plants and manure.
- There are two routes to go when fixing a nitrogen deficiency in the soil, either organic or non-organic.
- Organic:
To correct a nitrogen deficiency using organic methods requires time, but will result in a more even distribution of the added nitrogen over time.
- Adding composted manure to the soil
- Planting a green manure crop, such as borage Planting
- nitrogen fixing plants like peas or beans
- Adding coffee grounds to the soil
- Non-Organic:
Using a nitrogen fertilizer to fix a nitrogen deficiency in the soil will give a big, fast boost of nitrogen to the soil, but will fade quickly.
-
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Coastal Regulation Zone?
- The Coastal Regulation Zone-I is Ecologically Sensitive Area which lie between low and high tide line.
- The Coastal Regulation Zone IV is the territorial area under which Exploration of natural gas and extraction of salt are permitted.
- States have the authority to approve proposals for urban (CRZ-II) and rural (CRZ-III) areas.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Coastal Regulation Zone-I is Ecologically Sensitive Area which lie between low and high tide line. The Coastal Regulation Zone I is the territorial area under which Exploration of natural gas and extraction of salt are permitted. States have the authority to approve proposals for urban (CRZ-II) and rural (CRZ-III) areas. Coastal Regulation Zone:
CRZ along the country has been placed in four categories, which are as follows:
- CRZ I – Ecologically Sensitive Areas
- They lie between low and high tide line.
- Exploration of natural gas and extraction of salt are permitted.
- CRZ II – Shore Line Areas
- The areas that have been developed up to or close to the shoreline.
- Unauthorized structures are not allowed to construct in this zone.
- CRZ III – Undisturbed Area
- Rural and Urban localities which fall outside I and II.
- Only certain activities related to agriculture even some public facilities are allowed in this zone.
- CRZ IV – Territorial Area
- An area covered between Low Tide Line and 12 Nautical Miles seaward.
- Fishing and allied activities are permitted in this zone.
- Solid waste should be let off in this zone.
Changes made to the regulatory framework-
- The system of granting clearances has been changed. States will have the authority to approve proposals for urban (CRZ-II) and rural (CRZ-III) areas.
- The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change will grant clearances for ecologically sensitive areas (CRZ-I), and areas falling between the low tide line and 12 nautical miles seaward.
- The modifications also include demarcation of a 20-metre no development zone for all islands and guidelines to deal with sensitive areas.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The Coastal Regulation Zone-I is Ecologically Sensitive Area which lie between low and high tide line. The Coastal Regulation Zone I is the territorial area under which Exploration of natural gas and extraction of salt are permitted. States have the authority to approve proposals for urban (CRZ-II) and rural (CRZ-III) areas. Coastal Regulation Zone:
CRZ along the country has been placed in four categories, which are as follows:
- CRZ I – Ecologically Sensitive Areas
- They lie between low and high tide line.
- Exploration of natural gas and extraction of salt are permitted.
- CRZ II – Shore Line Areas
- The areas that have been developed up to or close to the shoreline.
- Unauthorized structures are not allowed to construct in this zone.
- CRZ III – Undisturbed Area
- Rural and Urban localities which fall outside I and II.
- Only certain activities related to agriculture even some public facilities are allowed in this zone.
- CRZ IV – Territorial Area
- An area covered between Low Tide Line and 12 Nautical Miles seaward.
- Fishing and allied activities are permitted in this zone.
- Solid waste should be let off in this zone.
Changes made to the regulatory framework-
- The system of granting clearances has been changed. States will have the authority to approve proposals for urban (CRZ-II) and rural (CRZ-III) areas.
- The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change will grant clearances for ecologically sensitive areas (CRZ-I), and areas falling between the low tide line and 12 nautical miles seaward.
- The modifications also include demarcation of a 20-metre no development zone for all islands and guidelines to deal with sensitive areas.
-
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Organic Farming:
- Organic farming is an integrated farming system that strives for sustainability, enhancement of soil fertility and biological diversity.
- It relies primarily on local renewable resources.
- It maximizes recycling of plant nutrients and organic matter.
- It uses genetically modified organisms and plant growth regulators to optimize agricultural productivity.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Organic farming is an integrated farming system that strives for sustainability, enhancement of soil fertility and biological diversity. It relies primarily on local renewable resources. It maximizes recycling of plant nutrients and organic matter. Genetically modified organisms and plant growth regulators are prohibited in Organic Farming. Notes:
Organic farming-
Organic farming is a holistic system designed to optimize the agricultural productivity and to reduce the impacts on diverse communities like soil organisms, plants, livestock and humans. Organic farming is a contemporary method of crop and livestock production that involves tools which do not use chemicals and artificial tools of cropping. It is an integrated farming system that strives for sustainability, enhancement of soil fertility and biological diversity.
Key characteristics of organic farming are:
- It relies primarily on local, renewable resources
- It makes efficient use of solar energy and the production potential of biological systems
- It maintains the fertility of the soil
- It maximizes recycling of plant nutrients and organic matter
- It does not use organisms or substances foreign to nature (e.g GMOs, chemical fertilizers or pesticides)
Substances which are prohibited in organic farming are:
- Chemical fertilizers and pesticides
- Genetically modified organisms
- Nanomaterials
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect Organic farming is an integrated farming system that strives for sustainability, enhancement of soil fertility and biological diversity. It relies primarily on local renewable resources. It maximizes recycling of plant nutrients and organic matter. Genetically modified organisms and plant growth regulators are prohibited in Organic Farming. Notes:
Organic farming-
Organic farming is a holistic system designed to optimize the agricultural productivity and to reduce the impacts on diverse communities like soil organisms, plants, livestock and humans. Organic farming is a contemporary method of crop and livestock production that involves tools which do not use chemicals and artificial tools of cropping. It is an integrated farming system that strives for sustainability, enhancement of soil fertility and biological diversity.
Key characteristics of organic farming are:
- It relies primarily on local, renewable resources
- It makes efficient use of solar energy and the production potential of biological systems
- It maintains the fertility of the soil
- It maximizes recycling of plant nutrients and organic matter
- It does not use organisms or substances foreign to nature (e.g GMOs, chemical fertilizers or pesticides)
Substances which are prohibited in organic farming are:
- Chemical fertilizers and pesticides
- Genetically modified organisms
- Nanomaterials
-
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding seed banks:
- Seeds are stored under low temperatures that keep seeds dormant till they are needed for replanting.
- Seed banks does not prevent the loss of Agro-biodiversity.
- Seeds that are stored in seed banks can be made easily available to scientists and researchers who wish to study these seeds.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Seeds are stored under low temperatures that keep seeds dormant till they are needed for replanting. Seed banks do prevent the loss of Agro-biodiversity. Seeds that are stored in seed banks can be made easily available to scientists and researchers who wish to study these seeds especially if such research could lead to improvement of crop production. Note:
Seed Bank-
- A seed bank is a kind of gene bank that stores seeds of food crops or any rare species of plants. Seed banks protect us against the extinction of plant species due to natural catastrophes, outbreak of diseases and even deliberate non-use for a long time. Seed banks make our diminishing biodiversity available to future generations.
- Seeds in a seed bank are dried to suitably low moisture content and stored at -18°C or below. The bank also documents the plan’s identity, sampling location, seed quantity, farming systems in which the crop was grown etc.
- Svalbard Global Seed Vault is a facility on a remote island in the Arctic Ocean and it houses the world’s largest collection of seeds. The seeds can be used in event of global catastrophe or when some species is lost due to natural disasters; hence it called the doomsday vault.
- India’s seed vault is located at Chang La, Ladakh in the Himalayas which stores over 5000 seed accessions (One accession consists of a set of seeds of one species collected from different locations or different populations).
- The vault is a joint venture of National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (which comes under Indian Council of Agriculture Research) and the Defense Institute of High-Altitude Research (under Defense Research and Development Organization).
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Seeds are stored under low temperatures that keep seeds dormant till they are needed for replanting. Seed banks do prevent the loss of Agro-biodiversity. Seeds that are stored in seed banks can be made easily available to scientists and researchers who wish to study these seeds especially if such research could lead to improvement of crop production. Note:
Seed Bank-
- A seed bank is a kind of gene bank that stores seeds of food crops or any rare species of plants. Seed banks protect us against the extinction of plant species due to natural catastrophes, outbreak of diseases and even deliberate non-use for a long time. Seed banks make our diminishing biodiversity available to future generations.
- Seeds in a seed bank are dried to suitably low moisture content and stored at -18°C or below. The bank also documents the plan’s identity, sampling location, seed quantity, farming systems in which the crop was grown etc.
- Svalbard Global Seed Vault is a facility on a remote island in the Arctic Ocean and it houses the world’s largest collection of seeds. The seeds can be used in event of global catastrophe or when some species is lost due to natural disasters; hence it called the doomsday vault.
- India’s seed vault is located at Chang La, Ladakh in the Himalayas which stores over 5000 seed accessions (One accession consists of a set of seeds of one species collected from different locations or different populations).
- The vault is a joint venture of National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (which comes under Indian Council of Agriculture Research) and the Defense Institute of High-Altitude Research (under Defense Research and Development Organization).
-
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
With respect to ‘Zero Budget Natural Farming’ (ZBNF), consider the following statements:
- It aims at enhancing farm biodiversity and ecosystem services.
- It uses in situ resources to rejuvenate soil instead of using external chemical fertilizers.
- Four pillars of ZBNF include Jiwamitra, Bijamrita, Acchadana and Waaphasa.
- Government promotes ZBNF through Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojna and Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojna.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct ZBNF aims at enhancing farm biodiversity and ecosystem services. ZBNF uses in situ resources to rejuvenate soil instead of using external chemical fertilizers. Four pillars of ZBNF include Jiwamitra, Bijamrita, Acchadana and Waaphasa. Government promotes ZBNF through Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojna and Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojna. Note:
ZBNF is based on 4 pillars:
- Jeevamrutha: It is a mixture of fresh cow dung and aged cow urine (both from India’s indigenous cow breed), jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil; to be applied on farmland.
- Bijamrita: It is a concoction of neem leaves & pulp, tobacco and green chilies prepared for insect and pest management, that can be used to treat seeds.
- Acchadana (Mulching): It protects topsoil during cultivation and does not destroy it by tilling.
- Whapasa: It is the condition where there are both air molecules and water molecules present in the soil. Thereby helping in reducing irrigation requirement.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Correct ZBNF aims at enhancing farm biodiversity and ecosystem services. ZBNF uses in situ resources to rejuvenate soil instead of using external chemical fertilizers. Four pillars of ZBNF include Jiwamitra, Bijamrita, Acchadana and Waaphasa. Government promotes ZBNF through Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojna and Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojna. Note:
ZBNF is based on 4 pillars:
- Jeevamrutha: It is a mixture of fresh cow dung and aged cow urine (both from India’s indigenous cow breed), jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil; to be applied on farmland.
- Bijamrita: It is a concoction of neem leaves & pulp, tobacco and green chilies prepared for insect and pest management, that can be used to treat seeds.
- Acchadana (Mulching): It protects topsoil during cultivation and does not destroy it by tilling.
- Whapasa: It is the condition where there are both air molecules and water molecules present in the soil. Thereby helping in reducing irrigation requirement.
-
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Hangul:
- It is the state animal of Himachal Pradesh.
- It is restricted to the Dachigam National Park.
- IUCN status is Endangered.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Kashmir stag also called Hangul is a subspecies of Central Asian Red Deer native to northern India. Snow Leopard is the state animal of Himachal Pradesh.
It is restricted to the Dachigam National Park. The Kashmir stag IUCN status is Critically Endangered. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Kashmir stag also called Hangul is a subspecies of Central Asian Red Deer native to northern India. Snow Leopard is the state animal of Himachal Pradesh.
It is restricted to the Dachigam National Park. The Kashmir stag IUCN status is Critically Endangered. -
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
Consider the following pairs regarding the regions/states and the corresponding hotspots:
Region/State Hotspots Assam Himalaya Mizoram Indo-Burma Andaman group of islands Sundaland Nicobar group of islands Western Ghats and Sri Lanka How many of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect Assam – Himalaya Mizoram – Indo-Burma Andaman group of Islands – Indo-Burma Nicobar group of Islands – Sundaland Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Incorrect Incorrect Assam – Himalaya Mizoram – Indo-Burma Andaman group of Islands – Indo-Burma Nicobar group of Islands – Sundaland -
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
Consider the following statement regarding Social Forestry?
- Among five different types of Social forestry, Silviculture is one of them.
- Extension forestry is a type of forestry that helps in increasing the boundaries of the forests
- Farm forestry is the management of trees for a specific purpose within a farming context.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct There are 5 different types of social forestry, which are listed below: 1. Scientific Forestry or Silviculture
2. Farm Forestry
3. Community Forestry
4. Agro-Forestry
5. Extension Forestry
Extension forestry is a type of forestry helps in increasing the boundaries of the forests. Planting of trees on the government wastelands, panchayat lands, village common lands. Farm forestry is the management of trees for a specific purpose within a farming context. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct There are 5 different types of social forestry, which are listed below: 1. Scientific Forestry or Silviculture
2. Farm Forestry
3. Community Forestry
4. Agro-Forestry
5. Extension Forestry
Extension forestry is a type of forestry helps in increasing the boundaries of the forests. Planting of trees on the government wastelands, panchayat lands, village common lands. Farm forestry is the management of trees for a specific purpose within a farming context. -
Question 16 of 35
16. Question
If the population of any species has been reduced by more than 90% over the last 10 years and its population size is less than 50 mature individuals, it will be categorized as:
Correct
Solution (c)
Critically Endangered Category:
A species is categorized as Critically Endangered when it meets any of the following criteria:
- Reduction in the population of more than 90% over the last 10 years.
- The population size is less than 50 mature individuals.
- Quantitative analysis showing the probability of extinction in the wild in at least 50% in their 10 years.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Critically Endangered Category:
A species is categorized as Critically Endangered when it meets any of the following criteria:
- Reduction in the population of more than 90% over the last 10 years.
- The population size is less than 50 mature individuals.
- Quantitative analysis showing the probability of extinction in the wild in at least 50% in their 10 years.
-
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Stenohaline organisms are species that can only tolerate specific ranges of salinities.
- Euryhaline organisms can withstand different salinities and can cope with a wide range of different environments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Stenohaline organisms are species that can only tolerate specific ranges of salinities. They are opposite of a stenohaline organism. A euryhaline organism can withstand different salinities and can cope with a wide range of different environments. Euryhaline organisms are commonly found in habitats such as estuaries and tide pools.
Note: Osmoregulation involves active regulation of the water content within a living system irrespective of the water content of the surrounding environment. Different species of organisms use different mechanisms for osmoregulation.
- Therefore, in the context of osmoregulation, species could be divided into two categories; osmoconformers and osmoregulators.
- Under osmoconformers, stenohaline organisms are included, and under osmoregulators euryhaline organisms are included.
- Euryhaline organisms have the ability to survive in varying concentrations of salts while stenohaline organisms thrive at a limited range of salinity.
- This is the difference between euryhaline and stenohaline.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Stenohaline organisms are species that can only tolerate specific ranges of salinities. They are opposite of a stenohaline organism. A euryhaline organism can withstand different salinities and can cope with a wide range of different environments. Euryhaline organisms are commonly found in habitats such as estuaries and tide pools.
Note: Osmoregulation involves active regulation of the water content within a living system irrespective of the water content of the surrounding environment. Different species of organisms use different mechanisms for osmoregulation.
- Therefore, in the context of osmoregulation, species could be divided into two categories; osmoconformers and osmoregulators.
- Under osmoconformers, stenohaline organisms are included, and under osmoregulators euryhaline organisms are included.
- Euryhaline organisms have the ability to survive in varying concentrations of salts while stenohaline organisms thrive at a limited range of salinity.
- This is the difference between euryhaline and stenohaline.
-
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Bioremediation techniques:
- Bio-venting involves the release of substantial quantities of microorganisms to carry out a specific remediation task in a given contaminated environment.
- Bio-augmentation involves supplying of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of microorganisms.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Bio-venting involves supplying of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of microorganisms. Bioaugmentation involves the release of substantial quantities of microorganisms to carry out a specific remediation task in a given contaminated environment. Note:
Bioremediation:
- Bioremediation is the use of microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) to degrade the environmental contaminants into less toxic forms.
- The microorganisms may be indigenous to a contaminated area or they may be isolated from elsewhere and brought to the contaminated site.
- The process of bioremediation can be monitored indirectly by measuring the Oxidation Reduction Potential or redox in soil and groundwater, together with pH, temperature, oxygen content, electron acceptor/donor concentrations, and concentration of breakdown products (e.g., carbon dioxide)
In-Situ Bioremediation:
- In Situ — It involves treatment of the contaminated material at the site.
- Bioventing: Supply of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of indigenous bacteria. It is used for simple hydrocarbons and can be used where the contamination is deep under the surface.
- Biosparging: Injection of air under pressure below the water table to increase groundwater oxygen concentrations and enhance the rate of biological degradation of contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria
- Bioaugmentation: Microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to enhance degradation process.
- Using bioremediation techniques, TERI has developed a mixture of bacteria called ‘Oilzapper and Oilivorous-S’ which degrades the pollutants of oil-contaminated sites, leaving behind no harmful residues. This technique is not only environment friendly, but also highly cost-effective.
Ex Situ Bioremediation:
- Ex Situ — involves the removal of the contaminated material to be treated elsewhere.
- Land Farming: contaminated soil is excavated and spread over a prepared bed and periodically tilled until pollutants are degraded. The goal is to stimulate indigenous biodegradative microorganisms and facilitate their aerobic degradation of contaminants.
- Biopiles: it is a hybrid of land farming and composting. Essentially, engineered cells are constructed as aerated composted piles. Typically used for treatment of surface contamination with petroleum hydrocarbons.
- Bioreactors: it involves the processing of contaminated solid material (soil, sediment, sludge) or water through an engineered containment system.
- Composting: Composting is nature’s process of recycling decomposed organic materials into a rich soil known as compost.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Bio-venting involves supplying of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of microorganisms. Bioaugmentation involves the release of substantial quantities of microorganisms to carry out a specific remediation task in a given contaminated environment. Note:
Bioremediation:
- Bioremediation is the use of microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) to degrade the environmental contaminants into less toxic forms.
- The microorganisms may be indigenous to a contaminated area or they may be isolated from elsewhere and brought to the contaminated site.
- The process of bioremediation can be monitored indirectly by measuring the Oxidation Reduction Potential or redox in soil and groundwater, together with pH, temperature, oxygen content, electron acceptor/donor concentrations, and concentration of breakdown products (e.g., carbon dioxide)
In-Situ Bioremediation:
- In Situ — It involves treatment of the contaminated material at the site.
- Bioventing: Supply of air and nutrients through wells to contaminated soil to stimulate the growth of indigenous bacteria. It is used for simple hydrocarbons and can be used where the contamination is deep under the surface.
- Biosparging: Injection of air under pressure below the water table to increase groundwater oxygen concentrations and enhance the rate of biological degradation of contaminants by naturally occurring bacteria
- Bioaugmentation: Microorganisms are imported to a contaminated site to enhance degradation process.
- Using bioremediation techniques, TERI has developed a mixture of bacteria called ‘Oilzapper and Oilivorous-S’ which degrades the pollutants of oil-contaminated sites, leaving behind no harmful residues. This technique is not only environment friendly, but also highly cost-effective.
Ex Situ Bioremediation:
- Ex Situ — involves the removal of the contaminated material to be treated elsewhere.
- Land Farming: contaminated soil is excavated and spread over a prepared bed and periodically tilled until pollutants are degraded. The goal is to stimulate indigenous biodegradative microorganisms and facilitate their aerobic degradation of contaminants.
- Biopiles: it is a hybrid of land farming and composting. Essentially, engineered cells are constructed as aerated composted piles. Typically used for treatment of surface contamination with petroleum hydrocarbons.
- Bioreactors: it involves the processing of contaminated solid material (soil, sediment, sludge) or water through an engineered containment system.
- Composting: Composting is nature’s process of recycling decomposed organic materials into a rich soil known as compost.
-
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
Consider the following statement about the Oil spills:
- Oil spills at sea decreases the Dissolved Oxygen (DOs) in the water and cause harm to the organisms.
- Oil spills at sea decreases the Chemical oxygen demand (COD) in the water and cause harm to the organisms.
- Using bioremediation techniques, TERI has developed a mixture of bacteria called ‘Oilzapper’ which degrades the pollutants of oil-contaminated sites.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Oil spills at sea decreases the Dissolved Oxygen (DOs) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. Oil spills at sea increase the Chemical oxygen demand (COD) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. COD is often used as a measurement of pollutants in water, wastewater, and aqueous hazardous wastes. One application of the COD test is to measure soluble COD in wastewater, since characterization of total COD in wastewater is critical for accurate modeling of biotransformation in wastewater treatment processes.
Using bioremediation techniques, TERI has developed a mixture of bacteria called ‘Oilzapper’ which degrades the pollutants of oil-contaminated sites, leaving behind no harmful residues. This technique is not only environment friendly, but also highly cost-effective. Note:
Oil Spill:
- An oil spill refers to an uncontrolled release of gasoline, crude oil, other oil products, and fuels into the environment. An oil spill can pollute water, air, and land by destroying natural habitats.
- The production on continental shelves, petroleum exploration, and transportation in large vessels have increased the cases of oil spills.
- According to Marine Insight, nearly 706 million gallons of waste oil pollute the ocean every year. Oil waste disposal and land drainage practices increase pollution levels in water bodies.
- Ideally, accidents involving pipelines, oil tankers, or drilling rigs are the primary causes of oil spills in oceans, rivers, and bays.
- Students preparing for UPSC prelims and IAS exams should know the impact of oil spills on the environment.
Impact of Oil Spill on the Environment and Humans:
- Oil spill causes health hazards to natives depending on seafood.
- Crude oil destroys the insulating capacity of bird feathers and coats them will oil. Marine life and bird coated in oil are prone to hypothermia and death.
- Oil forms a thin layer on the ocean surfaces and prevents sufficient sunlight from entering the ocean surface. This reduces the dissolved oxygen levels in water, making it difficult for marine life to breathe.
- Oil spills at sea increase the Chemical oxygen demand (COD) in the water and cause harm to the organisms.
- Ingesting toxic animals or preys kills predators, ultimately destroying the reproductive rate and habitat.
- Mangroves and saltwater marshes that protect the earth from natural disasters are prone to significant oil spills. This can be dangerous for the environment.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Oil spills at sea decreases the Dissolved Oxygen (DOs) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. Oil spills at sea increase the Chemical oxygen demand (COD) in the water and cause harm to the organisms. COD is often used as a measurement of pollutants in water, wastewater, and aqueous hazardous wastes. One application of the COD test is to measure soluble COD in wastewater, since characterization of total COD in wastewater is critical for accurate modeling of biotransformation in wastewater treatment processes.
Using bioremediation techniques, TERI has developed a mixture of bacteria called ‘Oilzapper’ which degrades the pollutants of oil-contaminated sites, leaving behind no harmful residues. This technique is not only environment friendly, but also highly cost-effective. Note:
Oil Spill:
- An oil spill refers to an uncontrolled release of gasoline, crude oil, other oil products, and fuels into the environment. An oil spill can pollute water, air, and land by destroying natural habitats.
- The production on continental shelves, petroleum exploration, and transportation in large vessels have increased the cases of oil spills.
- According to Marine Insight, nearly 706 million gallons of waste oil pollute the ocean every year. Oil waste disposal and land drainage practices increase pollution levels in water bodies.
- Ideally, accidents involving pipelines, oil tankers, or drilling rigs are the primary causes of oil spills in oceans, rivers, and bays.
- Students preparing for UPSC prelims and IAS exams should know the impact of oil spills on the environment.
Impact of Oil Spill on the Environment and Humans:
- Oil spill causes health hazards to natives depending on seafood.
- Crude oil destroys the insulating capacity of bird feathers and coats them will oil. Marine life and bird coated in oil are prone to hypothermia and death.
- Oil forms a thin layer on the ocean surfaces and prevents sufficient sunlight from entering the ocean surface. This reduces the dissolved oxygen levels in water, making it difficult for marine life to breathe.
- Oil spills at sea increase the Chemical oxygen demand (COD) in the water and cause harm to the organisms.
- Ingesting toxic animals or preys kills predators, ultimately destroying the reproductive rate and habitat.
- Mangroves and saltwater marshes that protect the earth from natural disasters are prone to significant oil spills. This can be dangerous for the environment.
-
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
Forest fires are uncontrolled fires that burn surface vegetation. Which of the following are the impacts of the forest fire?
- It replenishes carbon sinks.
- There is loss of valuable timber resources.
- It leads to the ozone layer depletion.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Forest fire causes depletion of carbon sinks. Forest fire causes loss of valuable timber resources. Forest fire leads to the depletion of ozone layer. Satellite observations of the ozone layer after widespread fires burned across Australia in 2020 revealed that it was being depleted by chemicals released in the smoke. These chemicals sped up the processes that normally regulate ozone in our atmosphere, reducing the UV protection this layer affords.
Notes:Forest Fires:
Forest fires are uncontrolled fires that burn surface vegetation.
Forest fires cause following adverse impacts:
- Loss of valuable timber resources.
- Depletion of carbon sinks.
- Degradation of water catchment areas resulting in loss of water.
- Loss of biodiversity and extinction of plants and animals.
- Loss of wildlife habitat and depletion of wildlife.
- Loss of natural regeneration and reduction in forest cover and production.
- Global warming resulting in rising temperature.
- Loss of carbon sink resource and an increase in the percentage of CO2 in the atmosphere.
- Change in the microclimate of the area making it unhealthy living conditions.
- Soil erosion affecting the productivity of soils and production.
- Ozone layer depletion.
- Health problems leading to diseases.
- Indirect effects on agricultural production leading to loss of livelihood.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Forest fire causes depletion of carbon sinks. Forest fire causes loss of valuable timber resources. Forest fire leads to the depletion of ozone layer. Satellite observations of the ozone layer after widespread fires burned across Australia in 2020 revealed that it was being depleted by chemicals released in the smoke. These chemicals sped up the processes that normally regulate ozone in our atmosphere, reducing the UV protection this layer affords.
Notes:Forest Fires:
Forest fires are uncontrolled fires that burn surface vegetation.
Forest fires cause following adverse impacts:
- Loss of valuable timber resources.
- Depletion of carbon sinks.
- Degradation of water catchment areas resulting in loss of water.
- Loss of biodiversity and extinction of plants and animals.
- Loss of wildlife habitat and depletion of wildlife.
- Loss of natural regeneration and reduction in forest cover and production.
- Global warming resulting in rising temperature.
- Loss of carbon sink resource and an increase in the percentage of CO2 in the atmosphere.
- Change in the microclimate of the area making it unhealthy living conditions.
- Soil erosion affecting the productivity of soils and production.
- Ozone layer depletion.
- Health problems leading to diseases.
- Indirect effects on agricultural production leading to loss of livelihood.
-
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Gaucher disease is the result of a build-up of certain fatty substances in certain organs, particularly in the spleen and liver.
- Tyrosinemia type I is an inherited metabolic disorder in which the body lacks an enzyme called fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase (FAH).
- Wilson’s disease is an inherited disorder that is caused by abnormal copper accumulation in your liver, brain, and other vital organs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- Context: The Union Health Ministry has made available generic drugs for rare diseases for the first time. Presently, they are made available for four rare diseases Tyrosinemia-Type 1, Gauchers Disease, Wilson’s Disease, and the Dravet-Lennox Gastaut Syndrome.
- There is no universally accepted definition of rare diseases; However, the World Health Organisation (WHO) defines rare disease as often debilitating lifelong disease or disorder condition with a prevalence of one or less per 1,000 population. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) defines rare disease as a disease with one occurrence in 2,500 people.
- Gaucher disease is the result of a build-up of certain fatty substances in certain organs, particularly in the spleen and liver. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Tyrosinemia type I is an inherited metabolic disorder in which the body lacks an enzyme called fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase (FAH). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- FAH is needed to break down the amino acid tyrosine.
- Wilson’s disease is an inherited disorder that is caused by abnormal copper accumulation in your liver, brain, and other vital organs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Dravet-Lennox gastaut syndrome is a rare drug-resistant epileptic condition, characterised by seizures.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- Context: The Union Health Ministry has made available generic drugs for rare diseases for the first time. Presently, they are made available for four rare diseases Tyrosinemia-Type 1, Gauchers Disease, Wilson’s Disease, and the Dravet-Lennox Gastaut Syndrome.
- There is no universally accepted definition of rare diseases; However, the World Health Organisation (WHO) defines rare disease as often debilitating lifelong disease or disorder condition with a prevalence of one or less per 1,000 population. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) defines rare disease as a disease with one occurrence in 2,500 people.
- Gaucher disease is the result of a build-up of certain fatty substances in certain organs, particularly in the spleen and liver. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Tyrosinemia type I is an inherited metabolic disorder in which the body lacks an enzyme called fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase (FAH). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- FAH is needed to break down the amino acid tyrosine.
- Wilson’s disease is an inherited disorder that is caused by abnormal copper accumulation in your liver, brain, and other vital organs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Dravet-Lennox gastaut syndrome is a rare drug-resistant epileptic condition, characterised by seizures.
-
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Consider the following statements about the Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary:
- It is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve located in Tamil Nadu.
- It has been declared an eco-sensitive zone by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change.
- Its vegetation includes southern mixed deciduous forest and dry deciduous scrub forest.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- The backwaters of the Nugu dam form part of the sanctuary.
- It is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve located in Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is located near Bandipur Tiger Reserve.
- It has been declared an eco-sensitive zone by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Its fauna includes tiger, elephant, leopard, wild dog, striped hyena, sloth bear, gaur, sambhar, chital, and four-horned antelope. In addition, the sanctuary also harbours two important riverine wildlife species, – the smooth-coated otter and the marsh crocodile.
- Its vegetation includes southern mixed deciduous forest and dry deciduous scrub forest. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary receives rainfall both from southwest and northeast monsoons.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- The backwaters of the Nugu dam form part of the sanctuary.
- It is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve located in Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is located near Bandipur Tiger Reserve.
- It has been declared an eco-sensitive zone by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Its fauna includes tiger, elephant, leopard, wild dog, striped hyena, sloth bear, gaur, sambhar, chital, and four-horned antelope. In addition, the sanctuary also harbours two important riverine wildlife species, – the smooth-coated otter and the marsh crocodile.
- Its vegetation includes southern mixed deciduous forest and dry deciduous scrub forest. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary receives rainfall both from southwest and northeast monsoons.
-
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Budapest Convention on Cybercrime is the first international treaty that seeks to address Internet and cybercrime by harmonizing national laws and India is a signatory to this convention.
- The CERT-IN (Computer Emergency Response Team- India) is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents or cyber security threats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- Budapest Convention on Cybercrime is the first international treaty that seeks to address Internet and cybercrime by harmonizing national laws and India is not a signatory to this convention. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- The CERT-IN (Computer Emergency Response Team- India) is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents or cyber security threats. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- CERT-IN was formed in 2004 by the Government of India under Information Technology Act, 2000 Section (70B).
- The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is its nodal ministry. Its vision is a proactive contribution to securing India’s cyberspace.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- Budapest Convention on Cybercrime is the first international treaty that seeks to address Internet and cybercrime by harmonizing national laws and India is not a signatory to this convention. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- The CERT-IN (Computer Emergency Response Team- India) is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents or cyber security threats. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- CERT-IN was formed in 2004 by the Government of India under Information Technology Act, 2000 Section (70B).
- The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) is its nodal ministry. Its vision is a proactive contribution to securing India’s cyberspace.
-
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Under Article 233, high court judges are appointed by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.
- All India Judicial Service (AIJS) is a reform that aims to centralize the recruitment of judges at the level of additional district judges and district judges for all states.
- All India Judicial Service (AIJS) was first proposed by the Law Commission’s 1958 ‘Report on Reforms on Judicial Administration’.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- Under Article 233, district court judges are appointed by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.
- The judges of a high court are appointed by the President. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- All India Judicial Service (AIJS) is a reform that aims to centralize the recruitment of judges at the level of additional district judges and district judges for all states. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The original constitution didn’t provide for the creation of an All India Judicial Service (AIJS).
- All India Judicial Service (AIJS) was first proposed by the Law Commission’s 1958 ‘Report on Reforms on Judicial Administration’. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Article 312 was amended by the 42nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976 to provide for an AIJS by a Parliamentary law. It enables the creation of the AIJS at the District Judge level.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- Under Article 233, district court judges are appointed by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.
- The judges of a high court are appointed by the President. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- All India Judicial Service (AIJS) is a reform that aims to centralize the recruitment of judges at the level of additional district judges and district judges for all states. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The original constitution didn’t provide for the creation of an All India Judicial Service (AIJS).
- All India Judicial Service (AIJS) was first proposed by the Law Commission’s 1958 ‘Report on Reforms on Judicial Administration’. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Article 312 was amended by the 42nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976 to provide for an AIJS by a Parliamentary law. It enables the creation of the AIJS at the District Judge level.
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Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements about the Indian Ocean Tuna Commission:
- It is an intergovernmental organization responsible for the management of tuna and tuna-like species in the Pacific Ocean.
- The decisions taken by the commission are binding on all members and non-contracting parties.
- Its headquarters are located in Victoria, Seychelles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- The Indian Ocean Tuna Commission is an intergovernmental organization responsible for the management of tuna and tuna-like species in the Indian Ocean. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It was established in 1993 and came into force in 1996.
- It seeks to do this by promoting cooperation among its contracting parties (members) and cooperating with non-contracting parties in order to ensure the conservation and appropriate utilisation of fish stocks and encourage the sustainable development of fisheries.
- The decisions taken by the commission are binding on all members and non-contracting parties. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It has 30 contracting parties (India joined as a member in 1995) and Liberia is a cooperating non-contracting party.
- Its headquarters are located in Victoria, Seychelles. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- The Indian Ocean Tuna Commission is an intergovernmental organization responsible for the management of tuna and tuna-like species in the Indian Ocean. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It was established in 1993 and came into force in 1996.
- It seeks to do this by promoting cooperation among its contracting parties (members) and cooperating with non-contracting parties in order to ensure the conservation and appropriate utilisation of fish stocks and encourage the sustainable development of fisheries.
- The decisions taken by the commission are binding on all members and non-contracting parties. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It has 30 contracting parties (India joined as a member in 1995) and Liberia is a cooperating non-contracting party.
- Its headquarters are located in Victoria, Seychelles. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Psyche Spacecraft:
- It is an ISRO space mission to explore the origin of planetary cores by orbiting and studying the asteroid 16 Psyche.
- It is managed by the Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) of NASA.
- It is the first mission to use laser optical communications beyond the Earth-Moon system.
- It is the first interplanetary spacecraft to use solar-powered hall effect thrusters for propulsion and orbital manoeuvring.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (c)
- Psyche Spacecraft is a NASA space mission to explore the origin of planetary cores by orbiting and studying the asteroid 16 Psyche. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Scientists believe this asteroid is the nickel-iron core of an early planet, studying which could provide unique insights into the impenetrable iron core of our own planet.
- It is managed by the Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) of NASA. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The spacecraft will not land on the asteroid but will orbit it from August 2029 through late 2031.
- It is the first mission to use laser optical communications beyond the Earth-Moon system. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The Psyche mission is expected to provide critical insights into the formation and evolution of our solar system.
- It is the first interplanetary spacecraft to use solar-powered hall effect thrusters for propulsion and orbital manoeuvring. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- Psyche Spacecraft is a NASA space mission to explore the origin of planetary cores by orbiting and studying the asteroid 16 Psyche. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Scientists believe this asteroid is the nickel-iron core of an early planet, studying which could provide unique insights into the impenetrable iron core of our own planet.
- It is managed by the Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) of NASA. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The spacecraft will not land on the asteroid but will orbit it from August 2029 through late 2031.
- It is the first mission to use laser optical communications beyond the Earth-Moon system. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The Psyche mission is expected to provide critical insights into the formation and evolution of our solar system.
- It is the first interplanetary spacecraft to use solar-powered hall effect thrusters for propulsion and orbital manoeuvring. Hence statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
The International Labour Organization (ILO) has eight core conventions. India has ratified six conventions out of eight conventions. Which of the following conventions are ratified by India?
- Equal Remuneration Convention
- Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
- Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organised Convention
- Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- The International Labour Organization (ILO) has eight core conventions. India has ratified six conventions out of eight conventions. They are:
- Forced Labour Convention (No. 29)
- Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No.105)
- Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100)
- Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention (No.111)
- Minimum Age Convention (No.138)
- Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182)
- ILO core conventions not ratified by India:
- Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organised Convention (No.87)
- Right to Organize and Collective Bargaining Convention (No.98)
Hence option c is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- The International Labour Organization (ILO) has eight core conventions. India has ratified six conventions out of eight conventions. They are:
- Forced Labour Convention (No. 29)
- Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (No.105)
- Equal Remuneration Convention (No.100)
- Discrimination (Employment Occupation) Convention (No.111)
- Minimum Age Convention (No.138)
- Worst forms of Child Labour Convention (No.182)
- ILO core conventions not ratified by India:
- Freedom of Association and Protection of Right to Organised Convention (No.87)
- Right to Organize and Collective Bargaining Convention (No.98)
Hence option c is correct.
-
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
Consider the following statements about Axolotl:
- They are neotenic species of salamander.
- They are classified as critically endangered in the IUCN List.
- They remain underwater throughout their life.
- They are found in Mexico City’s Lake Xochimilco.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
- The axolotl’s name is derived from the Latin words “atl” (water) and “xolotl” (the Aztec god of fire and lightning, who could take on the form of a salamander).
- Axolotl are neotenic species of salamander. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Salamanders are a group of amphibians.
- They are neotenic which means they keep juvenile characteristics into adulthood. They retain juvenile features such as gills, tails, and a preference for living in water.
- They are classified as critically endangered in the IUCN List. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The population density of Mexican Axolotl has reduced by 99.5% in under two decades.
- They can regenerate lost or damaged limbs, hearts, lungs, and even parts of their brains.
- They remain underwater throughout their life. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Axolotl is a cultural icon in Mexico for their unique slimy appearance and for their ability to regrow limbs.
- They are found in Mexico City’s Lake Xochimilco. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
- The axolotl’s name is derived from the Latin words “atl” (water) and “xolotl” (the Aztec god of fire and lightning, who could take on the form of a salamander).
- Axolotl are neotenic species of salamander. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Salamanders are a group of amphibians.
- They are neotenic which means they keep juvenile characteristics into adulthood. They retain juvenile features such as gills, tails, and a preference for living in water.
- They are classified as critically endangered in the IUCN List. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The population density of Mexican Axolotl has reduced by 99.5% in under two decades.
- They can regenerate lost or damaged limbs, hearts, lungs, and even parts of their brains.
- They remain underwater throughout their life. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- Axolotl is a cultural icon in Mexico for their unique slimy appearance and for their ability to regrow limbs.
- They are found in Mexico City’s Lake Xochimilco. Hence statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the key findings of UNEP’s Emissions Gap Report 2023:
- The world is heading towards a 4°C temperature rise by 2100, compared to pre-industrial levels.
- This is the fourteenth Emissions Gap Report.
- To limit global warming to 2°C, emissions must be cut by 28% by 2030.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
The key findings of UNEP’s Emissions Gap Report 2023:
- The world is heading towards a 3°C temperature rise by 2100, compared to pre-industrial levels. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Global emissions rose by 1.2% in 2022 from 2021, nearly returning to pre-pandemic levels.
- This fourteenth Emissions Gap Report is published ahead of the twenty-eighth session of the Conference of the Parties to the United Nations Framework on Climate Change (COP 28). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The 2016 edition of the report had projected a warming of up to 3.4 degrees Celsius in a business-as-usual scenario. However, according to the Emissions Gap Report 2023, the current projection for the increase in emissions by 2030 is about 3%. Still, this is not enough to meet the 1.5°C target.
- To limit global warming to 2°C, emissions must be cut by 28% by 2030 and by 42% by 2030 for the 1.5°C target. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The key findings of UNEP’s Emissions Gap Report 2023:
- The world is heading towards a 3°C temperature rise by 2100, compared to pre-industrial levels. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Global emissions rose by 1.2% in 2022 from 2021, nearly returning to pre-pandemic levels.
- This fourteenth Emissions Gap Report is published ahead of the twenty-eighth session of the Conference of the Parties to the United Nations Framework on Climate Change (COP 28). Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The 2016 edition of the report had projected a warming of up to 3.4 degrees Celsius in a business-as-usual scenario. However, according to the Emissions Gap Report 2023, the current projection for the increase in emissions by 2030 is about 3%. Still, this is not enough to meet the 1.5°C target.
- To limit global warming to 2°C, emissions must be cut by 28% by 2030 and by 42% by 2030 for the 1.5°C target. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
Consider the following statements about the Amplifi 2.0 Portal:
- It was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.
- It aims to make raw data from Indian cities available on a single platform for academics, researchers, and stakeholders to help data-driven policymaking.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (c)
- The Amplifi 2.0 Portal was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Amplifi – Assessment and Monitoring Platform for Liveable, Inclusive, and Future-Ready Urban India portal.
- The portal provides data on various services for several cities such as:
- Total diesel consumption
- Number of water quality samples tested
- Average annual healthcare expenditure
- Total population residing in slums
- Recorded fatalities from road accidents
- It aims to make raw data from Indian cities available on a single platform for academics, researchers, and stakeholders to help data-driven policymaking. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Currently, 258 urban local bodies have been onboarded and data for 150 cities is accessible on the platform.
- Eventually, data from the more than 4,000 Urban Local Bodies will be made available on the portal.
Note:
- According to the 2011 Census, 37.7 crore people (31% of the population) lived in urban areas. By 2030, this is projected to increase by 60 crores or 40%.
- In 2011, urban areas contributed 63% to the country’s GDP and this is projected to increase to 75% by 2030.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- The Amplifi 2.0 Portal was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Amplifi – Assessment and Monitoring Platform for Liveable, Inclusive, and Future-Ready Urban India portal.
- The portal provides data on various services for several cities such as:
- Total diesel consumption
- Number of water quality samples tested
- Average annual healthcare expenditure
- Total population residing in slums
- Recorded fatalities from road accidents
- It aims to make raw data from Indian cities available on a single platform for academics, researchers, and stakeholders to help data-driven policymaking. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Currently, 258 urban local bodies have been onboarded and data for 150 cities is accessible on the platform.
- Eventually, data from the more than 4,000 Urban Local Bodies will be made available on the portal.
Note:
- According to the 2011 Census, 37.7 crore people (31% of the population) lived in urban areas. By 2030, this is projected to increase by 60 crores or 40%.
- In 2011, urban areas contributed 63% to the country’s GDP and this is projected to increase to 75% by 2030.
-
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
Two joggers left Delhi for Noida simultaneously. The first jogger stopped 42min later when he was 1 km short of Noida and the other one stopped 52 min later when he was 2 km short of Noida. If the first jogger jogged as many kilometres as the second, and the second as kilometres as first, the first one would need 17min less than the second. Find the distance between Delhi and Noida?
Correct
Solution (b)
Let x and y be speeds of two joggers (km/min) and d be the distance.
According to given data,
42x + 1 = d …(1)
52y + 2 = d …(2)
d/y – d/x = 17 …(3)
Solving (1), (2) & (3),
x = 1/3 km/min
y = 1/4 km/min
d = 15 km
Distance between Delhi and Noida is 15 km.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Let x and y be speeds of two joggers (km/min) and d be the distance.
According to given data,
42x + 1 = d …(1)
52y + 2 = d …(2)
d/y – d/x = 17 …(3)
Solving (1), (2) & (3),
x = 1/3 km/min
y = 1/4 km/min
d = 15 km
Distance between Delhi and Noida is 15 km.
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Question 32 of 35
32. Question
Distance between A and B is 72 km. Two men started walking from A and B at the same time towards each other. The person who started from A travelled uniformly with average speed of 4 km/hr. The other man travelled with varying speed as follows: In the first hour his speed 2 km/hr, in the second hour it was 2.5 km/hr, in the third hour it was 3 km/hr, and so on. When/ Where will they meet each other?
Correct
Solution (c)
In the first hour, they cover 6km.
In the second hour they cover 6.5km.
In the third hour, they cover 7km and so on. Finally, they cover 72km in 9 hours.
Distance covered by A in 9 hours = 4*9 = 36kms
They meet mid-way between A and B.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
In the first hour, they cover 6km.
In the second hour they cover 6.5km.
In the third hour, they cover 7km and so on. Finally, they cover 72km in 9 hours.
Distance covered by A in 9 hours = 4*9 = 36kms
They meet mid-way between A and B.
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Question 33 of 35
33. Question
Of the 1300 candidates, who were interviewed for a position at a Bank, 900 had a Car, 630 had a motorcycle and 690 had a mobile phone. 300 of them had both, a Car and a motorcycle, 230 had both, a motorcycle and a mobile phone and 360 had both, a Car and mobile phone and 100 had all three. How many candidates had none of the three?
Correct
Solution (b)
Number of candidates who had none of the three = Total number of candidates – the number of candidates who had at least one of three devices.
The total number of candidates = 1300.
We know that, Total= A + B + C – {A ∩ B + B ∩ C + C ∩ A + 2(A ∩ B ∩ C)} + neither
Therefore, 1300 = 900 + 630 + 690 – {300 + 360 + 230 +200} + neither
=> Neither = [1300 −(900 + 630 +690) + (300 + 360 + 230 +200)]
The number of candidates having neither = 170
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Number of candidates who had none of the three = Total number of candidates – the number of candidates who had at least one of three devices.
The total number of candidates = 1300.
We know that, Total= A + B + C – {A ∩ B + B ∩ C + C ∩ A + 2(A ∩ B ∩ C)} + neither
Therefore, 1300 = 900 + 630 + 690 – {300 + 360 + 230 +200} + neither
=> Neither = [1300 −(900 + 630 +690) + (300 + 360 + 230 +200)]
The number of candidates having neither = 170
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Question 34 of 35
34. Question
A certain number when divided by 247 leaves a remainder 17, another number when divided by 361 leaves a remainder 52. What is the remainder when the sum of these two numbers is divided by 19?
Correct
Solution (c)
N1 = 247x + 17 and N2 = 361y + 52
N1 + N2 = (19 × 13 × x + 17) + (19 ×19 × y + 52)
Remainder when N1 + N2 is divided by 19, = (17+52)/19 = 12
Incorrect
Solution (c)
N1 = 247x + 17 and N2 = 361y + 52
N1 + N2 = (19 × 13 × x + 17) + (19 ×19 × y + 52)
Remainder when N1 + N2 is divided by 19, = (17+52)/19 = 12
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Question 35 of 35
35. Question
The average age of a family of 6 members is 20 years. If the age of the youngest member be 5 years, the average age of the family at the birth of the youngest member was?
Correct
Solution (c)
Total present age of the family (6*20) = 120 years
Total age of the family 5 years ago = (120 – 6*5) = 90 years
At that time, Total members in the family = 5
Therefore Average age at that time = 90/5 = 18 years
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Total present age of the family (6*20) = 120 years
Total age of the family 5 years ago = (120 – 6*5) = 90 years
At that time, Total members in the family = 5
Therefore Average age at that time = 90/5 = 18 years
All the Best
IASbaba