IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
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Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Treasury Bills (T-Bills):
- They provide long-term capital to the government.
- They satisfy the CRR and SLR requirements of the banking institutions that invest in them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
Started in 1986, they are instruments of money market used by the Central Government to fulfil its short- term liquidity requirement unto the period of 364 days. The TBS other than providing short-term cushion to the government, it also functions as short-term investment avenues for the banks and financial institutions, besides functioning as requirements of the CRR and SLR of the banking institutions. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
Started in 1986, they are instruments of money market used by the Central Government to fulfil its short- term liquidity requirement unto the period of 364 days. The TBS other than providing short-term cushion to the government, it also functions as short-term investment avenues for the banks and financial institutions, besides functioning as requirements of the CRR and SLR of the banking institutions. -
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
With reference to ‘Chit Funds’, consider the following statements:
- Registration and regulation of Chit funds are carried out by State Governments.
- Chit funds are included in the definition of Non- Banking Financial Companies by RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Central Government has not framed any Rules of operation for them. Thus, Registration and Regulation of Chit funds are carried out by State Governments under the Rules framed by them. Functionally, Chit funds are included in the definition of Non- Banking Financial Companies by RBI under the sub-head miscellaneous non-banking company (MNBC). But RBI has not laid out any separate regulatory framework for them. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Correct
Central Government has not framed any Rules of operation for them. Thus, Registration and Regulation of Chit funds are carried out by State Governments under the Rules framed by them. Functionally, Chit funds are included in the definition of Non- Banking Financial Companies by RBI under the sub-head miscellaneous non-banking company (MNBC). But RBI has not laid out any separate regulatory framework for them. -
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
With reference to Venture Capital Fund (VCF), consider the following statements:
- Venture Capital Funds ensure that the money of the investors is used to fund projects which have a potential to grow.
- They are regulated by the guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
Venture Capital Funds ensure that the money of the investors is used to fund projects which have a potential to grow and the money provided in the process is known as Venture Capital. They are institutions that are dedicated to funding new ventures and are regulated by the guidelines issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
Venture Capital Funds ensure that the money of the investors is used to fund projects which have a potential to grow and the money provided in the process is known as Venture Capital. They are institutions that are dedicated to funding new ventures and are regulated by the guidelines issued by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). -
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
With reference to Alternative Investment Funds, consider the following statements:
- It refers to any privately pooled investment fund from domestic sources only.
- Currently they do not come under the jurisdiction of any regulatory agency in India.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
It refers to any privately pooled investment fund, (whether from Indian or foreign sources), in the form of a trust or a company or a body corporate or a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) which are not presently covered by any Regulation of SEBI governing fund management (like, Regulations governing Mutual Fund or Collective Investment Scheme) nor coming under the direct regulation of any other sectoral regulators in India-IRDA, PFRDA, RBI. In India, Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are defined in Regulation 2(1)(b) of Securities and Exchange Board of India (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
It refers to any privately pooled investment fund, (whether from Indian or foreign sources), in the form of a trust or a company or a body corporate or a Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) which are not presently covered by any Regulation of SEBI governing fund management (like, Regulations governing Mutual Fund or Collective Investment Scheme) nor coming under the direct regulation of any other sectoral regulators in India-IRDA, PFRDA, RBI. In India, Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are defined in Regulation 2(1)(b) of Securities and Exchange Board of India (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012. -
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
Which of the following financial instruments can be classified as securities?
- Bonds
- Shares
- Fixed Deposits
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Financial instruments which are tradable or that can be bought and sold are generally referred to as securities. For e.g., shares, bonds etc. A government bond is a debt instrument issued by the Central and State Governments of India. Issuance of such bonds occur when the issuing body (Central or State governments) faces a liquidity crisis and requires funds for the purpose of infrastructure development.
The key aspect is that it should be transferable. For instance, In India, the word “securities” is defined in clause (h) of section 2 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (SCRA). The term securities include the following in India: shares, scrips, stocks, bonds, debentures, debenture stock or other marketable securities of a like nature in or of any incorporated company or other body corporates derivatives
Fixed deposits are low-risk investments as they aren’t dependent on market fluctuations. Therefore, these are not included in securities. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Incorrect
Financial instruments which are tradable or that can be bought and sold are generally referred to as securities. For e.g., shares, bonds etc. A government bond is a debt instrument issued by the Central and State Governments of India. Issuance of such bonds occur when the issuing body (Central or State governments) faces a liquidity crisis and requires funds for the purpose of infrastructure development.
The key aspect is that it should be transferable. For instance, In India, the word “securities” is defined in clause (h) of section 2 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956 (SCRA). The term securities include the following in India: shares, scrips, stocks, bonds, debentures, debenture stock or other marketable securities of a like nature in or of any incorporated company or other body corporates derivatives
Fixed deposits are low-risk investments as they aren’t dependent on market fluctuations. Therefore, these are not included in securities. -
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
With reference to ‘Capital Gains Tax’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is levied on long term gains only.
- Capital gains tax in India need not be paid in case the individual inherits the property and there is no sale.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
Capital gain can be defined as any profit that is received through the sale of a capital asset. The profit that is received falls under the income category. Therefore, a tax needs to be paid on the income that is received. The tax that is paid is called capital gains tax and it can either be long term or short term. Under the Income Tax Act, capital gains tax in India need not be paid in case the individual inherits the property and there is no sale. However, if the person who has inherited the property decides to sell it, tax will have to be paid on the income that has been generated from the sale.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Correct
Capital gain can be defined as any profit that is received through the sale of a capital asset. The profit that is received falls under the income category. Therefore, a tax needs to be paid on the income that is received. The tax that is paid is called capital gains tax and it can either be long term or short term. Under the Income Tax Act, capital gains tax in India need not be paid in case the individual inherits the property and there is no sale. However, if the person who has inherited the property decides to sell it, tax will have to be paid on the income that has been generated from the sale.
-
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
With reference to debentures, consider the following statements:
- Debenture is a movable property.
- The debenture holders have the right to vote in meetings of the company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
Denture is a movable property. It is in the form of a certificate of indebtedness of the company and issued by the company itself. It generally creates a charge on the undertaking or undertakings of the company. As the debenture holders are not the owner of the company so they are not entitled with the administration and management of the company. The debenture holders cannot claim the privilege to vote in any meeting of the company. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
Denture is a movable property. It is in the form of a certificate of indebtedness of the company and issued by the company itself. It generally creates a charge on the undertaking or undertakings of the company. As the debenture holders are not the owner of the company so they are not entitled with the administration and management of the company. The debenture holders cannot claim the privilege to vote in any meeting of the company. -
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
With reference to capital markets, consider the following statements:
- Capital market deals in financial instruments and commodities that are long-term securities.
- Secondary Market exclusively deals with the issue of new securities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
Capital market deals in financial instruments and commodities that are long-term securities. They have a maturity of at least more than one year. The most important type of capital market is the primary market. It is what we call the new issue market. It exclusively deals with the issue of new securities, i.e., securities that are issued to investors for the very first time. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Correct
Incorrect
Capital market deals in financial instruments and commodities that are long-term securities. They have a maturity of at least more than one year. The most important type of capital market is the primary market. It is what we call the new issue market. It exclusively deals with the issue of new securities, i.e., securities that are issued to investors for the very first time. -
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
Qualified Foreign Investors (QFIs) are allowed to invest in which of the following segments of the capital market?
- Corporate bonds
- Commercial Papers
- Mutual funds
Select the correct answer using the code given below
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Correct
The Qualified Foreign Investor (QFI) is sub-category of Foreign Portfolio Investor and refers to any foreign individuals, groups or associations, or resident, however, restricted to those from a country that is a member of Financial Action Task Force (FATF). QFIs are allowed to make investments in the Corporate bonds listed/to be listed on recognized stock exchanges G-Securities, T-Bills and Commercial Papers by opening a demat account in of the SEBI approved Qualified Depository Participant (QDP). QFIs are allowed to make investments in the Equity and Debt schemes of Indian mutual funds. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Correct
Correct
Correct
The Qualified Foreign Investor (QFI) is sub-category of Foreign Portfolio Investor and refers to any foreign individuals, groups or associations, or resident, however, restricted to those from a country that is a member of Financial Action Task Force (FATF). QFIs are allowed to make investments in the Corporate bonds listed/to be listed on recognized stock exchanges G-Securities, T-Bills and Commercial Papers by opening a demat account in of the SEBI approved Qualified Depository Participant (QDP). QFIs are allowed to make investments in the Equity and Debt schemes of Indian mutual funds. -
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Which of the followings entities is/are allowed to participate in “Call Money Market”?
- Land Development Banks
- Regional Rural Banks
- Payment Banks
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
Participants in the call money market are banks and related entities specified by the RBI. Scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs), co-operative banks (other than Land Development Banks) and Primary Dealers (PDs), are permitted to participate in call/notice money market both as borrowers and lenders.
Financial markets broad basing is at the centre stage for the Reserve Bank of India with the inclusion of Regional Rural Banks into the money market. As per the new regulations, Payment Banks are also allowed to participate in CMM as both lenders and borrowers. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Statement 3
Incorrect
Incorrect
Correct
Participants in the call money market are banks and related entities specified by the RBI. Scheduled commercial banks (excluding RRBs), co-operative banks (other than Land Development Banks) and Primary Dealers (PDs), are permitted to participate in call/notice money market both as borrowers and lenders.
Financial markets broad basing is at the centre stage for the Reserve Bank of India with the inclusion of Regional Rural Banks into the money market. As per the new regulations, Payment Banks are also allowed to participate in CMM as both lenders and borrowers. -
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Consider the following statements about the Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI):
- It consists of securities and other financial assets held by the investors in another country.
- It provides the investor with direct ownership of a company’s assets.
- The American Depositary Receipt’s and the Global Depository Receipts form part of Foreign Portfolio Investment .
- It is a part of a country’s Capital Account.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct The Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) consists of securities and other financial assets held by the investors in another country. It does not provide the investor with direct ownership of a company’s assets and is relatively liquid, depending on the volatility of the market. The FPI holdings can include stocks, ADRs (the American Depositary Receipts), GDRs (the Global Depositary Receipts), bonds, mutual funds and exchange traded funds. On a macro-level, the FPI is a part of a country’s Capital Account and is shown on its Balance of Payments (BOP). The BOP calculates the amount of money flowing from one country to other countries over a financial year.
Note:
Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI):
- The Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) consists of securities and other financial assets held by the investors in another country.
- It does not provide the investor with direct ownership of a company’s assets and is relatively liquid, depending on the volatility of the market.
- Along with the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), the FPI is one of the common ways to invest in an overseas economy. The FDI and the FPI are both important sources of funding for most economies.
- On a macro-level, the FPI is a part of a country’s Capital Account and is shown on its Balance of Payments (BOP). The BOP calculates the amount of money flowing from one country to other countries over a financial year.
- The FPI holdings can include stocks, ADRs (the American Depositary Receipts), GDRs (the Global Depositary Receipts), bonds, mutual funds and exchange traded funds.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct The Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) consists of securities and other financial assets held by the investors in another country. It does not provide the investor with direct ownership of a company’s assets and is relatively liquid, depending on the volatility of the market. The FPI holdings can include stocks, ADRs (the American Depositary Receipts), GDRs (the Global Depositary Receipts), bonds, mutual funds and exchange traded funds. On a macro-level, the FPI is a part of a country’s Capital Account and is shown on its Balance of Payments (BOP). The BOP calculates the amount of money flowing from one country to other countries over a financial year.
Note:
Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI):
- The Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) consists of securities and other financial assets held by the investors in another country.
- It does not provide the investor with direct ownership of a company’s assets and is relatively liquid, depending on the volatility of the market.
- Along with the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), the FPI is one of the common ways to invest in an overseas economy. The FDI and the FPI are both important sources of funding for most economies.
- On a macro-level, the FPI is a part of a country’s Capital Account and is shown on its Balance of Payments (BOP). The BOP calculates the amount of money flowing from one country to other countries over a financial year.
- The FPI holdings can include stocks, ADRs (the American Depositary Receipts), GDRs (the Global Depositary Receipts), bonds, mutual funds and exchange traded funds.
-
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
Foreign exchange reserves are important for the Economies around the world for which of the following reasons?
- To keep the value of their currencies at a fixed rate.
- To maintain liquidity in case of an economic crisis.
- To provide confidence to the investors.
- To fund sectors like infrastructure.
- To meet external obligations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
There are seven ways the central banks use the foreign exchange reserves.
- First, the countries use their foreign exchange reserves to keep the value of their currencies at a fixed rate.
- A good example is China, which pegs the value of its currency, the yuan, to the dollar.
- When China stockpiles dollars, it raises the dollar value compared to that of the yuan.
- That makes Chinese exports cheaper than the American-made goods, increasing the sales.
- Second, those with a floating exchange rate system use reserves to keep the value of their currency lower than the dollar.
- They do this for the same reasons as those with fixed-rate systems.
- Even though Japan’s currency, the yen, is a floating system, the Central Bank of Japan buys U.S. Treasurys to keep its value lower than the dollar.
- Like China, this keeps Japan’s exports relatively cheaper, boosting trade and economic growth.
- Such currency trading takes place in the foreign exchange market.
- A third and critical function is to maintain liquidity in case of an economic crisis.
- For example, a flood or volcano might temporarily suspend the local exporters’ ability to produce goods.
- That cuts off their supply of foreign currency to pay for imports.
- In that case, the central bank can exchange its foreign currency for their local currency, allowing them to pay for and receive the imports.
- Similarly, the foreign investors will get spooked if a country has a war, military coup, or other blow to confidence.
- They withdraw their deposits from the country’s banks, creating a severe shortage in foreign currency.
- This pushes down the value of the local currency, since fewer people want it.
- That makes imports more expensive, creating inflation.
- The central bank supplies foreign currency to keep the markets steady.
- It also buys the local currency to support its value and prevent inflation.
- This reassures the foreign investors, who return to the economy.
- A fourth reason is to provide confidence.
- The central bank assures the foreign investors that it is ready to take action to protect their investments.
- It will also prevent a sudden flight to safety and loss of capital for the country.
- In that way, a strong position in the foreign currency reserves can prevent economic crises caused when an event triggers a flight to safety.
- Fifth, reserves are always needed to make sure a country will meet its external obligations.
- These include international payment obligations, including sovereign and commercial debts.
- They also include the financing of imports and the ability to absorb any unexpected capital movements.
- Sixth, some countries use their reserves to fund sectors, such as infrastructure.
- China, for instance, has used part of its forex reserves for recapitalizing some of its state-owned banks.
- Seventh, most central banks want to boost returns without compromising safety.
- They know the best way to do that is to diversify their portfolios.
- They will often hold gold and other safe, interest-bearing investments.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
There are seven ways the central banks use the foreign exchange reserves.
- First, the countries use their foreign exchange reserves to keep the value of their currencies at a fixed rate.
- A good example is China, which pegs the value of its currency, the yuan, to the dollar.
- When China stockpiles dollars, it raises the dollar value compared to that of the yuan.
- That makes Chinese exports cheaper than the American-made goods, increasing the sales.
- Second, those with a floating exchange rate system use reserves to keep the value of their currency lower than the dollar.
- They do this for the same reasons as those with fixed-rate systems.
- Even though Japan’s currency, the yen, is a floating system, the Central Bank of Japan buys U.S. Treasurys to keep its value lower than the dollar.
- Like China, this keeps Japan’s exports relatively cheaper, boosting trade and economic growth.
- Such currency trading takes place in the foreign exchange market.
- A third and critical function is to maintain liquidity in case of an economic crisis.
- For example, a flood or volcano might temporarily suspend the local exporters’ ability to produce goods.
- That cuts off their supply of foreign currency to pay for imports.
- In that case, the central bank can exchange its foreign currency for their local currency, allowing them to pay for and receive the imports.
- Similarly, the foreign investors will get spooked if a country has a war, military coup, or other blow to confidence.
- They withdraw their deposits from the country’s banks, creating a severe shortage in foreign currency.
- This pushes down the value of the local currency, since fewer people want it.
- That makes imports more expensive, creating inflation.
- The central bank supplies foreign currency to keep the markets steady.
- It also buys the local currency to support its value and prevent inflation.
- This reassures the foreign investors, who return to the economy.
- A fourth reason is to provide confidence.
- The central bank assures the foreign investors that it is ready to take action to protect their investments.
- It will also prevent a sudden flight to safety and loss of capital for the country.
- In that way, a strong position in the foreign currency reserves can prevent economic crises caused when an event triggers a flight to safety.
- Fifth, reserves are always needed to make sure a country will meet its external obligations.
- These include international payment obligations, including sovereign and commercial debts.
- They also include the financing of imports and the ability to absorb any unexpected capital movements.
- Sixth, some countries use their reserves to fund sectors, such as infrastructure.
- China, for instance, has used part of its forex reserves for recapitalizing some of its state-owned banks.
- Seventh, most central banks want to boost returns without compromising safety.
- They know the best way to do that is to diversify their portfolios.
- They will often hold gold and other safe, interest-bearing investments.
-
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
Which of the following correctly describes an Escrow Account?
Correct
Solution (c)
- An escrow account in simple terms is a third-party account.
- It is a separate bank account to hold money which belongs to others and where the money parked will be released only under the fulfilment of certain conditions of a contract.
- An escrow account is an arrangement for safeguarding the seller against its buyer from the payment risk for the goods or services sold by the former to the latter. This is done by removing the control over cash flows from the hands of the buyer to an independent agent.
- The independent agent, i.e, the holder of the escrow account would ensure that the appropriation of cash flows is as per the agreed terms and conditions between the transacting parties.
- Escrow account has become the standard in various transactions and business deals. In India escrow account is widely used in public private partnership projects in infrastructure.
- RBI has also permitted Banks (Authorized Dealer Category I) to open escrow accounts on behalf of Non-Resident corporates for acquisition / transfer of shares / convertible shares of an Indian company.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- An escrow account in simple terms is a third-party account.
- It is a separate bank account to hold money which belongs to others and where the money parked will be released only under the fulfilment of certain conditions of a contract.
- An escrow account is an arrangement for safeguarding the seller against its buyer from the payment risk for the goods or services sold by the former to the latter. This is done by removing the control over cash flows from the hands of the buyer to an independent agent.
- The independent agent, i.e, the holder of the escrow account would ensure that the appropriation of cash flows is as per the agreed terms and conditions between the transacting parties.
- Escrow account has become the standard in various transactions and business deals. In India escrow account is widely used in public private partnership projects in infrastructure.
- RBI has also permitted Banks (Authorized Dealer Category I) to open escrow accounts on behalf of Non-Resident corporates for acquisition / transfer of shares / convertible shares of an Indian company.
-
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
With reference to Primary Deficit, consider the following statements:
- The primary deficit is the sum of Fiscal deficit and interest payments.
- It includes the burden of the past debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Gross Primary deficit is defined as gross fiscal deficit minus net interest payments. Net primary deficit, is gross primary deficit minus net domestic lending.
It excludes the burden of the past debt and shows the net increase in the government’s indebtedness due to the current year’s fiscal operations. A reduction in primary deficit is reflective of government’s efforts at bridging the fiscal gap during a financial year.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement 1
Statement 2
Incorrect
Incorrect
Gross Primary deficit is defined as gross fiscal deficit minus net interest payments. Net primary deficit, is gross primary deficit minus net domestic lending.
It excludes the burden of the past debt and shows the net increase in the government’s indebtedness due to the current year’s fiscal operations. A reduction in primary deficit is reflective of government’s efforts at bridging the fiscal gap during a financial year.
-
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
Which of the following is/are the factors determining the exchange rate of a country?
- Interest rates
- Money supply
- Financial stability
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (c)
Three Factors Affecting the Exchange Rates-
- Interest rates:
- The interest rate paid by a country’s central bank is a big factor.
- The higher interest rate makes that currency more valuable.
- The investors will exchange their currency for the higher-paying one.
- They then save it in that country’s bank to receive the higher interest rate.
- Money supply:
- The money supply that is created by the country’s central bank.
- If the government prints too much currency, then there is too much of it chasing too few goods.
- The currency holders will bid up the prices of goods and services.
- That creates inflation.
- If way too much money is printed, it causes hyperinflation.
- Some cash holders will invest overseas where there is no inflation, but they will find that there is not as much demand for their currency, since there is so much of it.
- That is why inflation can push the value of a currency down.
- Financial stability:
- Country’s economic growth and financial stability impact its currency exchange rates.
- If the country has a strong, growing economy, then the investors will buy its goods and services.
- They will need more of its currency to do so. If the financial stability looks bad, they will be less willing to invest in that country.
- They want to be sure they will get paid back if they hold the government bonds in that currency.
- Because of these factors, the demand for a country’s currency depends on what is happening in that country.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Three Factors Affecting the Exchange Rates-
- Interest rates:
- The interest rate paid by a country’s central bank is a big factor.
- The higher interest rate makes that currency more valuable.
- The investors will exchange their currency for the higher-paying one.
- They then save it in that country’s bank to receive the higher interest rate.
- Money supply:
- The money supply that is created by the country’s central bank.
- If the government prints too much currency, then there is too much of it chasing too few goods.
- The currency holders will bid up the prices of goods and services.
- That creates inflation.
- If way too much money is printed, it causes hyperinflation.
- Some cash holders will invest overseas where there is no inflation, but they will find that there is not as much demand for their currency, since there is so much of it.
- That is why inflation can push the value of a currency down.
- Financial stability:
- Country’s economic growth and financial stability impact its currency exchange rates.
- If the country has a strong, growing economy, then the investors will buy its goods and services.
- They will need more of its currency to do so. If the financial stability looks bad, they will be less willing to invest in that country.
- They want to be sure they will get paid back if they hold the government bonds in that currency.
- Because of these factors, the demand for a country’s currency depends on what is happening in that country.
-
Question 16 of 35
16. Question
Which of the following are the features of a Contestable Market?
- There are no barriers to entry or exit barriers.
- There are sunk costs involved in such markets.
- Both the incumbent firms and new entrants have access to the same level of technology.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct There are no barriers to entry or exit barriers is one of the features of a Contestable Market. There are no sunk costs is one of the features of a Contestable Market. Both the incumbent firms and new entrants have access to the same level of technology is one of the features of a Contestable Market. Note:
Contestable Market Theory:
- ‘The Contestable Market Theory‘ is an economic concept stating that the companies with a few rivals behave in a competitive manner, when the market they operate in has weak barriers to entry.
- ‘Contestable‘ in economics means that a company can be challenged or contested by the rival companies looking to enter the industry or the market.
- In other words, a Contestable Market is a market whereby the companies can enter and leave freely with low sunk costs.
- Sunk costs are major irrecoverable costs to enter an industry, such as the purchase of a manufacturing plant or equipment.
- The Contestable Market Theory assumes that even in a monopoly or oligopoly (It is a market form wherein a market or an industry is dominated by a small group of large sellers), the dominant companies will act competitively when there is a lack of barriers for the competitors.
- Dominant players in an industry will do everything to reduce the contestability of their industry by preventing new entrants from driving them out of business.
- The features of a Contestable Market include:
- There are no barriers to entry or exit barriers.
- There are no sunk costs, i.e.; the costs that have already been incurred and cannot be recovered.
- Both the incumbent firms and new entrants have access to the same level of technology.
- The continuous risk of new entrants emerging and stealing market share leads the incumbents to focus more on maximizing sales rather than profits.
- They realize that if they are too profitable, an entrant could easily come and undercut their business.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct There are no barriers to entry or exit barriers is one of the features of a Contestable Market. There are no sunk costs is one of the features of a Contestable Market. Both the incumbent firms and new entrants have access to the same level of technology is one of the features of a Contestable Market. Note:
Contestable Market Theory:
- ‘The Contestable Market Theory‘ is an economic concept stating that the companies with a few rivals behave in a competitive manner, when the market they operate in has weak barriers to entry.
- ‘Contestable‘ in economics means that a company can be challenged or contested by the rival companies looking to enter the industry or the market.
- In other words, a Contestable Market is a market whereby the companies can enter and leave freely with low sunk costs.
- Sunk costs are major irrecoverable costs to enter an industry, such as the purchase of a manufacturing plant or equipment.
- The Contestable Market Theory assumes that even in a monopoly or oligopoly (It is a market form wherein a market or an industry is dominated by a small group of large sellers), the dominant companies will act competitively when there is a lack of barriers for the competitors.
- Dominant players in an industry will do everything to reduce the contestability of their industry by preventing new entrants from driving them out of business.
- The features of a Contestable Market include:
- There are no barriers to entry or exit barriers.
- There are no sunk costs, i.e.; the costs that have already been incurred and cannot be recovered.
- Both the incumbent firms and new entrants have access to the same level of technology.
- The continuous risk of new entrants emerging and stealing market share leads the incumbents to focus more on maximizing sales rather than profits.
- They realize that if they are too profitable, an entrant could easily come and undercut their business.
-
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was set up in 1988 and was given statutory recognition in 1992.
- Capital market refers to the market for short to medium-term funds for investment purposes.
- Bombay Stock Exchange is the largest stock market in the country.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was set up in 1988 and was given statutory recognition in 1992. Capital market refers to the market for long-term funds for investment purposes. The capital market is the source of funds for the corporates and the governments, and provides opportunities to the savers to park their long-term savings.
The capital market comprises two segments: the primary and the secondary markets.
The setting up to the NSE (The National Stock Exchange of India Ltd) is a landmark in the Indian capital markets. At present, the NSE is the largest stock market in the country.
Trading on the NSE can be done throughout the country through the network of satellite terminals.
The NSE has introduced inter-regional clearing facilities.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was set up in 1988 and was given statutory recognition in 1992. Capital market refers to the market for long-term funds for investment purposes. The capital market is the source of funds for the corporates and the governments, and provides opportunities to the savers to park their long-term savings.
The capital market comprises two segments: the primary and the secondary markets.
The setting up to the NSE (The National Stock Exchange of India Ltd) is a landmark in the Indian capital markets. At present, the NSE is the largest stock market in the country.
Trading on the NSE can be done throughout the country through the network of satellite terminals.
The NSE has introduced inter-regional clearing facilities.
-
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
With reference to the Interim Budget, consider the following statements:
- The Interim Budget is a budget which is presented in an election year and is applicable for the entire financial year.
- Usually, the Interim Budget does not contain the Finance Bill, but includes the Vote-on-Account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Interim Budget is essentially a budget which is announced in an election year by the incumbent government. The Interim Budget would be applicable until the new government takes over after the General Elections. Hence, unlike the Union Budget, the Interim Budget would be applicable for a part of the financial year. The Interim Budget does not contain the Finance Bill, but includes the Vote-on-Account. The government needs approval from the Parliament to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India to meet its day-to-day expenses. Hence, the incumbent government presents the Vote-on-Account in order to seek approval from the Parliament for withdrawing money to meet its expenditure needs until the new government takes over.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The Interim Budget is essentially a budget which is announced in an election year by the incumbent government. The Interim Budget would be applicable until the new government takes over after the General Elections. Hence, unlike the Union Budget, the Interim Budget would be applicable for a part of the financial year. The Interim Budget does not contain the Finance Bill, but includes the Vote-on-Account. The government needs approval from the Parliament to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India to meet its day-to-day expenses. Hence, the incumbent government presents the Vote-on-Account in order to seek approval from the Parliament for withdrawing money to meet its expenditure needs until the new government takes over.
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Question 19 of 35
19. Question
Which among the following is the most important reason(s) for the government to prefer the Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) route for undertaking disinvestment in the PSUs?
- Ability to undertake disinvestment in multiple PSUs at a single time.
- Enables the government to reduce its ownership in the PSUs to below 51% and yet retain management control.
- Enables the government to sell its entire stake to a single private sector entity.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Exchange Traded Fund (ETF):
- The Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) is a fund that is created by pooling together the assets and then dividing this cumulated asset into individual units that are traded on the stock exchange.
- The value of the ETF comes from the value of the underlying assets (shares of stock, bonds, foreign currency, etc.).
- These ETFs, listed in the stock exchanges, are similar to shares and can be traded like ordinary shares.
- In nature, the ETFs are Index Funds, because they comprise shares of different companies.
- The share-based ETFs, issued by the government, include CPSE ETF and Bharat-22 ETF.
- These share-based ETFs enable the government to undertake the disinvestment in multiple PSUs at a single time and hence, reduces the time for undertaking disinvestment.
- This is the main reason for the higher preference of the government towards the ETF route for undertaking disinvestment.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Exchange Traded Fund (ETF):
- The Exchange Traded Fund (ETF) is a fund that is created by pooling together the assets and then dividing this cumulated asset into individual units that are traded on the stock exchange.
- The value of the ETF comes from the value of the underlying assets (shares of stock, bonds, foreign currency, etc.).
- These ETFs, listed in the stock exchanges, are similar to shares and can be traded like ordinary shares.
- In nature, the ETFs are Index Funds, because they comprise shares of different companies.
- The share-based ETFs, issued by the government, include CPSE ETF and Bharat-22 ETF.
- These share-based ETFs enable the government to undertake the disinvestment in multiple PSUs at a single time and hence, reduces the time for undertaking disinvestment.
- This is the main reason for the higher preference of the government towards the ETF route for undertaking disinvestment.
-
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
The Panda Bonds, sometimes seen in the news, refer to which of the following?
Correct
Solution (a)
Panda Bonds:
- The Panda Bonds are the Yuan-denominated bonds issued in the Chinese mainland market by an overseas entity.
- They are usually issued by the foreign companies and the Chinese companies operating overseas to raise capital.
- The International Finance Corporation and the Asian Development Bank have issued the Panda Bonds in 2005.
- Besides, countries like the Philippines and most recently, Pakistan have issued the Panda Bonds.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Panda Bonds:
- The Panda Bonds are the Yuan-denominated bonds issued in the Chinese mainland market by an overseas entity.
- They are usually issued by the foreign companies and the Chinese companies operating overseas to raise capital.
- The International Finance Corporation and the Asian Development Bank have issued the Panda Bonds in 2005.
- Besides, countries like the Philippines and most recently, Pakistan have issued the Panda Bonds.
-
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Iyothee Thass Pandithar’:
- He was a prominent anti-caste activist and a practitioner of Siddha medicine.
- He established the Advaidananda Sabha and launched a magazine called Dravida Pandian.
- He organized the Todas and other tribes of the Nilgiri Hills into a formidable force for the freedom movement.
- He established the Sakya Buddhist Society in Bengal.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- Iyothee Thass Pandithar was a prominent anti-caste activist and a practitioner of Siddha medicine. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- He was born on 20 May 1845 in Madras presidency.
- He established the Advaidananda Sabha and launched a magazine called Dravida Pandian. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- He established the “Dravida Mahajana Sabha ” in 1891 along with Rettamalai Srinivasan.
- He organized the Todas and other tribes of the Nilgiri Hills into a formidable force for the freedom movement. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- He established the Sakya Buddhist Society in Madras with branches all over South India. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
- The Sakya Buddhist Society was also known as the Indian Buddhist Association and was established in the year 1898. To manage and coordinate the functioning of the society, he began a weekly magazine, Tamizhan in 1907.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- Iyothee Thass Pandithar was a prominent anti-caste activist and a practitioner of Siddha medicine. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- He was born on 20 May 1845 in Madras presidency.
- He established the Advaidananda Sabha and launched a magazine called Dravida Pandian. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- He established the “Dravida Mahajana Sabha ” in 1891 along with Rettamalai Srinivasan.
- He organized the Todas and other tribes of the Nilgiri Hills into a formidable force for the freedom movement. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- He established the Sakya Buddhist Society in Madras with branches all over South India. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
- The Sakya Buddhist Society was also known as the Indian Buddhist Association and was established in the year 1898. To manage and coordinate the functioning of the society, he began a weekly magazine, Tamizhan in 1907.
-
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Consider the following statements about Mumps:
- It is a contagious disease caused by a paramyxovirus.
- It is an acute disease that infects children and young adults.
- There is no specific treatment for mumps.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- Mumps is a contagious disease caused by a paramyxovirus. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It can cause the parotid glands, the ones on each side of the face to swell and they may also be tender or painful.
- It is an acute disease that infects children and young adults. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Humans are the only known host for the mumps virus, which is spread via direct contact or by airborne droplets from the upper respiratory tract of infected individuals.
- There is no specific treatment for mumps. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The various symptoms may be relieved with medicines. The best way to protect kids is to make sure they’re immunized against mumps.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- Mumps is a contagious disease caused by a paramyxovirus. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It can cause the parotid glands, the ones on each side of the face to swell and they may also be tender or painful.
- It is an acute disease that infects children and young adults. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Humans are the only known host for the mumps virus, which is spread via direct contact or by airborne droplets from the upper respiratory tract of infected individuals.
- There is no specific treatment for mumps. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The various symptoms may be relieved with medicines. The best way to protect kids is to make sure they’re immunized against mumps.
-
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Consider the following statements about different types of ‘Otoliths’ that aid fish in balance and hearing:
- Sagitta is involved in the detection of sound and the process of hearing, or converting sound waves into electrical signals.
- Asteriscus is involved in the detection of sound and the process of hearing.
- Lapillus is involved in the detection of gravitational force and sound.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
The otolith is a stony lump in the fish ear. These are much like tree rings which reveal fish’s age. Different forms or isotopes of oxygen in the otolith indicate the temperature the fish experienced when it was alive. Carbon isotopes reveal how quickly food is converted into energy. Fish carry their fitness trackers in their ears. They are commonly known as “ear stones,” which are hard, calcium carbonate structures located directly behind the brains of bony fishes.
The different types of otoliths that aid fish in balance and hearing are:
- Sagitta is involved in the detection of sound and the process of hearing, or converting sound waves into electrical signals. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Asteriscus is involved in the detection of sound and the process of hearing. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Lapillus is involved in the detection of gravitational force and sound. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
The otolith is a stony lump in the fish ear. These are much like tree rings which reveal fish’s age. Different forms or isotopes of oxygen in the otolith indicate the temperature the fish experienced when it was alive. Carbon isotopes reveal how quickly food is converted into energy. Fish carry their fitness trackers in their ears. They are commonly known as “ear stones,” which are hard, calcium carbonate structures located directly behind the brains of bony fishes.
The different types of otoliths that aid fish in balance and hearing are:
- Sagitta is involved in the detection of sound and the process of hearing, or converting sound waves into electrical signals. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Asteriscus is involved in the detection of sound and the process of hearing. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Lapillus is involved in the detection of gravitational force and sound. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Consider the following statements about the Codex Alimentarius Commission:
- It is an international food safety and quality standard-setting body.
- It was created by the World Health Organisation and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations.
- It meets in regular sessions once in three years alternating between Geneva and Rome.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- The Codex Alimentarius Commission is an international food safety and quality standard-setting body. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Its objective is protecting consumer’s health and ensuring fair practices in the food trade.
- It was created by the World Health Organisation and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It consists of 189 member countries. Its membership is open to all Member Nations and Associate Members of FAO and WHO which are interested in international food standards.
- It meets in regular sessions once a year alternating between Geneva and Rome. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- The Codex Alimentarius Commission is an international food safety and quality standard-setting body. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Its objective is protecting consumer’s health and ensuring fair practices in the food trade.
- It was created by the World Health Organisation and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It consists of 189 member countries. Its membership is open to all Member Nations and Associate Members of FAO and WHO which are interested in international food standards.
- It meets in regular sessions once a year alternating between Geneva and Rome. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements about the Indian Tent Turtle:
- It is listed as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List.
- It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
- It is listed under the Appendix I of the CITES.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
- The Indian tent turtle (Pangshura tentoria) is a species of turtle in the family Geoemydidae.
- It is an active swimmer and a mainly herbivorous species.
- Its habitats include still water pools on the riverside and slow-running water near the river banks.
- It is native to India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
- The Indian Tent Turtle is listed as least concern on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is listed under the Appendix II of the CITES. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
- The Indian tent turtle (Pangshura tentoria) is a species of turtle in the family Geoemydidae.
- It is an active swimmer and a mainly herbivorous species.
- Its habitats include still water pools on the riverside and slow-running water near the river banks.
- It is native to India, Nepal, and Bangladesh.
- The Indian Tent Turtle is listed as least concern on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is listed under the Appendix II of the CITES. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Consider the following statements about De Winton’s Golden Mole:
- It is an elusive blind mole endemic to Australia that swims through sand and lives in inaccessible burrows.
- Its natural habitats are subtropical dry shrubland, Mediterranean-type shrubby vegetation, and sandy shores.
- It is currently the only golden mole species listed as critically endangered on the IUCN List.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- De Winton’s Golden Mole is an elusive blind mole endemic to South Africa that swims through sand and lives in inaccessible burrows. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It has only ever been recorded in one location – Port Nolloth, on South Africa’s northwest coast – where it was last sighted in 1937.
- Its natural habitats are subtropical dry shrubland, Mediterranean-type shrubby vegetation, and sandy shores. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The upper parts have short, dense fur that is slate grey with a yellowish tinge. Individual hairs have grey bases, whitish shafts, and fawn tips.
- The face, cheeks, and lips have a more intense yellowish tinge. The underparts are rather paler than the upper parts, with individual hairs having white tips.
- It is currently the only golden mole species listed as critically endangered on the IUCN List. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It is among the 25 “most wanted lost” species that are the focus of Global Wildlife Conservation’s “Search for Lost Species” initiative.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- De Winton’s Golden Mole is an elusive blind mole endemic to South Africa that swims through sand and lives in inaccessible burrows. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It has only ever been recorded in one location – Port Nolloth, on South Africa’s northwest coast – where it was last sighted in 1937.
- Its natural habitats are subtropical dry shrubland, Mediterranean-type shrubby vegetation, and sandy shores. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The upper parts have short, dense fur that is slate grey with a yellowish tinge. Individual hairs have grey bases, whitish shafts, and fawn tips.
- The face, cheeks, and lips have a more intense yellowish tinge. The underparts are rather paler than the upper parts, with individual hairs having white tips.
- It is currently the only golden mole species listed as critically endangered on the IUCN List. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It is among the 25 “most wanted lost” species that are the focus of Global Wildlife Conservation’s “Search for Lost Species” initiative.
-
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Consider the following statements about Operation Storm Makers II:
- It was conducted by Interpol in which India was a participant.
- It aims to target fraud schemes fuelled by victims of human trafficking.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (c)
- Operation Storm Makers II was conducted by Interpol in which India was a participant. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Human trafficking-fuelled frauds are expanding beyond Southeast Asia.
- Victims are lured by fake job ads and forced to commit online fraud such as – Fake cryptocurrency investments, Work-from-home scams, and Lottery and online gambling scams.
- It aims to target fraud schemes fuelled by victims of human trafficking. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- Operation Storm Makers II was conducted by Interpol in which India was a participant. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Human trafficking-fuelled frauds are expanding beyond Southeast Asia.
- Victims are lured by fake job ads and forced to commit online fraud such as – Fake cryptocurrency investments, Work-from-home scams, and Lottery and online gambling scams.
- It aims to target fraud schemes fuelled by victims of human trafficking. Hence statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Abelmoschus Odishae is a new frog species discovered in a moist deciduous forest in Odisha.
- Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE).
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (b)
- Abelmoschus Odishae is a new plant species of ‘wild okra’ discovered in a moist deciduous forest in Odisha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It can be used for hybridisation to create a better variety with high disease resistance.
- It can also play a vital role in widening the genetic base of okra.
- Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture, and Farmers Welfare. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It was formerly known as the Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it was established on 16 July 1929, as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It is responsible for coordinating agricultural education and research in India.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- Abelmoschus Odishae is a new plant species of ‘wild okra’ discovered in a moist deciduous forest in Odisha. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It can be used for hybridisation to create a better variety with high disease resistance.
- It can also play a vital role in widening the genetic base of okra.
- Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an autonomous organisation under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE), Ministry of Agriculture, and Farmers Welfare. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It was formerly known as the Imperial Council of Agricultural Research, it was established on 16 July 1929, as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. It is responsible for coordinating agricultural education and research in India.
-
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Consider the following statements about the Red Sea:
- It is the world’s northernmost tropical sea which lies between Asia and Africa.
- Reef systems are better developed along the sea because of their greater depths and efficient water circulation patterns.
- It is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (c)
- Red Sea is the world’s northernmost tropical sea which lies between Asia and Africa. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and the narrow strait of Bab el-Mandeb.
- Reef systems are better developed along the sea because of their greater depths and efficient water circulation patterns. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Its well-known islands include Tiran Island, which is located near the mouth of the Gulf of Aqaba, and Shadwan Island, which is located at the entrance of the Gulf of Suez.
- Yemen and Saudi Arabia border the Red Sea to the east.
- It is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- Red Sea is the world’s northernmost tropical sea which lies between Asia and Africa. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is connected to the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean to the south through the Gulf of Aden and the narrow strait of Bab el-Mandeb.
- Reef systems are better developed along the sea because of their greater depths and efficient water circulation patterns. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Its well-known islands include Tiran Island, which is located near the mouth of the Gulf of Aqaba, and Shadwan Island, which is located at the entrance of the Gulf of Suez.
- Yemen and Saudi Arabia border the Red Sea to the east.
- It is bordered by Egypt to the north and west and by Sudan, Eritrea, and Djibouti to the west. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
Consider the following statements about Mohenjo Daro:
- It lies in Pakistan’s Sindh province, on the bank of the Indus River.
- It was divided into two parts – the citadel and the lower town.
- Its ruins were designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- Mohenjo Daro lies in Pakistan’s Sindh province, on the bank of the Indus River. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The people of Mohenjo-Daro lived in houses that had similar features throughout the town. They consisted of a central courtyard surrounded by rooms. Almost every household had individual toilets and bathrooms.
- It was divided into two parts – the citadel and the lower town. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The western mound, or Citadel was built on a raised platform of mud brick and consisted of all the important administrative structures like The Great Bath, granaries, and the College of Priests.
- It was fortified by a thick mud-brick retaining wall.
- The eastern or low-lying part of the town was also fortified and was meant for the settlement of commoners.
- Numerous streets and small alleys ran across this part of the city.
- Within this section, many sub-parts were built according to the guild systems.
- As people settled here, a large number of artifacts and information regarding the burial practices were found in this area.
- Its ruins were designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1980. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It was laid out in a rectilinear grid and built out of baked bricks, the city featured a complex water management system, complete with a sophisticated drainage and covered sewer system, and baths in nearly every house.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- Mohenjo Daro lies in Pakistan’s Sindh province, on the bank of the Indus River. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- The people of Mohenjo-Daro lived in houses that had similar features throughout the town. They consisted of a central courtyard surrounded by rooms. Almost every household had individual toilets and bathrooms.
- It was divided into two parts – the citadel and the lower town. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The western mound, or Citadel was built on a raised platform of mud brick and consisted of all the important administrative structures like The Great Bath, granaries, and the College of Priests.
- It was fortified by a thick mud-brick retaining wall.
- The eastern or low-lying part of the town was also fortified and was meant for the settlement of commoners.
- Numerous streets and small alleys ran across this part of the city.
- Within this section, many sub-parts were built according to the guild systems.
- As people settled here, a large number of artifacts and information regarding the burial practices were found in this area.
- Its ruins were designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1980. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It was laid out in a rectilinear grid and built out of baked bricks, the city featured a complex water management system, complete with a sophisticated drainage and covered sewer system, and baths in nearly every house.
-
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
The sum of 3 numbers is 85. If third number be one fifth of the first and the first number be twice the second, find the second number
Correct
Solution (b)
We know from the details of the question that the ratio of the numbers = 1: 1/2: 1/5
Taking LCM we get the ratio = 10: 5: 2
The total of the ratios = 17
Second number = 5/17 × 85 = 25
Incorrect
Solution (b)
We know from the details of the question that the ratio of the numbers = 1: 1/2: 1/5
Taking LCM we get the ratio = 10: 5: 2
The total of the ratios = 17
Second number = 5/17 × 85 = 25
-
Question 32 of 35
32. Question
A contract is to be completed in 60 days if 105 persons work, each working at 8 hours a day. After 30 days, 2/5 of the work is completed. How many additional persons should be deployed so that the work will be completed in the scheduled time, each person now working 9 hours a day?
Correct
Solution (a)
Persons worked (M1) = 105
Number of hours each person worked per day (H1) = 8
Number of days they worked (D1) = 30
Work completed (W1)= 2/5
Remaining days (D2)= 60 – 30 = 30
Remaining Work to be completed (W2) = (1 – 2/5 ) = 3/5
Let the total number of persons who do the remaining work (M2) = x
Number of hours each person needs to be work per day (H2) = 9
= M1D1H1/W1 = M2D2H2/W2
= (105×30×8)/ (2/5) =
(x×30×9)/ (3/5) => x = 140
So, additional person = 140 – 105 = 35
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Persons worked (M1) = 105
Number of hours each person worked per day (H1) = 8
Number of days they worked (D1) = 30
Work completed (W1)= 2/5
Remaining days (D2)= 60 – 30 = 30
Remaining Work to be completed (W2) = (1 – 2/5 ) = 3/5
Let the total number of persons who do the remaining work (M2) = x
Number of hours each person needs to be work per day (H2) = 9
= M1D1H1/W1 = M2D2H2/W2
= (105×30×8)/ (2/5) =
(x×30×9)/ (3/5) => x = 140
So, additional person = 140 – 105 = 35
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Question 33 of 35
33. Question
It is not only the untreated sewage water and industrial effluents, but also the solid wastes and construction material discharged by individuals, companies and municipal bodies that have caused the suffocation of the Yamuna. Also, floodplains have been encroached upon by settlements. Hence, ensuring supply of quality drinking water is not only expensive, it also needs improvement in governance. It needs technical knowledge on measurement and regulation of water quality. It is not the fault of the DJB or the Delhi government alone that they have not been able to ensure 100% supply of quality water to the citizens of Delhi, considering the constraints they face, especially those concerning the water resources management and laws in the country.
Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct
Solution (b)
Many factors like control of effluents and dumping of construction material, removing the encroachments from the flood plains, proper monitoring of water quality etc. are needed to improve the quality of the water of a river. The impact of climate change has not been discussed in the passage. Keeping these things in the mind, the most appropriate among the given answer options is option B.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Many factors like control of effluents and dumping of construction material, removing the encroachments from the flood plains, proper monitoring of water quality etc. are needed to improve the quality of the water of a river. The impact of climate change has not been discussed in the passage. Keeping these things in the mind, the most appropriate among the given answer options is option B.
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Question 34 of 35
34. Question
The structure of India‘s population—that has been famously described as a “pyramid” is changing to that of an “unhealthy middle-aged man with a big head and fat belly”. The heavy belly comes from a dramatic increase in the size of the lower middle class and the big head comes from rising income inequality. The richest 1% of India now hold 58% of wealth, and the richest 10% over 80%. This structural shift will have profound consequences for politics and economics, with an aspiring class that is very large and growing, and with abject poverty declining to a much smaller percentage of the population.
The terms “big head” and “fat belly”, as used in the passage, refer to
Correct
Solution (b)
The passage begins by mentioning the structure of Indian population vis-a-vis its income, which has a pyramidal pattern. The terms “big head” and “fat belly” refer to the change in this pyramidal pattern. “Heavy belly” refers to a dramatic increase in the size of the lower middle class, and “big head” refers to rising income inequality.
Option C might seem a little confusing. The passage talks about income distribution, not the number of people as a function of their ages. Hence, option C is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The passage begins by mentioning the structure of Indian population vis-a-vis its income, which has a pyramidal pattern. The terms “big head” and “fat belly” refer to the change in this pyramidal pattern. “Heavy belly” refers to a dramatic increase in the size of the lower middle class, and “big head” refers to rising income inequality.
Option C might seem a little confusing. The passage talks about income distribution, not the number of people as a function of their ages. Hence, option C is incorrect.
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Question 35 of 35
35. Question
As a poet, Kabir transcended many of the divisions that existed in India. He can be celebrated as Dalit hero or as a Brahmin. Kabir and the Kabir Panth are accepted as a part of Hinduism. A large corpus of his poems is included in the Guru Granth Sahib. His presence in Indian Islamic thought, Qawwali singing and architecture has also been well documented. Nineteenth century missionaries noted the similarity of his thoughts to Christianity. His indebtedness to Buddhist Siddhas has been a subject of scholarship in the last century. Jain poets emulated his style, so much so that the 17th century Anandghan was dubbed as the ‘Jain Kabir’.
The passage seems to argue that
Correct
Solution (a)
Option A is correct. Throughout the passage it can be seen that the author is explaining how Kabir‘s thoughts have been incorporated by various religions in India. For example, he is celebrated as a Dalit hero or a Brahmin. His poems which reflected his thoughts are included in Guru Granth Sahib (Sikhs). Similar connection with other religions like Christianity, Jainism and Islam is also established in the passage.
Option B is incorrect. The passage only explains how Kabir‘s thoughts have been included in various religions around India. It nowhere mentions whether Kabir supported any religion or not. Hence, this statement is not correct.
Option C is incorrect. Though the passage mentions in the beginning, “He can be celebrated as Dalit hero or as a Brahmin”, it cannot be conclusively established from this paragrapn that Kabir advocated equality between different castes. Also there is no mention of untouchability in the passage. Hence, this statement is not correct.
Option D is incorrect. The passage mentions the presence of Kabir’s thoughts in Islam through the statement, “His presence in Indian Islamic thought, Qawwali singing and architecture has also been well documented”. But, the passage does not argue that his presence in Islamic thought is more prominent than that in other religions.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Option A is correct. Throughout the passage it can be seen that the author is explaining how Kabir‘s thoughts have been incorporated by various religions in India. For example, he is celebrated as a Dalit hero or a Brahmin. His poems which reflected his thoughts are included in Guru Granth Sahib (Sikhs). Similar connection with other religions like Christianity, Jainism and Islam is also established in the passage.
Option B is incorrect. The passage only explains how Kabir‘s thoughts have been included in various religions around India. It nowhere mentions whether Kabir supported any religion or not. Hence, this statement is not correct.
Option C is incorrect. Though the passage mentions in the beginning, “He can be celebrated as Dalit hero or as a Brahmin”, it cannot be conclusively established from this paragrapn that Kabir advocated equality between different castes. Also there is no mention of untouchability in the passage. Hence, this statement is not correct.
Option D is incorrect. The passage mentions the presence of Kabir’s thoughts in Islam through the statement, “His presence in Indian Islamic thought, Qawwali singing and architecture has also been well documented”. But, the passage does not argue that his presence in Islamic thought is more prominent than that in other religions.
All the Best
IASbaba