[DAY 38] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Note:

Article 360- Financial Emergency:

• Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency.
• Grounds of Proclamation: If the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
• Under such a situation, the executive and legislative powers will go to the centre.
• Like the other two types of emergencies, it has also to be approved by the Parliament.
• 38th amendment act of 1975: The Amendment act made that the proclamation of financial emergency cannot be questioned in the court of law.
• 44th amendment act of 1978: The amendment act deleted the provision inserted by the 38th Amendment Act of 1975, which suggests that the president’s satisfaction is not immune from judicial review.
• Now the Financial emergency is under Judicial review.
• However, there is no provision of Parliament making laws on state subject.
• A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting.
• A proclamation of Financial emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

Solution (c)

Note:

• Part XVIII of the constitution consists of Articles 352 to 360 dealing with the Emergency Provisions. The Emergency declared in 1975 (internal emergency) by Indira Gandhi Government proved to be the most controversial.
• The Shah commission did not justify the declaration of the Emergency. Hence, the 44th Amendment Act was enacted in 1978 to introduce a number of safeguards against the misuse of Emergency provisions.
• Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
• When a national emergency is declared on the ground of ‘war’ or ‘external aggression‘, it is known as ‘External Emergency‘. On the other hand, when it is declared on the ground of ‘armed rebellion‘, it is known as ‘Internal Emergency‘.
• Following changes were made by the 44^th Amendment Act, in the National Emergency provisions in Part XVIII:
  • Armed Rebellion in place of Internal Disturbance
  • Written recommendation from Cabinet for National Emergency
  • Judicial Review of Emergency
  • Period of one month for Parliamentary approval for National Emergency
  • Periodical Approval for National Emergency by both houses of Parliament. If approved by both the Houses of Parliament, the emergency continues for six months, and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the Parliament for every six months.
  • Lok Sabha can revoke National Emergency
  • Safeguards for Fundamental Rights in case of National Emergency

Solution (c)

President’s Rule:

The President’s Rule can be proclaimed under Article 356 on two grounds:

1. Article 356 empowers the President to issue a proclamation, if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
2. Article 365 says that whenever a state fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction from the Centre, it will be lawful for the president to hold that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Therefore, other options are not valid ground for imposition of President Rule in the state.

Solution (d)

The Centre is empowered to give directions to the states with regard to the exercise of their executive power in the following matters:

1. the construction and maintenance of means of communication (declared to be of national or military importance) by the state;
2. the measures to be taken for the protection of the railways within the state;
3. the provision of adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups in the state; and
4. the drawing up and execution of the specified schemes for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes in the state.

Solution (b)

Article 251 clearly says that if there is any inconsistency between the laws made by the Parliament under article 249 and 250 and the laws made by the Legislature of the States, then the law made by the Parliament shall prevail.

Article 251- Inconsistency between laws made by Parliament under articles 249 and 250 and laws made by the Legislatures of States:

• Nothing in articles 249 and 250 shall restrict the power of the Legislature of a State to make any law which under this Constitution it has power to make, but if any provision of a law made by the Legislature of a State is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament which Parliament has under either of the said articles power to make, the law made by Parliament, whether passed before or after the law made by the Legislature of the State, shall prevail, and the law made by the Legislature of the State shall to the extent of the repugnancy, but so long only as the law made by Parliament continues to have effect, be inoperative.

Article 249- Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest:

1. Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, if the Council of States has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest that Parliament should make laws with respect to [goods and services tax provided under article 246A or] any matter enumerated in the State List specified in the resolution, it shall be lawful for Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to that matter while the resolution remains in force.
2. A resolution passed under clause (1) shall remain in force for such period not exceeding one year as may be specified therein:

Provided that, if and so often as a resolution approving the continuance in force of any such resolution is passed in the manner provided in clause (1), such resolution shall continue in force for a further period of one year from the date on which under this clause it would otherwise have ceased to be in force.

3. A law made by Parliament which Parliament would not but for the passing of a resolution under clause (1) have been competent to make shall, to the extent of the incompetency, cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force, except as respects things done or omitted to be done before the expiration of the said period.

Article 250- Power of Parliament to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation:

1. Notwithstanding anything in this Chapter, Parliament shall, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, have power to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India with respect to [goods and services tax provided under article 246A or] any of the matters enumerated in the State List.
2. A law made by Parliament which Parliament would not but for the issue of a Proclamation of Emergency have been competent to make shall, to the extent of the incompetency, cease to have effect on the expiration of a period of six months after the Proclamation has ceased to operate, except as respects things done or omitted to be done before the expiration of the said period.

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Article 360- Financial Emergency:

• Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened.
• The 38th Amendment Act of 1975 made the satisfaction of the president in declaring a Financial Emergency final and conclusive and not questionable in any court on any ground. But this provision was subsequently deleted by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 implying that the satisfaction of the president is not beyond judicial review.
• A proclamation declaring financial emergency must be approved by both the Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency can be passed by either House of Parliament only by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of that house present and voting.
• A proclamation of Financial emergency may be revoked by the President at any time by a subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation does not require parliamentary approval.

Consequences of the proclamation of a Financial Emergency:

• The executive authority of the Centre extends (a) to directing any state to observe such canons of financial propriety as are specified by it, and (b) to directions as the President may deem necessary and adequate for the purpose.
• Direction may include a provision requiring (a) the reduction of salaries and allowances of all or any class of persons serving in the state, and (b) the reservation of all money bills or other financial bills for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the legislature of the state.
• The President may issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of (a) all or any class of persons serving the Union, and (b) the judges of the Supreme Court and the high court.
• There is no provision of Parliament making laws on state subject.

Solution (b)

Note:

• Article 34 provides for the restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India. It empowers the Parliament to indemnify any government servant or any other person for any act done by him in connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in any area where martial law was in force.
• Martial Law suspends the Government and ordinary law courts whereas National Emergency continues the government and ordinary law courts.
• While National Emergency has specific and detailed provisions in the Constitution and is explicit, Martial Law has no specific provisions in the Constitution and is implicit.
• Martial Law affects only Fundamental Rights while National Emergency affects not only Fundamental Rights but also Centre-state relations, distribution of revenues, and legislative powers between center and states and may extend the tenure of the Parliament.

Solution (a)

Solution (a)

Solution (c)

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects to Concurrent List from State List-

1. Education
2. Forests
3. Weights and Measures
4. Protection Of Wild Animals and Bird
5. Administration Of Justice; constitution and organization of all courts except the Supreme Court and the high courts

Solution (c)

Powers of the Supreme Court:

Besides the several jurisdictions, the Supreme Court has numerous other powers:

• It decides the disputes regarding the election of the president and the Vice-President. In this regard, it has the original, exclusive and final authority.
• It enquires into the conduct and behaviour of the chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission on a reference made by the president. If it finds them guilty of misbehaviour, it can recommend to the President for their removal. The advice tendered by the Supreme Court in this regard is binding on the President.
• It has power to review its own judgement or order. Thus, it is not bound by its previous decision and can depart from it in the interest of justice or community welfare. In brief, the Supreme Court is a self-correcting agency.
• It is authorised to withdraw the cases pending before the high courts and dispose them by itself. It can also transfer a case or appeal pending before one high court to another high court.
• Its law is binding on all courts in India. Its decree or order is enforceable throughout the country. All authorities (civil and judicial) in the country should act in aid of the Supreme Court.
• It has power of judicial superintendence and control over all the courts and tribunals functioning in the entire territory of the country.

Solution (b)

Note:

Appointment of Judges of Supreme Court:

• The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
• The Chief Justice is appointed by the President after consultation with such judges of the Supreme Court and High courts as he deems necessary.
• The other judges are appointed by president after consultation with the Chief justice and such other judges of the Supreme Court and the High courts as he deems necessary.
• The consultation with the chief justice is obligatory in the case of appointment of a judge other than Chief Justice.

Solution (b)

Solution (a)

Note:

Acting Chief Justice:

The President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India when:

• the office of Chief Justice of India is vacant; or
• the Chief Justice of India is temporarily absent; or
• the Chief Justice of India is unable to perform the duties of his office.

Ad hoc Judge:

When there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges to hold or continue any session of the Supreme Court, the Chief Justice of India can appoint a judge of a High Court as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period.

He can do so only after consultation with the chief justice of the High Court concerned and with the previous consent of the president.

The judge so appointed should be qualified for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court. It is the duty of the judge so appointed to attend the sittings of the Supreme Court, in priority to other duties of his office. While so attending, he enjoys all the jurisdiction, powers and privileges (and discharges the duties) of a judge of the Supreme Court.

Solution (a)

Solution (d)

Note:

Contempt of Court:

• Contempt of court, as a concept that seeks to protect judicial institutions from motivated attacks and unwarranted criticism, and as a legal mechanism to punish those who lower its authority
• This follows the initiation of contempt proceedings by the Supreme Court of India, on its own motion.

Constitutional Provision and Statutory Basis:

• When the Constitution was adopted, contempt of court was made one of the restrictions on freedom of speech and expression.
• Separately, Article 129 of the Constitution conferred on the Supreme Court the power to punish contempt of itself.
• Article 215 conferred a corresponding power on the High Courts.
• The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, gives statutory backing to the idea.

Types of Contempt:

• The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 defines both civil and criminal contempt.
• As a Court of Record, the Supreme Court has power to punish for the ‘Contempt of Court’. It may be Civil or Criminal.

Civil contempt

Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to any judgement, order, writ or other process of a court or wilful breach of an undertaking given to a court.

Criminal contempt

Criminal contempt means the publication of any matter or doing an act which:

• Scandalises or lowers the authority of a Court.
• Prejudices or interferes with the due course of a Judicial proceeding.
• Interferes or obstructs the administration of Justice in any other manner.

Innocent publication and distribution of some matter, fair and accurate report of Judicial proceedings, fair and reasonable criticism of Judicial acts and comment on the administrative side of the Judiciary do not amount to a Contempt of Court.

Solution (b)

• The Wular Lake is the largest freshwater lake in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’. This island was constructed by King Zainul-Abi-Din.
• In 1990, it was designated as a Ramsar Site.
• Chilika Lake is the largest saltwater lake in India located in the state of Odisha.
• It was formed as a result of tectonic activity. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It lies at an altitude of 1,580 m. It is also said to be a remnant of Satisar Lake, which existed in ancient times.
• It is fed by the Jhelum River. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Jhelum River flows in India and Pakistan. It is a tributary of the Indus River.
• It is the main waterway of the Kashmir valley.

Solution (b)

• In the PM-eBus Sewa Scheme, 10,000 e-buses will be deployed across cities in India. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It was introduced to give a push to the slow adoption of e-buses in public transport.
• Under this scheme, city bus operations will be done on a Public Private Partnership (PPP) model. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• This scheme will support bus operations for 10 years.
• States/Cities shall be responsible for running the bus services and making payments to the bus operators.
• The Central Government will support these bus operations by providing subsidies to the extent specified in the proposed scheme.
• This scheme will cover cities with a population of 300,000 and above and will include all the capital cities of the ‘Union Territories, the North Eastern Region, and the Hill States’. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

• The Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary is situated on the southern side of Kodagu district of Karnataka. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is named after the highest peak of the sanctuary called Brahmagiri Hill.
• It is covered with semi-evergreen to wet evergreen forests with high-altitude grassland shoal forests. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• River Laxman Tirtha, a very important tributary of river Cauvery originates in it. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Note: Researchers from the National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS) found a new butterfly species named Conjoined Silverline (Cigaritis conjuncta) in Karnataka’s Bramhagiri Wildlife Sanctuary, Kodagu.

Solution (a)

• The Himalayan Wolf (Canis lupus chanco), is a prominent lupine predator found across the Himalayas. It is also called Tibetan wolves, which live at more than 4,000 metres in altitudes and are genetically distinct from grey wolves.
• It is found in China, the Himalayan wolf lives on the Tibetan Plateau in the provinces of Gansu, Qinghai, Tibet, and western Sichuan.
• In northern India, it occurs in the Union Territory of Ladakh and the Lahaul and Spiti region in north-eastern Himachal Pradesh.
• The conservation status of the Himalayan Wolf:
• It is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is protected under the Appendix I of the CITES. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

• The Chittorgarh Fort is located in Rajasthan and was used to be the capital of the Mewar rulers. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It was built by local Maurya rulers in the 7th century A.D. The common belief is that Chitrangada Mori, the local Maurya ruler, developed the fort originally. Later, the fort was captured by the Mewar rulers in 728 CE.
• It is situated on a hill that rises from the banks of the river Berach. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It has witnessed several legendary warriors in Indian history, including Badal, Gora, Maharana Pratap, Rana Kumbha, Patta, and Jaimal, among others.
• It is known for its seven gates namely Padan Gate, Ganesh Gate, Hanuman Gate, Bhairon Gate, Jodla Gate, Lakshman Gate, and the main gate, which is named after Lord Ram.
• These gates were built to protect the fort from enemy attacks, and the arches even protect the elephants from entering.
• It was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2013. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The AN-32 Aircraft is a Soviet-origin military transport aircraft. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is designed and manufactured by the Antonov Design Bureau of Ukraine for the Indian Air Force (IAF).
• It was purchased by India from the erstwhile Soviet Union in 1984. The IAF has a fleet of around 100 AN-32 planes.
• It is powered by two single-shaft turboprop engines. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It can fly at a maximum speed of 530 km/h, and its cruise speed is 470 km/h.
• The range and service ceiling of the aircraft is 2,500km and 9,500m, respectively.
• The aircraft weighs around 16,800 kg, and its maximum take-off weight is 27,000kg.
• It can take off and land on rough airfields and dirt runways.
• It is designed to manoeuvre day and night in tropical and mountainous regions. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• Cabo Verde is a group of islands that lie off the west coast of Africa. Its capital is Praia. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It is located near Senegal and is the nearest point on the continent. This volcanic archipelago includes ten islands and five islets, divided into the windward (Barlavento) and leeward (Sotavento) groups.
• Its climate is characterized by stable temperatures with extreme aridity.
• It is certified as a malaria-free country by the World Health Organization (WHO). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Cabo Verde has become the third country to acquire the status in the global health organisation’s African region. The country has now joined Mauritius and Algeria, who were certified in 1973 and 2019, respectively.

Solution (c)

• Cervical Cancer is caused by Human papillomavirus (HPV), a sexually transmitted infection, that plays a role in causing most cervical cancer. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that occurs in the cells of the cervix — the lower part of the uterus that connects to the vagina.
• When exposed to HPV, the body’s immune system typically prevents the virus from harming. In a small percentage of people, however, the virus survives for years, contributing to the process that causes some cervical cells to become cancer cells.
• It is a cancer that is found anywhere in the cervix. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

• The Constitution of India uses the word minority but does not define it. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Article 29 of the Indian Constitution uses the word ‘minorities’ in its marginal heading, but it speaks about “any section of the citizens inhabiting the territory of India or any part of the country should have the right to protect their language or script or culture, which is different and varied.
• It also says that citizens should be allowed to be admitted to any educational institution that is maintained by the State or get help from State funds whether they vary in religion, race, caste, language, or any of them.
• Article 30 of the Constitution of India talks only about religious and linguistic minorities. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It says: “All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.”
• The basic ground for a community to be nominated as a religious minority is the numerical strength of the community. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Section 2, clause (c) of the National Commission of Minorities Act, declares six communities as minority communities. They are:
• Muslims
• Christians
• Buddhists
• Sikhs
• Jains and
• Zoroastrians (Parsis)

Solution (d)

• The Congo River is a river in west-central Africa. The river gets its name from the ancient Kongo Kingdom, which existed near the mouth of the river. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is also called the Zaire River. With a length of 2,900 miles (4,700 km), it is the continent’s second-longest river, after the Nile, and the ninth-longest in the world.
• It rises in the highlands of northeastern Zambia between Lakes Tanganyika and Nyasa (Malawi) as the Chambeshi River at an elevation of 5,760 feet (1,760 metres).
• Its course then takes the form of a giant counterclockwise arc, flowing to the northwest, west, and southwest before draining into the Atlantic Ocean at Banana (Banane) in the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
• Its course through the rainforest causes it to cross the equator twice.
• It is the deepest river in the world. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It reaches depths of over 750 feet (230 meters).
• It also has the second-largest flow in the world, with a discharge of 1.5 million cubic feet of water per second, trailing only the Amazon, and the second-largest watershed of any river.
• It runs through the Republic of the Congo, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, the Central African Republic, western Zambia, northern Angola, and parts of Cameroon and Tanzania. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Its main tributaries are the Ubangi, Sangha, and Kasai. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (c)

Let the current age of Ramesh and his daughter be 4x and x years respectively.

Five years later: (4x + 5) = 3(x + 5) ∴ 4x + 5 = 3x + 15 i.e. x = 10

Hence, Ramesh and his daughter are currently 40 years and 10 years old respectively.

Ten years from now, their age will be 50 years and 20 years respectively.

Hence, Ramesh will be 2.5 times as old as his daughter. Hence, option c.

Solution (b)

Since each question can be answered in 4 ways.

So, the total number of ways of answering 10 questions

= 4 * 4 *4 * 4 * 4 * 4 * 4 *4 * 4 * 4 = 4^10

Solution (d)

By observation, there are 58 triangles in the given figure.

Hence, option d

Solution (b)

1 day work of Akshay, Rakesh and Shashank is 1/10, 1/8, 1/16 respectively

Let the work gets completed in ‘x’ days

Then, 2* (1/10) + n * (1/8) + n * (1/16) = 1 (∵complete work is 1)

= n = 64/15

= 4 (4/15) days

Solution (c)

Number = (Divisor x Quotient) = Remainder

Let the quotients when this number is divided by 5 and 6 be x and y respectively.

(Note that x will be greater than y as 5 is smaller than 6).

Number = 5x + 2 = 6y + 1 Given that, x – y = 3

On solving both equations we get, x = 19, y = 16

Thus, the number is 19× 5 + 2 = 97