[DAY 45] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

• The Government of India categorises Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) under three categories of Navratna, Miniratna, and Maharatna companies. A wide range of factors determines the categorization of these CPSEs. This includes annual turnover, net worth, and net profit calculated annually.

• Criteria for grant of Maharatna status to CPSEs meeting the following criteria are eligible to be considered for grant of Maharatna status are
  • Having Navratna status
  • Listed on the Indian stock exchange with minimum prescribed public shareholding under SEBI regulations Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • An average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crores during the last 3 years
  • An average annual net worth of more than 15,000 crores during the last 3 years Maharatna Status does not require a net worth of more than 1 lakh crore in the last three years to get the maharatna status. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
  • An average annual net profit after tax of more than Rs. 5,000 crores during the last 3 years
  • Should have significant global presence/international operations. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Gender budgeting is a tool that allows governments to promote equality through fiscal policies by taking analyses of a budget’s differing impacts on the sexes as well as setting goals or targets for equality and allocating funds to support those goals

Solution (b)

• The 14th Finance Commission used the Census of 1971 as the benchmark for fund allocation, not the 15th Finance Commission. The 15th Finance Commission utilized the Census of 2011 for this purpose. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect).
• The 15th Finance Commission recommended maintaining a 41% vertical devolution for distributing funds to the states from the divisible pool. The 14th Finance Commission suggested a 42% share. (Hence statement 2 is correct).

Solution (a)

Non-Tax Revenue is the recurring income earned by the government from sources other than taxes. Interest received, Examination fees, Dividends and Profits are all components of Non Tax receipts.

Solution (c)

• The presence of a parallel economy, associated with black money or unaccounted funds, is a significant challenge to the Indian economy and contributes to substantial losses in tax revenues for the government. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• A progressive taxation system is designed to address income inequality by placing a heavier tax burden on wealthier individuals. (Hence statement 2 is correct).

Solution (b)

• The presence of inexpensive labour and a skilled workforce in India led to a surge in outsourcing by multinational companies, contributing significantly to the services sector’s growth after the reform period. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• The reduction in tariff and non-tariff barriers on imports played a pivotal role in the services sector’s high growth. Foreign trade reforms facilitated domestic products to engage and compete globally. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• The devaluation of the rupee against foreign currencies resulted in increased foreign exchange flow, encouraging numerous foreign companies to invest in India. This, in turn, contributed to the substantial growth of the services sector post-liberalization. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect).

Solution (c)

• Agriculture is the biggest unorganized sector of the economy accounting for more than 90 per cent share in the total unorganized labour-force. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• Agriculture is deeply related to industrial growth and the national income in India—1 per cent increase in agricultural growth leads to 0.5 per cent increase in industrial output (growth) and 0.7 per cent increase in the national income of India. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• India has remained consistently a ‘net exporter’ of Agri-products (in 2018-19, value of exports being ₹2.7 lakh crore against import of ₹1.37 lakh crore). India occupies a leading position in global agricultural trade having a share of 2.15 percent in the world agricultural trade. (Hence statement 3 is correct).

Solution (b)

• Industrial licensing was abolished for all industries except those specified. These specified industries will continue to be subjected to compulsory licensing for reasons related to security and strategic concerns, social reasons, problems related to safety and overriding environmental issues, manufacture of products of hazardous nature and articles of elitist consumption. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• Prior to 1991, foreign investment in India was tightly controlled through industrial licensing and foreign exchange restrictions. The NIP significantly liberalised these controls, introducing several key measures:
  • Automatic approval for FDI up to 51% in 47 high-priority industries, eliminating the need for prior government approvals.
  • Streamlined approval process for higher levels of FDI through the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB).
  • Relaxation of foreign exchange regulations to facilitate investment inflows.
  • Focus on attracting foreign technology and expertise to boost India’s industrial development. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

• Indian companies will be free to negotiate the terms of technology transfer with their foreign counterparts according to their own commercial judgement. Actively encourage and assist Indian entrepreneurs in exploiting and meeting emerging domestic and global opportunities and challenges. The bedrock of any such package of measures must be to let the entrepreneurs make investment decisions on the basis of their own commercial judgement. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Steps taken by the Government to develop the logistics sector:

• The Gati Shakti Programme: This initiative focuses on implementing infrastructure connectivity projects, including roadways and railways, in a coordinated manner across the nation to enhance logistics efficiency. (Hence 1 is correct)
• Sagarmala: This initiative aims to utilize the potential of the coastline and waterways to reduce the amount of infrastructure needed for logistics and improve cargo movement. (Hence 2 is correct)
• Bharatmala: The Bharatmala project focuses on reducing critical infrastructure gaps in the road sector to improve the effectiveness of road traffic circulation and enhance logistics efficiency. (Hence 3 is correct)
• Comprehensive Logistics Action Plan (CLAP): Aims to rank India among the top 25 countries in the Logistics Performance Index by 2030.
• e-sanchit and FASTags: Implementing paperless export-import trade operations and enhancing efficiency on roads. (Hence 4 is correct)
• GST: A unified tax system like GST simplifies logistics-related issues.
• Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY: Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY is a national public health insurance scheme that provides healthcare benefits to eligible beneficiaries and is not related to enhancing logistics efficiency. (Hence 5 is incorrect)

Solution (b)

• The Government of India categorises Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) under three categories of Navratna, Miniratna, and Maharatna companies. A wide range of factors determines the categorization of these CPSEs. This includes annual turnover, net worth, and net profit calculated on an annual basis. Along with this, the presence of the company on the stock exchange list as per the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) rules.

• The following Central Public Sector enterprises were categorised as Maharatna Company

1. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited
2. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
3. Coal India Limited Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
4. GAIL India Limited
5. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
6. Indian Oil Corporation Limited
7. NTPC Limited
8. Oil & Natural Gas Corporation Limited,
9. Power Finance Corporation
10. Power Grid Corporation of India Limited
11. Rural Electrification Corporation Limited Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
12. Steel Authority of India Limited
13. Recently Rural Electrification Corporation Limited

• The following Central Public Sector enterprises were categorized as Navaratna companies in India:

1. Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL). Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.
2. Container Corporation of India Limited (CONCOR)
3. Engineers India Limited (EIL)
4. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL)
5. Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL)
6. Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited (MTNL)
7. National Aluminium Company Limited (NALCO) Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
8. NBCC (India) Limited
9. NMDC Limited
10. NLC India Limited
11. Oil India Limited (OIL)
12. Power Finance Corporation Limited (PFC)
13. Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (PGCIL)
14. Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL)

Solution (a)

• The Government notified the new Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) Policy on February 4, 2O2l for Atmanirbhar Bharat. The new PSE Policy envisages the classification of CPSEs into Strategic and Non Strategic Sectors and exempts certain CPSEs, such as those set up as not-for-profit companies under the Companies Act 2013 or those supporting vulnerable and weaker sections of society, from the scope of the policy. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
• CPSEs in the Non- Strategic Sector will be privatised, otherwise shall be closed. Only a bare minimum presence of CPSEs in the Strategic Sector is to be maintained. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
• DIPAM (Department of Investment and public asset management) is India’s custodian of disinvestment proceeds. The Department of Public Enterprises (DPE) is the implementation agency of disinvestment policy. DPE has been entrusted with the responsibility to identify CPSEs for closure or privatisation in the non-strategic sector in consultation with administrative ministries/departments and to take in-principle approval from CCEA in respect of such identified CPSEs. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Bombay Plan laid emphasis on agriculture restructuring. As a part of this, it proposed abolition of intermediaries (zamindari abolition). (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• The Plan did not support the Gandhian concept of village economy, rather it was in support of rapid industrialization and emphasized heavy capital goods and basic industries. (Hence statement 2 is incorrect).
• It also gave importance to medium-scale, small-scale and cottage industries as they provide greater employment and require lesser capital. (Hence statement 3 is correct).
• Bombay plan wanted the state to play an active role. It was in the support of a controlled economy where the government plans, controls and oversees the different areas of the economy (Hence statement 4 is incorrect).

Solution (a)

Types of Direct Taxes:

• Income Tax: Imposed on an individual’s or entity’s income, varying with income levels. Progressive tax rates may apply, with higher rates for higher income brackets.
• Corporation Tax:
  • Applicable to the income of corporations and businesses.
  • The tax rate may differ for domestic and foreign companies.
• Wealth Tax:
  • Levied on an individual’s net wealth, including assets like property, jewellery, and financial instruments.
  • Phased out in India in recent years.
• Gift Tax:
  • Applied when an individual receives a gift, with the giver being responsible for the tax payment.
  • In some jurisdictions, gift tax is merged with other taxes.

Solution (c)

• The committee proposed a significant decrease in the number of public sector banks (PSBs) through mergers and acquisitions, aiming to enhance efficiency in banking operations. It also suggested empowering the RBI as the primary regulator of the banking system, while advocating for the autonomy of PSBs. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• In response to the challenge posed by the increasing non-performing assets (NPAs) in banks and financial institutions, the committee recommended the establishment of asset reconstruction companies or funds. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• The committee proposed a gradual phasing out of the directed credit programme. It argued that sectors like agriculture and small-scale industries (SSIs) had matured sufficiently and no longer required special support, suggesting that concessional interest rates could be discontinued after two decades of interest subsidies. (Hence statement 3 is correct).
• Contrary to the statement, the committee advised against using the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) as the primary tool for monetary and credit control. Instead, it recommended an increased reliance on open market operations (OMOs). Additionally, the committee suggested a gradual reduction of the CRR from its current high level of 15 percent to a range of 3 to 5 percent. (Hence statement 4 is incorrect).

Solution (b)

Garib (Poor):

• This pillar focuses on the welfare of the poor and marginalized sections of society.
• Key initiatives include Garib Kalyan programs and measures aimed at overall welfare and development of the nation.

Mahilayen (Women):

• This pillar emphasizes women empowerment and gender equality.
• Nari Shakti programs and policies are central to this pillar.

Yuva (Youth):

• It aims to provide opportunities for skill development, education, and employment to the youth population.
• Initiatives under this pillar aim to harness the potential of young individuals and channel their energy towards constructive endeavours.

Annadata (Farmer):

• This pillar is dedicated to the welfare and support of farmers, who are the backbone of the nation.
• It includes policies and programs aimed at improving agricultural productivity, ensuring fair prices for agricultural produce, and providing financial support and assistance to farmers.

Solution (b)

• The Feldman-Mahalanobis model, a Neo-Marxist theory of economic development, was independently formulated by Soviet economist G. A. Feldman in 1928 and Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in 1953. Mahalanobis’ model gives little attention to the savings constraint, which is assumed to originate from the industrial sector. However, in developing countries, initial savings often stem from the agricultural sector, and taxation, one of the essential sources of capital, is not addressed in this model. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect).
• According to the model, the growth rate depends on both the share of investment in the capital goods sector, denoted by k, and the share of investment in the consumer goods sector, denoted by c. If the value of k surpasses c, it may lead to slower short-term growth, but in the long run, it can yield higher consumption levels. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• The model presupposes that a country must possess sufficient resources to sustain itself, making it less applicable to smaller countries. Therefore, this aspect of the model does not hold true for nations lacking in adequate raw material resources. (Hence statement 3 is correct).

Solution (b)

                  List I                                        List II

Merit goods          Provided to targeted individuals.

Public goods         Goods with the non- exclusion principle

Demerit goods     Consumption of these goods negatively impacts society.

(Hence b is correct code).

Solution (d)

• SEZs are designated as duty-free enclaves treated as part of India’s customs territory. Goods and services produced within SEZs are exempt from customs duties, providing a competitive advantage for businesses operating within these zones. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• The SEZ Act of 2005 establishes the legal framework for Special Economic Zones in India. It provides the necessary guidelines and regulations for the establishment, operation, and management of SEZs, contributing to a conducive business environment. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• Domestic sales from SEZs are subject to full customs duty. SEZs enjoy exemptions on customs duties for both international and domestic transactions, fostering a favourable environment for economic activities within these zones. (Hence statement 3 is correct).
• The Baba Kalyani-led committee was constituted by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to evaluate and provide recommendations on India’s SEZ policy. The committee’s focus was on aligning the policy with World Trade Organization (WTO) standards and implementing global best practices to optimize SEZs’ capacity utilization and potential output. (Hence statement 4 is correct).

Solution (b)

• Direct taxes, like income tax or property tax, have incidence and impact at the same point and cannot be shifted by the taxpayer to someone else. (Hence statement 1 is correct).
• Indirect taxes, such as customs duty or value-added tax, have incidence and impact at different points, allowing the taxpayer to shift the burden to someone else. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• Indirect taxes are regressive, impacting lower incomes more than higher incomes, as the tax burden is the same for everyone, regardless of income level. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect).

Solution (b)

• The First Five-Year Plan was based on the Harrod-Domar model, not the Mahalanobis Model. It emphasized agricultural development, including irrigation and power projects, laying the foundation for economic growth in post-independence India. (Hence statement 1 is incorrect).
• The Third Five-Year Plan, known as the ‘Gadgil Yojana/Plan,’ aimed at economic self-reliance, balanced regional development, and achieving a self-sustained take-off for the Indian economy. (Hence statement 2 is correct).
• The Fifth Five-Year Plan was terminated in 1978, but not due to drought or famine. The termination was a result of a change in the political regime with the Janata Party coming to power, causing disruptions during the plan period. (Hence statement 3 is incorrect).
• The Sixth Five-Year Plan focused on poverty eradication and employment generation, with the iconic slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’ coined by the then-Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. The plan was successful, surpassing its targeted growth rate and contributing to socio-economic development. (Hence statement 4 is correct).

Solution (a)

• Vaccine Safety Net is a global network of websites that provides reliable information on vaccine safety. It is established by the World Health Organization (WHO). Hence option a is correct.
• It is a network of a diverse group of digital information resources (websites and social media), VSN members, located in countries around the world, and providing scientifically based information on vaccine safety in various languages.

Solution (d)

• The Mekong River is the longest river in Southeast Asia. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is the 7th longest in Asia and the 12th longest in the world.
• It has a length of about 2,700 miles (4,350 km).
• It originates from the Sanjianyuang in the Tibetan Plateau. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The left-bank tributaries (draining high rainfall areas) include Nam Ou, Tha, and Nam Khan, while the right-bank tributaries (draining the lower relief region) are Ruak, Kok, Tonle Sap, and Mun.
• It flows through China, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, and Cambodia. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Its biodiversity is only second to the Amazon River Basin and contains about 20,000 plant species, 1,200 birds, 430 mammals, 800 amphibians and reptiles, and 850 fish species.
• The Mekong creates a huge delta, or triangular piece of land, in southern Vietnam. The delta has rich soil and is one of the world’s great producers of rice.
• Vientiane, the capital of Laos, and Phnom Penh, the capital of Cambodia, both stand on its banks. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• The river drains into the South China Sea south of Ho Chi Minh City (Vietnam).

Solution (b)

• The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization is a legally binding global agreement that implements the access and benefit-sharing obligations of the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It was adopted by the CBD in Nagoya, Japan, in October 2010 and entered into force on October 12, 2014, 90 days after the deposit of the fiftieth instrument of ratification.
• It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three objectives of the CBD: the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
• It applies to genetic resources that are covered by the CBD, and to the benefits arising from their utilization.
• It also covers traditional knowledge (TK) associated with genetic resources that are covered by the CBD and the benefits arising from their utilization.
• It establishes a framework that helps researchers access genetic resources for biotechnology research, development, and other activities, in return for a fair share of any benefits from their use. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Indigenous and local communities may receive benefits through a legal framework that respects the value of traditional knowledge associated with genetic resources.

Solution (b)

• The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is an apex intelligence organization functioning under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs, Department of Revenue, and Ministry of Finance. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI) is now renamed as Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI).
• It has the power to conduct investigations into suspected cases of GST evasion or non-compliance. This may involve summoning persons, examining records, and carrying out searches and seizures.
• It is responsible for enforcing the provisions of the GST law. This includes taking legal action against offenders, imposing penalties, and recovering any taxes or duties due. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• It is responsible for gathering intelligence about potential violations of the GST law. This includes collecting information from various sources, such as GST returns, financial statements, and other documents.
• It develops intelligence, especially in new areas of tax evasion through its intelligence network across the country and disseminates such information, by issuing Modus Operandi Circulars and Alert Circulars to sensitize the field formations about the latest trends in duty evasion.
• It is entrusted with the task of collection, collation, and dissemination of intelligence relating to the evasion of Goods and Services Tax (GST) and the duties of Central Excise and Service Tax on an all-India basis. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

• ABHYAS is designed for autonomous flying with the help of an autopilot indigenously. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It offers a realistic threat scenario for the practice of weapon systems.
• It is the ideal platform for the validation of Armed Forces equipment slated for induction (only those that require aerial engagement). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is designed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation’s (DRDO) Aeronautical Development Establishment (ADE).
• The target drone has a laptop-based Ground Control System with which the aircraft can be integrated and pre-flight checks, data recording during the flight, replays after the flight, and post-flight analysis can be carried out.
• It has a radar cross-section and a visual and infrared augmentation system required

for weapon practice. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

• The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is published monthly by the National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It uses 2011-2012 as its base year.
• It uses mining, manufacturing, and electricity as broad sectors. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The relative weights of these three sectors are 6% (manufacturing), 14.4% (mining), and 8% (electricity).
• Eight core industries comprise about 40 percent of the weight of items included in the IIP. They are electricity, crude oil, coal, cement, steel, refinery products, natural gas, and fertilizers.
• The eight core sector industries in decreasing order of their weightage: Refinery Products> Electricity> Steel> Coal> Crude Oil> Natural Gas> Cement> Fertilizers.
• It uses basic goods, capital goods, and intermediate goods as base sectors. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

• The Red Sea is an arm of the Indian Ocean, lying between Africa and Asia. It is bordered by the following countries:
• Eastern shore: Israel, Jordan, Saudi Arabia and Yemen.
• Western shore: Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea, Djibouti. Hence option d is correct.
• It is connected to the ocean in the south, through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait and the Gulf of Aden.
• To its north lie the Sinai Peninsula, the Gulf of Aqaba, and the Gulf of Suez (leading to the Suez Canal).
• The Red Sea is connected to the Mediterranean Sea through the Suez Canal.
• The Red Sea is one of the most densely packed shipping channels in the world, carrying maritime traffic between Europe and Asia and east Africa.
• About 12% of global trade passes through the Red Sea, including 30% of global container traffic.
• The Red Sea also serves as a strategic zone for both regional and Great Powers projecting their military might or openly engaging in conflict.

Solution (c)

• The Aldabra Giant Tortoise is the second-largest species of land tortoise in the world. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Galapagos Giant Tortoise is the largest species of land tortoise in the world.
• It can live for 100 years and has a fascinating history.
• This tortoise evolved from the ancestors of Aldabrachelys abrupta, one of two giant tortoises that inhabited Madagascar for 15 million years.
• Four million years ago, the Aldabrachelys abrupta lineage migrated, likely via a combination of drifting with floating vegetation and assisted by their natural buoyancy and good swimming abilities, to Seychelles.
• It is endemic to the Aldabra Atoll of the Seychelles,  an archipelago nation in the western Indian Ocean about 930 miles east of Africa and northeast of Madagascar. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Its largest populations are found on grasslands called “platins”. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• These are terrestrial and occur in a wide variety of habitats, including scrub forests, mangrove swamps, and coastal dunes and beaches, each with their respective vegetation.
• It is listed as vulnerable on the IUCN Red List. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• It is listed in Appendix II of CITES.

Solution (a)

• The World Sustainable Development (WSDS) Summit is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is the only independently convened international summit on sustainable development and environment, based in the Global South.
• It strives to provide long-term solutions for the benefit of global communities by assembling the world’s most enlightened leaders and thinkers on a single platform.
• The theme of WSDS 2024 is ‘Leadership for the Sustainable Development and Climate Justice’. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Note: TERI is a leading think tank dedicated to conducting research for sustainable development of India and the Global South. It is an independent, multi-dimensional organization, with capabilities in research, policy, consultancy, and implementation.

Solution (c)

• The 3M22 Zircon, or SS-N-33, is a scramjet-powered manoeuvring anti-ship hypersonic cruise missile. It is developed by Russia. Hence option c is correct.
• It is reportedly capable of flying with speeds up to Mach 9 and a range of 1000 km.
• It’s a two-stage missile that uses solid fuel in the first stage and a scramjet motor in the second stage.
• Zircon cruise missiles use cooled supersonic combustion ramjet engines, which power combustion by compressing air flowing at supersonic speeds due to the missile’s forward motion.

Solution (c)

Lowest 4-digit number is 1000.

LCM of 3, 4 and 5 = 3 × 4 × 5 = 60.

Dividing 1000 by 60, we get the remainder 40.

Thus, the lowest 4-digit number that exactly divisible by 3, 4 and 5 is 1000 + (60 – 40) = 1020. Now, add the remainder 2 that’s required. Thus, the answer is (1020 + 2 = 1022).

Solution (c)

Lowest 4-digit number is 1000.

LCM of 3, 4 and 5 = 3 × 4 × 5 = 60.

Dividing 1000 by 60, we get the remainder 40.

Thus, the lowest 4-digit number that exactly divisible by 3, 4 and 5 is 1000 + (60 – 40) = 1020. Now, add the remainder 2 that’s required. Thus, the answer is (1020 + 2 = 1022).

Solution (b)

The weight of new boy = Weight of the removed boy + No. of boys ×Increase in average.

= 20+5×3.8

=20+19

= 39 kgs

Solution (a)

The bowling average indicates the number of runs given by a bowler to take a wicket.

Let the bowler of 12.4 bowling average has taken x wickets before his last match.

So, number of runs conceded by him are 12.4x.

Number of runs conceded including present match are 12.4x+26 and total wickets taken are x+5 and the new bowling average is 12.4−0.4=12.

To find x, Bowling average = Number of runs conceded / Number of wickets taken ​

or, 12.4x+26 /x+5 ​ =12

or,x=85

Therefore number of wickets taken by him his last match is 85

Solution (c)

Let’s try to maximise the number of Indian-Vegetarians. Out of 65 Indians, all vegetarians (i.e., 40) can be Indians. So, at least 25 Indians will be there who will be non- vegetarians. This number can increase depending on the number of vegetarian-Indians. Let’s try to minimise the number of Indian-Vegetarians. For that we have maximise the number of non-Indian-Vegetarians. Out of 15 Non-Indians, at max all can be vegetarian. Still 25 vegetarians remain which will fall under Indian category. So, at least 25 Indians will be there who will be vegetarians. Hence both statements are correct.

Solution (d)

Shamanth goes to swim every 3th day and Manoj goes to swim every 4th day. They will go to swim together every 12th day (LCM of 3 and 4 is 12). So, on the 12th day after January 1, they will go together to swim i.e., on January 13.