[DAY 50] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2024 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a)

Solution (a)

Solution (a)

Note:

NITI Aayog Composition:

• Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson
• Governing Council consists of the Chief Ministers of all the States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories in India.
• Regional Councils will be created to address particular issues and possibilities affecting more than one state. These will be formed for a fixed term. It will be summoned by the Prime Minister. It will consist of the Chief Ministers of States and Lt. Governors of Union Territories. These will be chaired by the Chairperson of the NITI Aayog or his nominee.
• Special invitees: Eminent experts, specialists with relevant domain knowledge, which will be nominated by the Prime Minister.
• The full-time organizational framework will include, in addition to the Prime Minister as the Chairperson:

Vice-Chairperson (appointed by the Prime Minister)

Members:

Full-time

Part-time members: Maximum of 2 members from foremost universities, leading research organizations, and other innovative organizations in an ex-officio capacity. Part-time members will be on a rotational basis.

Ex Officio members: Maximum of 4 members of the Council of Ministers which is to be nominated by the Prime Minister.

Chief Executive Officer: CEO will be appointed by the Prime Minister for a fixed tenure. He will be in the rank of Secretary to the Government of India.

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

Solution (b)

• The Central Information Commission (CIC) was established by the Central Government in 2005. It was constituted through an Official Gazette Notification under the provisions of the Right to Information Act (2005). Hence, it is not a Constitutional body. The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. At present (2019), the Commission has six Information Commissioners apart from the Chief Information Commissioner. They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. It does not include the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
• They should be persons of eminence in public life with wide knowledge and experience in law, science and technology, social service, management, journalism, mass media or administration and governance. They should not be a Member of Parliament or Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory.

Solution (c)

• The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is the main agency for preventing corruption in the Central government.
• It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption (1962–64).
• Thus, originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. Later, in 2003, the Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.

The jurisdiction of the CVC extends to the following:

1. Members of All India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A officers of the Central Government.
2. Officers of the rank of Scale V and above in the Public Sector Banks.
3. Officers in Grade D and above in Reserve Bank of India, NABARD and SIDBI.
4. Chief Executives and Executives on the Board and other officers of E-8 and above in Schedule ‘A’ and ‘B’ Public Sector Undertakings.
5. Chief Executives and Executives on the Board and other officers of E-7 and above in Schedule ‘C’ and ‘D’ Public Sector Undertakings.
6. Managers and above in General Insurance Companies.
7. Senior Divisional Managers and above in Life Insurance Corporation.
8. Officers drawing salary of ₹8700/- per month (pre-revised) and above on Central Government D.A. pattern, as may be revised from time to time, in societies and local authorities owned or controlled by the Central Government.

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (b)

Solution (d)

Salient features of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act (2013):

• It seeks to establish the institution of the Lokpal at the Centre and the Lokayukta at the level of the State and thus seeks to provide a uniform vigilance and anti-corruption road map for the nation both at the Centre and at the States.
• The jurisdiction of Lokpal includes the Prime Minister, Ministers, Members of Parliament and Groups A, B, C and D officers and Officials of the Central Government.
• The Lokpal to consist of a Chairperson with a maximum of 8 Members of which 50% shall be judicial members.
• 50% of the members of the Lokpal shall come from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities and women.
• The selection of the Chairperson and the Members of Lokpal shall be through a Selection Committee consisting of the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Chief Justice of India, or a sitting Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice of India and an eminent Jurist to be nominated by the President of India on the basis of recommendations of the first four members of the selection committee.
• A Search Committee will assist the Selection Committee in the process of selection. 50% of the members of the Search Committee shall also be from amongst the SCs, the STs, the OBCs, minorities and women.
• The Prime Minister has been brought under the purview of the Lokpal with subject matter exclusions and specific process for handling complaints against the Prime Minister.

Solution (c)

Solution (b)

Note:

The National Council for Transgender Persons:

It is a statutory body headed by the Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment. Five representatives of the transgender community are the members of this body. It has been established under the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019.

Functions of the National Council for Transgender Persons:

To advise the central government on the formulation of the policies, programmes, legislation and projects with respect to the transgender persons;

1. To monitor and evaluate the impact of the policies and programmes designed for achieving equality and full participation of the transgender persons;
2. To review and co-ordinate the activities of all the departments of the government, and other governmental and non-governmental organizations, which are dealing with the matters relating to the transgender persons;
3. To redress the grievances of the transgender persons; and
4. To perform such other functions as may be prescribed by the central government.

Solution (a)

Solution (d)

Solution (c)

Removal of Chairman or any other member of Union Public Service Commission:

The President may, by order, remove from the office the Chairman or any other member of a Public Service Commission, if the Chairman or such other member, as the case may be

• is adjudged an insolvent; or
• engages, during his term of office, in any paid employment outside the duties of his office; or
• is, in the opinion of the President, unfit to continue in the office by reason of infirmity of mind or body.

Solution (c)

Solution (c)

Solution (d)

Note:

• The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) is a statutory body constituted by the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016.
• It functions under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
• The Chief Executive Officer shall be the legal representative of the Authority and shall be responsible for
  • The day-to-day administration of the Authority;
  • Implementing the work programmes and decisions adopted by the Authority;
  • Drawing up of proposal for the Authority’s decisions and work programmes;
  • The preparation of the statement of revenue and expenditure, and the execution of the budget of the Authority; and
  • Performing such other functions, or exercising such other powers, as may be specified by the regulations.
• The Aadhaar Act, 2016, specifically prohibits the UIDAI from controlling, collecting, keeping or maintaining any information about the purpose of authentication, either by itself or through any entity.
• Aadhaar is an identifier, not a profiling tool.

Solution (c)

Solution (a)

• The GARBH-Ini-GA2 is a flagship programme of the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
• GARBH-Ini GA-2 is based on genetic algorithms.
• A genetic algorithm is an optimisation technique inspired by evolution and natural selection principles. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Researchers at the Indian Institute of Technology Madras and the Translational Health Science and Technology Institute, Faridabad, have collaborated to develop an India-specific artificial intelligence model named Garbhini-GA2, tailored for accurately determining the gestational age (GA) of a foetus in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

• The GROW portal utilizes thematic datasets derived from remote sensing and Geographic Information System (GIS) technology. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is hosted on the Bhuvan platform, ensuring universal access to state and district-level data related to agroforestry suitability. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It aims to facilitate restoration projects for achieving national commitments of Land Degradation Neutrality and restoring 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030, as well as creating an additional carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

• The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 provided for the establishment of Lokpal for the Union and Lokayukta for States.
• These institutions are statutory bodies without any constitutional status.
• They perform the function of an “ombudsman” and inquire into allegations of corruption against certain public functionaries and related matters.
• The President appoints the chairperson and members of the Lokpal based on recommendations from a Selection Committee chaired by the Prime Minister. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Lokpal is a multi-member body, that consists of one chairperson and a maximum of 8 members.
• The Lokpal can consist of a chairperson and eight members, with four being judicial and four non-judicial. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The term of office for Lokpal Chairman and Members is 5 years or till the age of 70 years.

Solution (d)

• The Small Island Developing States (SIDS) are a distinct group of 39 states and 18 associate members of the United Nations regional commissions that face unique social, economic, and environmental vulnerabilities. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They are highly vulnerable developing countries as they suffer from low economic diversification, often characterized by high dependence on tourism and remittances, volatility due to fluctuations in private income flows and the prices of raw materials, and debt stress situations.
• The three geographical regions in which SIDS is located are the Caribbean, the Pacific, and the Atlantic, the Indian Ocean, and the South China Sea (AIS). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• They were recognized as a special case both for their environment and development at the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Barbados Programme of Action and SAMOA Pathway are the UN Programmes of Action in support of SIDS.
• In 1994, the Barbados Programme of Action (BPoA) prescribed specific actions that would enable SIDS to achieve sustainable development. The Conference also adopted the Barbados Declaration, a statement of political will underpinning the commitments contained in the BPoA.
• The SAMOA Pathway recognizes the adverse impacts of climate change and sea-level rise on SIDS’ efforts to achieve economic development, food security, disaster risk reduction, and ocean management, among other challenges. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (d)

The reports released by the International Energy Agency:

• World Energy Outlook
• Oil Market Report
• Global Methane Tracker 2024
• World Energy Investment Report
• India Energy Outlook Report

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (b)

• World Wildlife Day (WWD) was first proposed by Thailand to the UN General Assembly in 2013. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The General Assembly adopted a resolution on 20 December 2013, designating March 3 as World Wildlife Day in 2014.
• The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), a global agreement to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival, was signed on this day in 1973.
• It is celebrated to promote sustainable practices that can help conserve biodiversity and raise public awareness. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It aims to raise awareness of the interconnectedness of all living things on our planet and to promote peaceful coexistence between humans and animals through activism, campaigning, and education.
• The theme of WWD 2024 is “Connecting People and Planet: Exploring Digital Innovation in Wildlife Conservation”. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• It highlights the potential of technology to advance conservation efforts.
• This theme is particularly relevant in today’s digital age, where technological advances can offer novel solutions to long-standing conservation challenges.

Solution (c)

• A plaint is a legal document that contains the claims made by the plaintiff when they bring a case to a civil court. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• A plaintiff is a person who brings a civil action in a court of law.
• It serves as the initial step in starting a lawsuit. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• In fact, in the very plaint, the contents of the civil suit are laid out.
• Through such a plaint, the grievances of the plaintiff are spelled out, as well as the possible causes of action that can arise out of the suit.
• A plaint that is presented to a civil court of appropriate jurisdiction contains everything, including facts to relief that the plaintiff expects to obtain.
• Order VII of the Code of Civil Procedure (CPC) particularly deals with a plaint. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• A few of the essentials of a plaint implicit in itself are those only material facts, and not all facts or the law as such is to be stated, the facts should be concise and precise, and no evidence should be mentioned.

Solution (a)

• The Press and Registration of Periodicals Act (PRP Act), 2023 has replaced the colonial era Press and Registration of Books Act dating back to 1867.
• The office of Press Registrar General of India – PRGI (erstwhile Registrar of Newspapers for India – RNI) shall be carrying out the purposes of the new Act.
• It provides an online system for facilitating the registration of newspapers and other periodicals in the country.
• The new system replaces the existing manual, cumbersome processes involving multiple steps and approvals at various stages, which were causing unnecessary hardships to the publishers.
• The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting launched the Press Sewa Portal ((presssewa.prgi.gov.in), the online portal of the Press Registrar General, for receiving various applications as mandated by the new Act.
• The Press and Registration of Periodicals Act of 2023 provide for the Press Registrar General of India who will issue registration certificates for all periodicals. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Functions of the Press Registrar General include:
• maintaining a register of periodicals,
• making guidelines for the admissibility of the title of periodicals,
• verifying circulation figures of prescribed periodicals, and
• revising, suspending, or cancelling registration.
• It provides for the central government to appoint a Press Registrar who maintains a register of newspapers. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

• INS Jatayu is the second Naval base in Lakshadweep after INS Dweeprakshak in Kavaratti. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• With the commissioning of INS Jatayu, the Indian Navy will strengthen its foothold in the Lakshadweep islands along with extending operational surveillance, reach, and sustenance.
• It will usher in a new era of capacity building and comprehensive development of the island territories.
• Minicoy Island is the southernmost island of Lakshadweep which straddles the vital Sea Lines of Communications (SLOCs). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Naval Detachment Minicoy was set up in the early 1980s under the operational command of the Naval Officer-in-Charge (Lakshadweep).

Solution (a)

• Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog set up in 1989 out of a G-7 meeting of developed nations in Paris. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Initially, its objective was to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering.
• After the 9/11 attacks on the US, the FATF in 2001 expanded its mandate to incorporate efforts to combat terrorist financing.
• The recent removal of the United Arab Emirates (UAE) from the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) grey list has sparked optimism for investment landscapes, particularly in India’s Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs). Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Let the average age of the 12-member family be x years.

Had the member not changed, the average age now (i.e. after 18 months) would have been

(x + 1.5) years.

Hence, the total age should have been (12x + 18) instead of (12x) that it is right now.

This reduction of 18 years is because of the difference in age of the person who died and the person

who joined.

∴ Required age difference = 18 years

Hence, option c.

Solution (d)

Let the original price be Rs. 100.

∴ M.P. = 1.25 × 100 = Rs. 125

Also, S.P. = (1 – 0.25) × 125

= 0.75 × 125 = Rs. 93.75

∴ Difference = 125 – 93.75 = Rs. 31.25

The actual difference is Rs. 1,000

∴ Actual C.P. = 100 × (1000/31.25) = Rs. 3,200

Hence, new M.P. = 1.2 × 3200 = Rs. 3,840

New S.P. = 0.75 × 3840 = Rs. 2,880

∴ Required difference = 3840 – 2880 = Rs. 960

Hence, option d.

Solution (b)

Let us say A and B split their share of the task and started doing their respective shares simultaneously.

Let’s say A takes A days to finish the task. Therefore, B takes A + 12 days to finish the entire task.

A has to finish 40% of the task, since B is doing the rest. So A will only take 2A/5 number of days.

B only has to finish 60% of the task, so B will take (3(A+12)/5) number of days.

But as we know, B starts working along with A and finishes 12 days after A stops working.

So, (3(A+12)/5) = ((2A)/5+12)
3A + 36 = 2A + 60
A = 24; B = 36 days.

The question is “How long would B have taken to finish the task if he had worked independently?”

Hence, the answer is “36 days”.

Choice B is the correct answer.