IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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Hello Friends
The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2023 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2022.
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Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Which of the following is correct sequence (descending) in taxonomic hierarchy?
Correct
Solution (c)
Taxonomic hierarchy is the process of arranging various organisms into successive levels of the biological classification either in a decreasing or an increasing order from kingdom to species and vice versa.
In Ascending Order:
- Kingdom: Animalia
- Multicellular organisms; cells with a nucleus, with cell membranes but lacking cell walls
- Phylum: Chordata
- Animals with a spinal cord
- Class: Mammalia
- Warm-blooded chordates that bear live young; females have mammary glands that secrete milk to nourish young
- Order: Primates
- Mammals with collar bone; eyes face forward; grasping hands with fingers; two types of teeth (incisors and molars)
- Family: Hominidae
- Primates with upright posture, large brain, stereoscopic vision, flat face, different use of hands and feet
- Genus: Homo
- A group of similar species forms a genus. The scientific name for humans is Homo sapiens. Homo is the genus name, while sapiens is the species name.
- Species: Homo sapiens
- Humans with high forehead, well-developed chin, thin skull bones
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Taxonomic hierarchy is the process of arranging various organisms into successive levels of the biological classification either in a decreasing or an increasing order from kingdom to species and vice versa.
In Ascending Order:
- Kingdom: Animalia
- Multicellular organisms; cells with a nucleus, with cell membranes but lacking cell walls
- Phylum: Chordata
- Animals with a spinal cord
- Class: Mammalia
- Warm-blooded chordates that bear live young; females have mammary glands that secrete milk to nourish young
- Order: Primates
- Mammals with collar bone; eyes face forward; grasping hands with fingers; two types of teeth (incisors and molars)
- Family: Hominidae
- Primates with upright posture, large brain, stereoscopic vision, flat face, different use of hands and feet
- Genus: Homo
- A group of similar species forms a genus. The scientific name for humans is Homo sapiens. Homo is the genus name, while sapiens is the species name.
- Species: Homo sapiens
- Humans with high forehead, well-developed chin, thin skull bones
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Question 2 of 35
2. Question
Which of the following is not a digestive enzyme in the human system?
Correct
Solution (a)
Trypsin, Pepsin and Ptyalin are digestive enzymes.
- Trypsin is an enzyme that helps us digest protein. Pepsin is a stomach enzyme that serves to digest proteins found in ingested food. Ptyalin is a digestive enzyme which is formed from the acinar cells present in the mouth. It is an enzyme that is released by the salivary glands along with the salivary amylase.
- Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid by the parietal cells of the stomach and aids in gastric motility. It is released by G cells in the pyloric antrum of the stomach, duodenum, and the pancreas.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Trypsin, Pepsin and Ptyalin are digestive enzymes.
- Trypsin is an enzyme that helps us digest protein. Pepsin is a stomach enzyme that serves to digest proteins found in ingested food. Ptyalin is a digestive enzyme which is formed from the acinar cells present in the mouth. It is an enzyme that is released by the salivary glands along with the salivary amylase.
- Gastrin is a peptide hormone that stimulates secretion of gastric acid by the parietal cells of the stomach and aids in gastric motility. It is released by G cells in the pyloric antrum of the stomach, duodenum, and the pancreas.
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Question 3 of 35
3. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
- Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
- Athlete’s foot is a disease caused by virus.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Also called the thigh bone, Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
Cholera is a bacterial disease usually spread through contaminated water. Cholera causes severe diarrhea and dehydration.
Athlete’s foot (tinea pedis) is a fungal skin infection that usually begins between the toes. It commonly occurs in people whose feet have become very sweaty while confined within tight-fitting shoes.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Also called the thigh bone, Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
Cholera is a bacterial disease usually spread through contaminated water. Cholera causes severe diarrhea and dehydration.
Athlete’s foot (tinea pedis) is a fungal skin infection that usually begins between the toes. It commonly occurs in people whose feet have become very sweaty while confined within tight-fitting shoes.
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Question 4 of 35
4. Question
Mutation in a virus is caused due to a change in its?
Correct
Solution (b)
When a virus replicates or makes copies of itself, it sometimes changes a little bit, which is normal for a virus. These changes are called “mutations”. A virus with one or more new mutations is referred to as a “variant” of the original virus.
Viruses are continuously changing as a result of genetic selection. They undergo subtle genetic changes through mutation and major genetic changes through recombination. Mutation occurs when an error is incorporated in the viral genome. Recombination occurs when coinfecting viruses exchange genetic information, creating a novel virus.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
When a virus replicates or makes copies of itself, it sometimes changes a little bit, which is normal for a virus. These changes are called “mutations”. A virus with one or more new mutations is referred to as a “variant” of the original virus.
Viruses are continuously changing as a result of genetic selection. They undergo subtle genetic changes through mutation and major genetic changes through recombination. Mutation occurs when an error is incorporated in the viral genome. Recombination occurs when coinfecting viruses exchange genetic information, creating a novel virus.
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Question 5 of 35
5. Question
Consider the following pairs and identify the correct one/s:
Disease Deficiency caused
- Beriberi – Vitamin B1 deficiency
- Scurvy – Vitamin D deficiency
- Goiter – Calcium deficiency
Select the answer:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Vitamin B1 deficiency causes Beriberi which has symptoms like weak muscles and very little energy to work. Vitamin A deficiency, on the other hand, causes loss of vision with symptoms like poor vision, loss of vision in darkness (night) and sometimes complete loss of vision. Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy which has symptoms like bleeding gums, wounds taking longer time to heal whereas Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets, with symptoms like bones becoming soft and bent. Calcium deficiency causes bone and tooth decay with symptoms like weak bones, tooth Decay, etc. Iodine deficiency, on the other hand, causes goiter where symptoms like glands in the neck appear swollen, mental disability in children, etc. is seen. Iron deficiency causes anaemia, which has symptoms like weakness.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Vitamin B1 deficiency causes Beriberi which has symptoms like weak muscles and very little energy to work. Vitamin A deficiency, on the other hand, causes loss of vision with symptoms like poor vision, loss of vision in darkness (night) and sometimes complete loss of vision. Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy which has symptoms like bleeding gums, wounds taking longer time to heal whereas Vitamin D deficiency causes Rickets, with symptoms like bones becoming soft and bent. Calcium deficiency causes bone and tooth decay with symptoms like weak bones, tooth Decay, etc. Iodine deficiency, on the other hand, causes goiter where symptoms like glands in the neck appear swollen, mental disability in children, etc. is seen. Iron deficiency causes anaemia, which has symptoms like weakness.
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Question 6 of 35
6. Question
Excessive release of the pollutant carbon monoxide (CO) into the air may produce a condition in which oxygen supply in the human body decreases. What causes this condition?
Correct
Solution (b)
Carbon monoxide has 210 times greater affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen. CO binds to haemoglobin and affects by decreasing the oxygen level.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Carbon monoxide has 210 times greater affinity for haemoglobin than oxygen. CO binds to haemoglobin and affects by decreasing the oxygen level.
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Question 7 of 35
7. Question
Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the diet since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?
Correct
Solution (c)
Antioxidants are found in certain foods and may prevent some of the damage caused by free radicals by neutralising them. These include the nutrient antioxidants, vitamins A, C and E, and the minerals copper, zinc and selenium.
Other dietary food compounds, such as the phytochemicals in plants, are believed to have greater antioxidant effects than vitamins or minerals. These are called the non-nutrient antioxidants and include phytochemicals, (such as lycopenes in tomatoes and anthocyanins found in cranberries).
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Antioxidants are found in certain foods and may prevent some of the damage caused by free radicals by neutralising them. These include the nutrient antioxidants, vitamins A, C and E, and the minerals copper, zinc and selenium.
Other dietary food compounds, such as the phytochemicals in plants, are believed to have greater antioxidant effects than vitamins or minerals. These are called the non-nutrient antioxidants and include phytochemicals, (such as lycopenes in tomatoes and anthocyanins found in cranberries).
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Question 8 of 35
8. Question
Which one of the following statements regarding insulin hormone is correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets encoded in human.
Insulin is a hormone that is responsible for allowing glucose in the blood to enter cells, providing them with the energy to function. A lack of effective insulin plays a key role in the development of diabetes.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Insulin is a peptide hormone produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets encoded in human.
Insulin is a hormone that is responsible for allowing glucose in the blood to enter cells, providing them with the energy to function. A lack of effective insulin plays a key role in the development of diabetes.
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Question 9 of 35
9. Question
Arrange the following in order of their evolution:
- Amphibians
- Fish
- Reptiles
- Birds
Select from the code:
Correct
Solution (a)
The first vertebrate to evolve is the bony fish which evolved from a jawless fish. The amphibians evolved next after fish.
The first amphibians have evolved from a lobe-finned fish ancestor about 365 million years ago.
The reptiles evolved from the amphibians. They lived completely on land. They laid amniotic eggs and had fertilization.
They were the first vertebrates that didn’t have to return to water for reproduction.
Reptiles developed certain added features such as feather, hollow bones, and warm body. These animals were called birds or Aves. Mammals and birds both evolved from reptiles like ancestors.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
The first vertebrate to evolve is the bony fish which evolved from a jawless fish. The amphibians evolved next after fish.
The first amphibians have evolved from a lobe-finned fish ancestor about 365 million years ago.
The reptiles evolved from the amphibians. They lived completely on land. They laid amniotic eggs and had fertilization.
They were the first vertebrates that didn’t have to return to water for reproduction.
Reptiles developed certain added features such as feather, hollow bones, and warm body. These animals were called birds or Aves. Mammals and birds both evolved from reptiles like ancestors.
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Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber.
- The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the vertebral column.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air-tight chamber. The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung cavity. The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the vertebral column, ventrally by the sternum, laterally by the ribs and on the lower side by the dome-shaped diaphragm. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The lungs are situated in the thoracic chamber which is anatomically an air-tight chamber. The anatomical setup of lungs in thorax is such that any change in the volume of the thoracic cavity will be reflected in the lung cavity. The thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by the vertebral column, ventrally by the sternum, laterally by the ribs and on the lower side by the dome-shaped diaphragm. -
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
The term ‘Graves’ disease’ is generally associated with:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Graves’ disease is an immune system disorder that results in the overproduction of thyroid hormones (hyperthyroidism). Although a number of disorders may result in hyperthyroidism, Graves’ disease is a common cause. Thyroid hormones affect many body systems, so signs and symptoms of Graves’ disease can be wide ranging. Locomotive syndrome is a condition of reduced mobility due to impairment of locomotive organs. Since upright bipedal walking involves minutely controlled movement patterns, impairment of any aspect of the locomotive organs has the potential to adversely affect it. A speech disorder is a condition in which a person has problems creating or forming the speech sounds needed to communicate with others. This can make the child’s speech difficult to understand. Common speech disorders are: Articulation disorders. Phonological disorders. They are a type of disease that affects the lungs and other parts of the respiratory system. Respiratory diseases may be caused by infection, by smoking tobacco, or by breathing in second-hand tobacco smoke, etc. Respiratory diseases include asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, and lung cancer. Also called lung disorder and pulmonary disease. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Incorrect Incorrect Graves’ disease is an immune system disorder that results in the overproduction of thyroid hormones (hyperthyroidism). Although a number of disorders may result in hyperthyroidism, Graves’ disease is a common cause. Thyroid hormones affect many body systems, so signs and symptoms of Graves’ disease can be wide ranging. Locomotive syndrome is a condition of reduced mobility due to impairment of locomotive organs. Since upright bipedal walking involves minutely controlled movement patterns, impairment of any aspect of the locomotive organs has the potential to adversely affect it. A speech disorder is a condition in which a person has problems creating or forming the speech sounds needed to communicate with others. This can make the child’s speech difficult to understand. Common speech disorders are: Articulation disorders. Phonological disorders. They are a type of disease that affects the lungs and other parts of the respiratory system. Respiratory diseases may be caused by infection, by smoking tobacco, or by breathing in second-hand tobacco smoke, etc. Respiratory diseases include asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, and lung cancer. Also called lung disorder and pulmonary disease. -
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
Consider the following statements about Human Eye:
- The iris controls the amount of light entering into the eye through the pupil by opening or closing.
- When we say that a person has green eyes, we refer actually to the colour of the cornea.
- Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea.
- The size of the pupil is controlled by the iris.
- The iris is the part of that eye which gives it its distinctive colour.
- When we say that a person has green eyes, we refer actually to the colour of the iris.
- The iris controls the amount of light entering into the eye through the pupil by opening or closing.
- Retina contains several nerve cells. Sensations felt by the nerve cells are then transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve.
- Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- Light enters the eye through a thin membrane called the cornea.
- The size of the pupil is controlled by the iris.
- The iris is the part of that eye which gives it its distinctive colour.
- When we say that a person has green eyes, we refer actually to the colour of the iris.
- The iris controls the amount of light entering into the eye through the pupil by opening or closing.
- Retina contains several nerve cells. Sensations felt by the nerve cells are then transmitted to the brain through the optic nerve.
- Most of the refraction for the light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea.
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Question 13 of 35
13. Question
With reference to dietary deficiencies, consider the following statements:
- Marasmus is due to a simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories.
- Kwashiorkar is due to protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency.
- Like marasmus, kwashiorkor shows wasting of muscles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Marasmus is produced by a simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories. It is found in infants less than a year in age, if mother’s milk is replaced too early by other foods which are poor in both proteins and caloric value. Kwashiorkar is produced by protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency. It results from the replacement of mother’s milk by a high calorie, low protein diet in a child more than one year in age. Like marasmus, kwashiorkor shows wasting of muscles, thinning of limbs, failure of growth and brain development. But unlike marasmus, some fat is still left under the skin; moreover, extensive oedema and swelling of body parts are seen. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Marasmus is produced by a simultaneous deficiency of proteins and calories. It is found in infants less than a year in age, if mother’s milk is replaced too early by other foods which are poor in both proteins and caloric value. Kwashiorkar is produced by protein deficiency unaccompanied by calorie deficiency. It results from the replacement of mother’s milk by a high calorie, low protein diet in a child more than one year in age. Like marasmus, kwashiorkor shows wasting of muscles, thinning of limbs, failure of growth and brain development. But unlike marasmus, some fat is still left under the skin; moreover, extensive oedema and swelling of body parts are seen. -
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
With reference to ‘Yeast’, consider the following statements:
- Yeast produces carbon dioxide during respiration.
- Yeast is used for commercial production of alcohol and wine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Yeast reproduces rapidly and produces carbon dioxide during respiration. Bubbles of the gas fill the dough and increase its volume. This is the basis of the use of yeast in the baking industry for making breads, pastries and cakes. Microorganisms are used for the large-scale production of alcohol, wine and acetic acid (vinegar). Yeast is used for commercial production of alcohol and wine. For this purpose, yeast is grown on natural sugars present in grains like barley, wheat, rice, crushed fruit juices, etc. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Yeast reproduces rapidly and produces carbon dioxide during respiration. Bubbles of the gas fill the dough and increase its volume. This is the basis of the use of yeast in the baking industry for making breads, pastries and cakes. Microorganisms are used for the large-scale production of alcohol, wine and acetic acid (vinegar). Yeast is used for commercial production of alcohol and wine. For this purpose, yeast is grown on natural sugars present in grains like barley, wheat, rice, crushed fruit juices, etc. -
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Microorganisms are classified into seven types.
- Nutrients are recycled in the atmosphere with the help of certain micro-organisms referred to as decomposers.
- Microorganisms are used to produce industrial chemicals, enzymes and other bioactive molecules.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Microorganisms are divided into seven types: bacteria, archaea, protozoa, algae, fungi, viruses, and multicellular animal parasites (helminths).
Each type has a characteristic cellular composition, morphology, mean of locomotion, and reproduction.
Microorganisms are beneficial in producing oxygen, decomposing organic material, providing nutrients for plants, and maintaining human health, but some can be pathogenic and cause diseases in plants and humans.
Most decomposers are microscopic organisms, including protozoa and bacteria.
- Nutrients are recycled in the atmosphere with the help of certain microorganisms these are called decomposers.
- Microorganisms live in soil and all over the atmosphere that recycle the organic molecules into useful nutrients.
- Decomposers release nutrients when they break down dead organisms. Decomposition is a biological process that occurs naturally with the help of microorganisms.
Microorganisms are used to produce many commercial and industrial chemicals, enzymes and other bioactive molecules.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Microorganisms are divided into seven types: bacteria, archaea, protozoa, algae, fungi, viruses, and multicellular animal parasites (helminths).
Each type has a characteristic cellular composition, morphology, mean of locomotion, and reproduction.
Microorganisms are beneficial in producing oxygen, decomposing organic material, providing nutrients for plants, and maintaining human health, but some can be pathogenic and cause diseases in plants and humans.
Most decomposers are microscopic organisms, including protozoa and bacteria.
- Nutrients are recycled in the atmosphere with the help of certain microorganisms these are called decomposers.
- Microorganisms live in soil and all over the atmosphere that recycle the organic molecules into useful nutrients.
- Decomposers release nutrients when they break down dead organisms. Decomposition is a biological process that occurs naturally with the help of microorganisms.
Microorganisms are used to produce many commercial and industrial chemicals, enzymes and other bioactive molecules.
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Question 16 of 35
16. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Microorganisms which cause diseases in human beings, plants and animals are known as pathogens.
- Anthrax is a human and cattle disease caused by a bacterium.
- Citrus canker is a bacteria that causes disease in plants.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Microorganisms are harmful in many ways. Some of the microorganisms cause diseases in human beings, plants and animals. Such disease-causing microorganisms are called pathogens. Some microorganisms spoil food, clothing and leather. Several microorganisms not only cause diseases in humans and plants, but also in other animals. For example, anthrax is a dangerous human and cattle disease caused by a bacterium. Foot and mouth disease of cattle is caused by a virus. Several microorganisms cause diseases in plants like wheat, rice, potato, sugarcane, orange, apple and others. The diseases reduce the yield of crops. Citrus canker, Rust of wheat and yellow vein mosaic of bhindi (Okra). Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct Microorganisms are harmful in many ways. Some of the microorganisms cause diseases in human beings, plants and animals. Such disease-causing microorganisms are called pathogens. Some microorganisms spoil food, clothing and leather. Several microorganisms not only cause diseases in humans and plants, but also in other animals. For example, anthrax is a dangerous human and cattle disease caused by a bacterium. Foot and mouth disease of cattle is caused by a virus. Several microorganisms cause diseases in plants like wheat, rice, potato, sugarcane, orange, apple and others. The diseases reduce the yield of crops. Citrus canker, Rust of wheat and yellow vein mosaic of bhindi (Okra). -
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
From the following pairs of disease and microorganism causing it, identify the correct pair/s:
Human Disease Microorganism
- Measles – Bacteria
- Hepatitis A – Virus
- Malaria – Protozoa
Select the answer:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Measles is an infection caused by a virus. Once quite common, measles can now almost always be prevented with a vaccine. Also called rubeola, measles spreads easily and can be serious and even fatal for small children. While death rates have been falling worldwide as more children receive the measles vaccine, the disease still kills more than 200,000 people a year, mostly children. Hepatitis A is a vaccine-preventable liver infection caused by the hepatitis A virus (HAV). HAV is found in the stool and blood of people who are infected. Hepatitis A is very contagious. It is spread when someone unknowingly ingests the virus even in microscopic amounts through close personal contact with an infected person or through eating contaminated food or drink. Malaria is a protozoan infection of the red blood cells, transmitted by the bite of a female anopheles’ mosquito. Malaria is caused by the protozoa of the genus Plasmodium. There are four species that infect humans: P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, and P. falciparum. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Measles is an infection caused by a virus. Once quite common, measles can now almost always be prevented with a vaccine. Also called rubeola, measles spreads easily and can be serious and even fatal for small children. While death rates have been falling worldwide as more children receive the measles vaccine, the disease still kills more than 200,000 people a year, mostly children. Hepatitis A is a vaccine-preventable liver infection caused by the hepatitis A virus (HAV). HAV is found in the stool and blood of people who are infected. Hepatitis A is very contagious. It is spread when someone unknowingly ingests the virus even in microscopic amounts through close personal contact with an infected person or through eating contaminated food or drink. Malaria is a protozoan infection of the red blood cells, transmitted by the bite of a female anopheles’ mosquito. Malaria is caused by the protozoa of the genus Plasmodium. There are four species that infect humans: P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, and P. falciparum. -
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
With reference to the ‘Cells’, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
- Cells that have membrane bound nuclei are called eukaryotic whereas cells that lack a membrane bound nucleus are prokaryotic.
- The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Inside each cell is a dense membrane bound structure called nucleus. This nucleus contains the chromosomes which in turn contain the genetic material, DNA. Cells that have membrane bound nuclei are called eukaryotic whereas cells that lack a membrane bound nucleus are prokaryotic. In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, a semi-fluid matrix called cytoplasm occupies the volume of the cell. The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells. Various chemical reactions occur in it to keep the cell in the ‘living state’. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Inside each cell is a dense membrane bound structure called nucleus. This nucleus contains the chromosomes which in turn contain the genetic material, DNA. Cells that have membrane bound nuclei are called eukaryotic whereas cells that lack a membrane bound nucleus are prokaryotic. In both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, a semi-fluid matrix called cytoplasm occupies the volume of the cell. The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plant and animal cells. Various chemical reactions occur in it to keep the cell in the ‘living state’. -
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
In the human body, Cowper’s glands form a part of which one of the following?
Correct
Solution (b)
The bulbourethral glands or Cowper’s glands are two small exocrine glands in the reproductive system of many male mammals.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
The bulbourethral glands or Cowper’s glands are two small exocrine glands in the reproductive system of many male mammals.
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Question 20 of 35
20. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to Parenchyma:
- It is the most common simple permanent tissue.
- Large intercellular spaces are found in it.
- It allows bending of various parts of a plant.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect A few layers of cells beneath the epidermis are generally simple permanent tissue. Parenchyma is the most common simple permanent tissue. It consists of relatively unspecialised cells with thin cell walls. They are living cells. They are usually loosely arranged, thus large spaces between cells (intercellular spaces) are found in this tissue. This tissue generally stores food. The flexibility in plants is due to another permanent tissue, collenchyma. It allows bending of various parts of a plant like tendrils and stems of climbers without breaking. It also provides mechanical support. We can find this tissue in leaf stalks below the epidermis. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect A few layers of cells beneath the epidermis are generally simple permanent tissue. Parenchyma is the most common simple permanent tissue. It consists of relatively unspecialised cells with thin cell walls. They are living cells. They are usually loosely arranged, thus large spaces between cells (intercellular spaces) are found in this tissue. This tissue generally stores food. The flexibility in plants is due to another permanent tissue, collenchyma. It allows bending of various parts of a plant like tendrils and stems of climbers without breaking. It also provides mechanical support. We can find this tissue in leaf stalks below the epidermis. -
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
Which of the following tribes are recognized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups in the state of Andhra Pradesh?
- Bodo Gadaba
- Korwa
- Konda Reddi
- Tothi
- Baiga
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (a)
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups in the state of Andhra Pradesh:
- Chenchu
- Bodo Gadaba
- Gutob Gadaba
- Dongaria Khond
- Kutia Kondha
- Kolam
- Konda Reddi
- Kondasavara
- Bondo Porja
- Khond Porja
- Parengi Porja
- Tothi
Hence option a is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups in the state of Andhra Pradesh:
- Chenchu
- Bodo Gadaba
- Gutob Gadaba
- Dongaria Khond
- Kutia Kondha
- Kolam
- Konda Reddi
- Kondasavara
- Bondo Porja
- Khond Porja
- Parengi Porja
- Tothi
Hence option a is correct.
-
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
- It is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog set up in 1989 by ASEAN countries.
- Its objective is to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
- Its Secretariat is located at the OECD headquarters in Paris.
- Currently, three countries North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are on FATF’s blacklist.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog set up in 1989 by G7 countries. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It aims to establish international standards, and to develop and promote policies, both at national and international levels, to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism.
- Its objective is to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering and terrorist financing. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Its members include 39 countries, including the United States, India, China, Saudi Arabia, Britain, Germany, France, and the EU as such.
- India became a member of FATF in 2010.
- Its members are Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Brazil, Canada, China, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hong Kong (China), Iceland, India, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Luxembourg, Malaysia, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Portugal, Russia, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, South Africa, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Türkiye, the UK and the US.
- Its Secretariat is located at the OECD headquarters in Paris. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The Secretariat supports the substantive work of the FATF membership and global network. Thefunding for the FATF Secretariat and other services is provided by the FATF annual budget to which members contribute.
- Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
- Currently, three countries North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are on FATF’s blacklist. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Note: Countries that are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is the global money laundering and terrorist financing watchdog set up in 1989 by G7 countries. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It aims to establish international standards, and to develop and promote policies, both at national and international levels, to combat money laundering and the financing of terrorism.
- Its objective is to examine and develop measures to combat money laundering and terrorist financing. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Its members include 39 countries, including the United States, India, China, Saudi Arabia, Britain, Germany, France, and the EU as such.
- India became a member of FATF in 2010.
- Its members are Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Brazil, Canada, China, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hong Kong (China), Iceland, India, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Japan, Republic of Korea, Luxembourg, Malaysia, Mexico, Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway, Portugal, Russia, Saudi Arabia, Singapore, South Africa, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland, Türkiye, the UK and the US.
- Its Secretariat is located at the OECD headquarters in Paris. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- The Secretariat supports the substantive work of the FATF membership and global network. Thefunding for the FATF Secretariat and other services is provided by the FATF annual budget to which members contribute.
- Countries known as Non-Cooperative Countries or Territories (NCCTs) are put on the blacklist. These countries support terror funding and money laundering activities. The FATF revises the blacklist regularly, adding or deleting entries.
- Currently, three countries North Korea, Iran, and Myanmar are on FATF’s blacklist. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Note: Countries that are considered a safe haven for supporting terror funding and money laundering are put on the FATF grey list. This inclusion serves as a warning to the country that it may enter the blacklist.
-
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Which of the following constitutes a trademark violation?
- Using the same name for the same category of products.
- Using the same package material for different products.
- Using similar names for different categories of products/services.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
- Using the same name for the same category of products: In Vishnudas Trading v. Vazir Sultan Tobacco Co. Ltd which involved the use of the ‘CHARMINAR’ trademark for different products. Despite both products being tobacco-related, the court ruled that they were distinct enough to warrant separate trademark registrations. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Using the same package material for different products: In Parle Products Pvt. Ltd. v JP & Co, Parle, a biscuit maker, had a trademark for their “Parle’s Glucose Biscuits” wrapper. When they noticed a similar wrapper used by JP & Co. in 1961, they took legal action. The Supreme Court decided that despite minor differences, the resemblance was enough to confuse, highlighting the importance of avoiding confusion in trademark infringement cases. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Using similar names for different categories of products/services: In Sony Corporation vs. K. Selvamurthy, Sony Corporation filed a trademark infringement suit against a tour and travel business named Sony Tours and Travels. The court ruled in favour of the defendant, stating that the businesses were distinctly different, and consumers weren’t likely to be confused. Moreover, the plaintiff’s delay in taking legal action was noted, resulting in costs awarded to the defendant. So it does not constitute trademark infringement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Note: Passing off action refers to the unauthorized use of goods, services, and the goodwill attached to another person’s business, which would amount to misrepresentation. The notion of Passing off in the Indian Trademarks Act, of 1999, seeks to safeguard the goodwill associated with unregistered trademarks.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- Using the same name for the same category of products: In Vishnudas Trading v. Vazir Sultan Tobacco Co. Ltd which involved the use of the ‘CHARMINAR’ trademark for different products. Despite both products being tobacco-related, the court ruled that they were distinct enough to warrant separate trademark registrations. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Using the same package material for different products: In Parle Products Pvt. Ltd. v JP & Co, Parle, a biscuit maker, had a trademark for their “Parle’s Glucose Biscuits” wrapper. When they noticed a similar wrapper used by JP & Co. in 1961, they took legal action. The Supreme Court decided that despite minor differences, the resemblance was enough to confuse, highlighting the importance of avoiding confusion in trademark infringement cases. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Using similar names for different categories of products/services: In Sony Corporation vs. K. Selvamurthy, Sony Corporation filed a trademark infringement suit against a tour and travel business named Sony Tours and Travels. The court ruled in favour of the defendant, stating that the businesses were distinctly different, and consumers weren’t likely to be confused. Moreover, the plaintiff’s delay in taking legal action was noted, resulting in costs awarded to the defendant. So it does not constitute trademark infringement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Note: Passing off action refers to the unauthorized use of goods, services, and the goodwill attached to another person’s business, which would amount to misrepresentation. The notion of Passing off in the Indian Trademarks Act, of 1999, seeks to safeguard the goodwill associated with unregistered trademarks.
-
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Pandavula Gutta:
- It is located in Jayashankar Bhupalpally district in Tamil Nadu.
- Its paintings feature geometrical designs and impressions in green, red, yellow, and white pigment colours.
- It is recognised as the sole Geo-heritage site in Telangana.
- It is a geological marvel older than the Himalayan hills.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- Pandavula Gutta is located in Jayashankar Bhupalpally district in Telangana. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is home to many prehistoric habitation sites.
- This site was first discovered in the year 1990.
- Its paintings feature geometrical designs and impressions in green, red, yellow, and white pigment colours. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- These cave paintings offer a rare glimpse into prehistoric man’s rock art identified on walls and ceilings of caves, rock shelters, and isolated boulders.
- The rock art paintings depict wildlife like Bison, Antelope, Tiger, and Leopard, and wildlife shapes like swastika symbols, circles, and squares, as weapons such as bows, arrows, swords, lancers, etc are present in these paintings.
- It is recognised as the sole Geo-heritage site in Telangana. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- “Geoheritage” is a generic but descriptive term applied to sites or areas of geologic features with significant scientific, educational, cultural, or aesthetic value.
- It is a geological marvel older than the Himalayan hills. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- Pandavula Gutta is located in Jayashankar Bhupalpally district in Telangana. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It is home to many prehistoric habitation sites.
- This site was first discovered in the year 1990.
- Its paintings feature geometrical designs and impressions in green, red, yellow, and white pigment colours. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- These cave paintings offer a rare glimpse into prehistoric man’s rock art identified on walls and ceilings of caves, rock shelters, and isolated boulders.
- The rock art paintings depict wildlife like Bison, Antelope, Tiger, and Leopard, and wildlife shapes like swastika symbols, circles, and squares, as weapons such as bows, arrows, swords, lancers, etc are present in these paintings.
- It is recognised as the sole Geo-heritage site in Telangana. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- “Geoheritage” is a generic but descriptive term applied to sites or areas of geologic features with significant scientific, educational, cultural, or aesthetic value.
- It is a geological marvel older than the Himalayan hills. Hence statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose.
- Diabetes is a chronic disease that occurs when the pancreas can no longer make insulin, or the body cannot make good use of the insulin it produces.
- Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) Test is one of the most commonly used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
- Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Not being able to produce or use insulin effectively leads to raised glucose levels in the blood, known as hyperglycaemia. Over the long-term high glucose levels are associated with damage to the body and failure of various organs and tissues.
- Diabetes is a chronic disease that occurs when the pancreas can no longer make insulin, or the body cannot make good use of the insulin it produces. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is a major cause of blindness, kidney failure, heart attacks, stroke, and lower limb amputation.
- Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) Test is one of the most commonly used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It is also known as the glycated haemoglobin or glycosylated haemoglobin test.
- Hemoglobin is the part of your red blood cells that carries oxygen from your lungs to the rest of your body.
- It is an important blood test that gives a good indication of how well your diabetes is being controlled.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- Insulin is a hormone that regulates blood glucose. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Not being able to produce or use insulin effectively leads to raised glucose levels in the blood, known as hyperglycaemia. Over the long-term high glucose levels are associated with damage to the body and failure of various organs and tissues.
- Diabetes is a chronic disease that occurs when the pancreas can no longer make insulin, or the body cannot make good use of the insulin it produces. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is a major cause of blindness, kidney failure, heart attacks, stroke, and lower limb amputation.
- Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) Test is one of the most commonly used tests to diagnose pre-diabetes and diabetes. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It is also known as the glycated haemoglobin or glycosylated haemoglobin test.
- Hemoglobin is the part of your red blood cells that carries oxygen from your lungs to the rest of your body.
- It is an important blood test that gives a good indication of how well your diabetes is being controlled.
-
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The issue of temple entry was first raised by Ezhava leader T K Madhavan in a 1917 editorial in his paper Deshabhimani.
- Vaikom Satyagraha was the first anti-caste movement, as the pupils of the depressed class and untouchables were restricted from entering the temple.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (c)
- The issue of temple entry was first raised by Ezhava leader T K Madhavan in a 1917 editorial in his paper Deshabhimani. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- In AICC (All India Congress Committee) meeting in Kakinada 1923, K Madhavan along with Sardar Panikkar and KP Kesava Menon submitted a petition which sought to grant the right to temple entry and worship of gods for all sections of the society irrespective of caste, creed, and community to the Travancore legislative council.
- The Vaikom Satyagraha was launched on 30th March 1924. It took place in the vicinity of Mahadev temple in Kottayam district of Kerala and took place during 1924-1925.
- Vaikom Satyagraha was the first anti-caste movement, as the pupils of the depressed class and untouchables were restricted from entering the temple. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It aimed to establish the rights of the oppressed classes to walk on the roads to the Shree Mahadeva Temple in Vaikom in Kottayam district.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- The issue of temple entry was first raised by Ezhava leader T K Madhavan in a 1917 editorial in his paper Deshabhimani. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- In AICC (All India Congress Committee) meeting in Kakinada 1923, K Madhavan along with Sardar Panikkar and KP Kesava Menon submitted a petition which sought to grant the right to temple entry and worship of gods for all sections of the society irrespective of caste, creed, and community to the Travancore legislative council.
- The Vaikom Satyagraha was launched on 30th March 1924. It took place in the vicinity of Mahadev temple in Kottayam district of Kerala and took place during 1924-1925.
- Vaikom Satyagraha was the first anti-caste movement, as the pupils of the depressed class and untouchables were restricted from entering the temple. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It aimed to establish the rights of the oppressed classes to walk on the roads to the Shree Mahadeva Temple in Vaikom in Kottayam district.
-
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The Gulf of Mexico is the largest gulf in the world.
- The Gulf of Aden is located in the Arabian Sea between Yemen and Somalia.
- The Persian Gulf is located in Western Asia between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula.
- The Gulf of Bothnia is part of the Baltic Sea between Sweden and Finland.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
- The Gulf of Mexico is the largest gulf in the world. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is bordered by the United States, Mexico, and the island nation of Cuba.
- The Gulf of Aden is located in the Arabian Sea between Yemen and Somalia. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- In the northwest, it connects with the Red Sea through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait.
- The waterway is part of the important Suez Canal shipping route between the Mediterranean Sea and the Arabian Sea in the Indian Ocean.
- The Persian Gulf is located in Western Asia between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It is an extension of the Indian Ocean (Gulf of Oman) through the Strait of Hormuz.
- Countries with a coastline on the Persian Gulf are (clockwise, from the north) – Iran, Oman, United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Bahrain, Kuwait, and Iraq.
- The Gulf of Bothnia is part of the Baltic Sea between Sweden and Finland. Hence statement 4 is correct.
- It is the northernmost arm of the Baltic Sea.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
- The Gulf of Mexico is the largest gulf in the world. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is bordered by the United States, Mexico, and the island nation of Cuba.
- The Gulf of Aden is located in the Arabian Sea between Yemen and Somalia. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- In the northwest, it connects with the Red Sea through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait.
- The waterway is part of the important Suez Canal shipping route between the Mediterranean Sea and the Arabian Sea in the Indian Ocean.
- The Persian Gulf is located in Western Asia between Iran and the Arabian Peninsula. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It is an extension of the Indian Ocean (Gulf of Oman) through the Strait of Hormuz.
- Countries with a coastline on the Persian Gulf are (clockwise, from the north) – Iran, Oman, United Arab Emirates, Saudi Arabia, Qatar, Bahrain, Kuwait, and Iraq.
- The Gulf of Bothnia is part of the Baltic Sea between Sweden and Finland. Hence statement 4 is correct.
- It is the northernmost arm of the Baltic Sea.
-
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Peatlands are aquatic wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing.
- The majority of the world’s peatlands occur in boreal and temperate parts of the Southern Hemisphere.
- Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
- Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat.
- Peatlands occur in every climatic zone and continent and cover 4.23 million km2, which corresponds to 2.84% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface.
- The majority of the world’s peatlands occur in boreal and temperate parts of the Northern Hemisphere, especially, Europe, North America, and Russia, where they have formed under high precipitation-low temperature climatic regimes. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Peatlands include landscapes that are still actively accumulating peat, others that are no longer accumulating and do not support the principal peat-forming plants, and peatlands used for economic uses such as agriculture, forestry, and excavation for energy and heat generation, horticulture, and other uses.
- About 84% of the world’s peatlands are considered to be in a natural, or near-natural state.
- Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store. They store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Note: Damaged peatlands are a major source of greenhouse gas emissions, responsible for almost 5% of global anthropogenic CO2 emissions.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
- Peatlands are terrestrial wetland ecosystems in which waterlogged conditions prevent plant material from fully decomposing. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Consequently, the production of organic matter exceeds its decomposition, which results in a net accumulation of peat.
- Peatlands occur in every climatic zone and continent and cover 4.23 million km2, which corresponds to 2.84% of the Earth’s terrestrial surface.
- The majority of the world’s peatlands occur in boreal and temperate parts of the Northern Hemisphere, especially, Europe, North America, and Russia, where they have formed under high precipitation-low temperature climatic regimes. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- Peatlands include landscapes that are still actively accumulating peat, others that are no longer accumulating and do not support the principal peat-forming plants, and peatlands used for economic uses such as agriculture, forestry, and excavation for energy and heat generation, horticulture, and other uses.
- About 84% of the world’s peatlands are considered to be in a natural, or near-natural state.
- Peatlands are the largest natural terrestrial carbon store. They store more carbon than all other vegetation types in the world combined. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Note: Damaged peatlands are a major source of greenhouse gas emissions, responsible for almost 5% of global anthropogenic CO2 emissions.
-
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the Developing Countries Trading Scheme (DCTS)?
Correct
Solution (c)
- The Developing Countries Trading Scheme (DCTS) reduces or removes rates of duty, or tariffs, on imports from eligible developing countries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It applies to least developed countries (LDCs) as defined by the United Nations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It applies to low-income countries (LIC) and lower-middle-income countries (LMIC) as defined by the World Bank.
- It will provide duty-free, quota-free trade to LDCs on everything but arms and duty-free, quota-free trade on 85% of eligible goods to most low LIC and LMIC countries.
- It is a scheme introduced by the United Kingdom to facilitate developing countries to integrate into the global economy. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- It creates stronger trade and investment partnerships and strengthens supply chains.
- It is a simpler and more generous preferential trading scheme that has been designed to boost trade with developing countries to support their development.
- It does not extend to countries and territories deemed by the World Bank as upper-middle income for three consecutive years, or to LICs and LMICs who have a free trade agreement (FTA) with the UK. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
- The Developing Countries Trading Scheme (DCTS) reduces or removes rates of duty, or tariffs, on imports from eligible developing countries. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It applies to least developed countries (LDCs) as defined by the United Nations. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It applies to low-income countries (LIC) and lower-middle-income countries (LMIC) as defined by the World Bank.
- It will provide duty-free, quota-free trade to LDCs on everything but arms and duty-free, quota-free trade on 85% of eligible goods to most low LIC and LMIC countries.
- It is a scheme introduced by the United Kingdom to facilitate developing countries to integrate into the global economy. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- It creates stronger trade and investment partnerships and strengthens supply chains.
- It is a simpler and more generous preferential trading scheme that has been designed to boost trade with developing countries to support their development.
- It does not extend to countries and territories deemed by the World Bank as upper-middle income for three consecutive years, or to LICs and LMICs who have a free trade agreement (FTA) with the UK. Hence statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the FASTag:
- It is operated by the National Council for Science and Technology Communication (NCSTC) under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
- It is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly while the vehicle is in motion.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (b)
- FASTag (RFID Tag) is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables a customer to make toll payments directly from the account which is linked to FASTag.
- It is operated by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) under the supervision of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- FASTag is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly while the vehicle is in motion. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
- FASTag (RFID Tag) is affixed on the windscreen of the vehicle and enables a customer to make toll payments directly from the account which is linked to FASTag.
- It is operated by the National Highway Authority of India (NHAI) under the supervision of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- FASTag is a device that employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology for making toll payments directly while the vehicle is in motion. Hence statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
Some birds settled on the branches of a tree. First, they sat one to a branch and there was one bird too many. Next they sat two to a branch and there was one branch too many. How many branches were there?
Correct
Solution (a)
When the birds sat one on a branch, there was one extra bird.
When they sat Two to a branch one branch was extra.
Now, we go through the options;
Checking option (A);
If there were 3 branches, there would be 4 birds.
(This would leave one bird without branch as per the question.)
When 4 birds would sit Two to a branch there would be one branch free
(as per the question.).
Hence, the option (A) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
When the birds sat one on a branch, there was one extra bird.
When they sat Two to a branch one branch was extra.
Now, we go through the options;
Checking option (A);
If there were 3 branches, there would be 4 birds.
(This would leave one bird without branch as per the question.)
When 4 birds would sit Two to a branch there would be one branch free
(as per the question.).
Hence, the option (A) is correct.
-
Question 32 of 35
32. Question
The difference between one fifth of a number and one third of the same number is 8. What is the half of that number?
Correct
Solution (c)
Given: Difference between ⅕ of a number and ⅓ of the same number is 8.
Find: ½ of the number Plan: setup an equation and solve Let the number be “n”.
(1/3)n – (1/5)n = 8
Solve for “n” Multiply both sides of the equation by the LCD 15.
15(1/3)n – 15(1/5)n = 15(8)
5n – 3n = 120
Combine like term 2n = 120 => n = 60
✅ Double Check:
1/3(60) – 1/5(60) = 20 – 12 = 8
Reasonable/Recalculated ✅ Now 1/2(60) = 30 ✅ Answer: Number = 30 Hence, option (c) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Given: Difference between ⅕ of a number and ⅓ of the same number is 8.
Find: ½ of the number Plan: setup an equation and solve Let the number be “n”.
(1/3)n – (1/5)n = 8
Solve for “n” Multiply both sides of the equation by the LCD 15.
15(1/3)n – 15(1/5)n = 15(8)
5n – 3n = 120
Combine like term 2n = 120 => n = 60
✅ Double Check:
1/3(60) – 1/5(60) = 20 – 12 = 8
Reasonable/Recalculated ✅ Now 1/2(60) = 30 ✅ Answer: Number = 30 Hence, option (c) is correct.
-
Question 33 of 35
33. Question
31% of employees pay tax in the year 2008. Non-tax paying employees are 20700. The total number of employees is:
Correct
Solution (c)
Percentage of Non-tax paying employees
= (100 – 31)%
= 69%
69% of total employees = 20700
Total employees = (20700)/69 * 100
= 30000
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Percentage of Non-tax paying employees
= (100 – 31)%
= 69%
69% of total employees = 20700
Total employees = (20700)/69 * 100
= 30000
-
Question 34 of 35
34. Question
What is the probability that a number selected from numbers 1, 2, 3, ……., 30, is prime number, when each of the given numbers is equally likely to be selected?
Correct
Solution (c)
X = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29}
n(X) = 10, n(S) = 30
Hence required probability,
= n(X)/n(S)
= 10/30
Incorrect
Solution (c)
X = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29}
n(X) = 10, n(S) = 30
Hence required probability,
= n(X)/n(S)
= 10/30
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Question 35 of 35
35. Question
Two Statements S1 and S2 are given below followed by a Question:
S1 : Bill is richer than Elon as well as Jeff.
S2 : Warren is not the richest one.
Among four friends Elon, Jeff, Bill and Warren, which one is the richest?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?
Correct
Solution (c)
S1 : Bill is richer than Elon as well as Jeff, i.e. Bill > Elon / Jeff
S2 : Warren is not the richest one.
Either of the two statements alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Taking both statements together, we can conclude that:
Bill > Elon / Jeff / Warren
Thus, Bill is the richest one among the four friends.
Hence, we can say that S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option (c) is the answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
S1 : Bill is richer than Elon as well as Jeff, i.e. Bill > Elon / Jeff
S2 : Warren is not the richest one.
Either of the two statements alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Taking both statements together, we can conclude that:
Bill > Elon / Jeff / Warren
Thus, Bill is the richest one among the four friends.
Hence, we can say that S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the question.
Hence, option (c) is the answer.
All the Best
IASbaba