[DAY 12] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

• An estuary is a body of water formed where a river flows into the sea or ocean, mixing freshwater with saltwater. This unique environment creates a brackish water ecosystem, which supports a wide variety of species, including fish, birds, and plants. Estuaries act as nurseries for many marine species and are rich in biodiversity. (Option (a) is correct)
• While estuaries involve the meeting of fresh and saltwater, a bay is typically a large body of saltwater encroaching into the land but lacks the specific freshwater influence that defines an estuary.
• Estuaries are characterized by the mixing of freshwater and saltwater, while lakes are purely freshwater systems surrounded by land.
• Marine ecosystem, such as coral reefs or the open ocean, has no significant freshwater input.

Solution (b)

Explanation: 

• Winterkill refers to the phenomenon where cold temperatures, ice, or snow cover can kill plants, fish, and other organisms. It occurs when long winters with freezing temperatures or ice cover lead to depletion of oxygen in water bodies or cause direct freezing damage to organisms.
• The Tundra is characterized by extreme cold and long winters, making it highly prone to the Winterkill phenomenon. Due to the harsh conditions, plants and animals in the tundra may face death due to freezing temperatures, snow cover, and ice formation. The lack of sunlight and extreme cold can lead to depletion of oxygen, especially in aquatic ecosystems, causing fish and other organisms to die during winter.
• The Taiga, also known as the boreal forest, experiences long, cold winters and is another region where Winterkill can occur. The cold temperatures, snow, and ice during winter can cause damage to aquatic life and plants. Frozen water bodies and limited oxygen during winter can result in fish and other aquatic organisms dying off in Taiga lakes and rivers. (Option (b) is correct)
• The Amazon is a tropical rainforest with a warm and humid climate throughout the year. It does not experience the cold temperatures required for winterkill to occur. Therefore, this region is not associated with the phenomenon of winterkill.

Solution (b)

Explanation: 

• Marine ecosystems, which include oceans, seas, and coastal areas, have different zonal classifications such as intertidal zone, neritic zone, and benthic zone, but limnetic and littoral zones are specific to freshwater ecosystems like lakes.
• Limnetic and littoral zones are terms used to describe different parts of a lake’s ecosystem. The littoral zone is the shallow, nearshore area where sunlight can penetrate, allowing for plant growth and providing habitat for various organisms. The limnetic zone is the open water area of a lake where light can still reach, supporting phytoplankton and other free-floating organisms. (Option (b) is correct)
• Desert ecosystems are characterized by arid conditions and have zones such as the xeric environment but do not include limnetic or littoral zones, as these are specific to aquatic ecosystems like lakes.
• Mountain ecosystems have different ecological zones, such as alpine and subalpine zones, depending on altitude. They don’t have limnetic or littoral zones, which are specific to aquatic environments, particularly lakes.

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

• Eutrophic lakes are characterized by high primary productivity and high nutrient concentrations, especially nitrogen and phosphorus. These lakes often suffer from algal blooms due to excessive nutrients and may have low oxygen levels in their deeper layers due to the decomposition of organic matter. Eutrophic lakes are usually found in warmer regions with high nutrient runoff from agriculture or urban areas.
• Mesotrophic lakes are intermediate in terms of nutrient levels and productivity. They have moderate concentrations of nitrogen and phosphorus, which support a balanced amount of aquatic plants and animals. Mesotrophic lakes have moderate oxygen levels and are neither too rich nor too poor in nutrients. They do not exhibit the characteristics of low primary productivity and low nutrient concentrations typical of oligotrophic lakes.
• Oligotrophic lakes are characterized by low primary productivity, low nutrient levels (especially nitrogen and phosphorus), and high oxygen content. These lakes are often found in cold regions and have clear water with few aquatic plants and animals. The low availability of nutrients limits the growth of algae and other plants, making these lakes less productive compared to eutrophic lakes. Oligotrophic lakes are typically found in high-altitude or high-latitude areas. (Option (c) is correct)
• Hypereutrophic lakes are lakes that have extremely high nutrient levels, leading to excessive algal blooms and very low oxygen levels in deeper waters. These lakes are highly productive but often suffer from poor water quality and are at risk of eutrophication. They are not typically found in cold regions, and their characteristics are the opposite of those described for oligotrophic lakes.

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

• Bogs are not common in tropical regions like Asia and Africa. They are typically found in cold temperate climates such as northern Europe, Canada, and parts of the United States. Tropical climates do not favour the formation of bogs due to their high temperatures and fast drainage.
• In Europe, bogs are often referred to as moors or fens. In Canada, they are sometimes called muskegs. However, there are distinctions between bogs and fens based on their water chemistry. While both are wetlands, fens are alkaline and fed by groundwater, while bogs are acidic and fed by rainwater. (Option (a) is correct)
• Bogs are not fertile. The acidic, waterlogged conditions of bogs make them poor in nutrients. The lack of oxygen slows down decomposition, resulting in the accumulation of peat, which is not conducive for agriculture. These ecosystems are typically dominated by mosses and other plants that can survive in such nutrient-poor conditions.

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

• While some grassland animals may also be fast runners, the description about water conservation and nocturnal habits does not match grassland ecosystems. Grasslands typically have more water available than deserts, and herbivores in grasslands often rely on open water sources like rivers or lakes.
• The tundra is a cold, harsh environment with permafrost, where the primary challenge for animals is surviving extreme cold rather than conserving water. The animals here often have thick fur and hibernate during the harshest winter months. The description of fast runners and nocturnal behaviour does not fit tundra animals, which often conserve energy rather than exhibit speed.
• The desert ecosystem is characterized by extreme temperature variations, sparse vegetation, and limited water availability. Animals have developed several adaptations to conserve water, such as being nocturnal to avoid the daytime heat and excreting concentrated urine to minimize water loss. Herbivores like kangaroo rats extract moisture from seeds, which is typical of desert environments. Fast running animals like gazelles and lizards are also commonly found in deserts. (Option (c) is correct)
• Wetlands are ecosystems with abundant water, such as marshes, swamps, and riverbanks. Animals in these areas are adapted to aquatic or semi-aquatic life and do not need to conserve water. Therefore, traits like extracting water from seeds and concentrated urine do not apply.

Solution (b)

Explanation: 

• The Sundarbans are famous for their mangrove forests and the Bengal tiger, not the habitat of the Indian Giant Squirrel. The dense mangroves do not support the type of arboreal life that the Indian Giant Squirrel thrives in.
• The Indian Giant Squirrel (Ratufa indica) is native to the Western Ghats, a biodiversity hotspot. It is an arboreal species that lives in the dense tropical rainforests of the region, where it can find food, shelter, and protection in the thick forest canopy. (Option (b) is correct)
• Grasslands are not suitable habitats for the Indian Giant Squirrel, which requires tall trees and dense forests for survival. Central Indian grasslands are home to species like the blackbuck, but not the Indian Giant Squirrel.
• The arid regions of Rajasthan are home to species adapted to dry, desert conditions, such as the Indian desert fox and the Great Indian Bustard. These regions lack the dense forests required by the Indian Giant Squirrel. 

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

• Phumdis are a unique type of floating vegetation found primarily in the Loktak Lake in Manipur, northeastern India. These floating masses of vegetation, soil, and organic matter support grasslands and play a significant role in the local ecology. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Shola grasslands are unique to the Western Ghats of southern India, especially in the Nilgiri and Anamalai Hills. These grasslands are usually interspersed with patches of Shola forests, and they exist in tropical montane regions, not the Himalayan region. (Statement 2 is incorrect)

Alpine moist meadows are found in India, particularly in the Himalayan region. These grasslands are present in high-altitude areas above 3,000 meters and are characterized by moist soils, short grasses, and alpine flora. Examples include Valley of Flowers in Uttarakhand. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

Solution (b)

Explanation: 

• The Rubber tree (Hevea brasiliensis) is native to tropical rainforests, particularly in the Amazon Basin. It is one of the most important commercial plants from rainforests, as its latex is used to produce natural rubber.
• Orchids are a diverse family of flowering plants that thrive in tropical rainforests around the world. They are often found as epiphytes, growing on trees without harming them, and are well-adapted to the moist, humid environment of rainforests.
• The Passion fruit (Passiflora edulis) is a tropical vine that grows in rainforests. It is native to South America and thrives in the warm, humid conditions typical of tropical rainforests. (Option (b) is correct)
• Okapi (Okapia johnstoni) is not a plant but an animal, specifically a mammal, found in the rainforests of the Congo in Africa. It is related to the giraffe and is one of the unique animals of the rainforest, but it cannot be considered part of the flora.

Solution (d)

Explanation: 

• The Pampas are grasslands found in South America, particularly in Argentina, Uruguay, and parts of Brazil. Pampas are known for their fertile soils and are ideal for agriculture. Africa has Savannas, not Pampas. (Pair 1 is incorrect)
• Savannas are tropical grasslands found mostly in Africa, not in South America. The major grasslands of South America are the Pampas, found in the southern part of the continent. (Pair 2 is incorrect)
• Prairies are temperate grasslands found in North America (USA and Canada), not in Eurasia. The major grasslands of Eurasia are the Steppes, which are expansive plains across Eastern Europe and Central Asia, including Russia and Kazakhstan. (Pair 3 is incorrect)

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• In ecology, a community refers to all the populations of different species that live and interact within a particular area. Communities can be classified as major or minor based on their size, complexity, and relative independence.
• A tropical rainforest is considered a major community because it is a large, self-sustaining ecosystem characterized by high biodiversity and complex interactions among organisms. It includes multiple trophic levels and a wide variety of species, both flora and fauna. The tropical rainforest functions relatively independently, with its own nutrient cycles and energy flows. (Statement 1 is correct)
• A grassland ecosystem is also a major community. It spans large areas and includes diverse species of grasses, herbivores, carnivores, and decomposers. Grasslands have their own climatic conditions and ecological processes, making them self-regulating and relatively independent ecosystems. (Statement 2 is correct)

A decaying log in a forest represents a minor community or micro-community. While it hosts a variety of organisms like fungi, insects, and microorganisms, it is not large or complex enough to be considered a major community. It depends on the larger forest ecosystem for its existence and does not function independently. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Seagrass restoration is not related to the promotion of algae cultivation for biofuel production. While algae can be cultivated for biofuels, this is a separate process from seagrass restoration, which is focused on enhancing marine ecosystems. (Option (a) is incorrect)
• Seagrass restoration is a conservation technique aimed at restoring seagrass meadows, which are critical for maintaining marine biodiversity, improving water quality, and protecting coastal ecosystems. Seagrass beds serve as nurseries for various marine species and play a significant role in carbon sequestration, making them important for both ecological and climate health. (Option (b) is correct)
• Artificial coral reef creation is a separate conservation effort aimed at enhancing coral habitats, primarily for boosting biodiversity and sometimes for tourism. However, this is unrelated to seagrass restoration, which specifically focuses on seagrass meadows rather than coral reefs. (Option (c) is incorrect)

Aquaculture refers to the breeding and harvesting of fish and other aquatic species for commercial purposes. While aquaculture is important for food security, it does not relate to seagrass restoration, which is focused on ecosystem recovery rather than commercial fish farming. (Option (d) is incorrect)

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Red tides are caused by the rapid growth of certain types of algae, mainly dinoflagellates, which produce toxins. These algal blooms can give the water a reddish or brownish color and are harmful to marine life due to the toxins produced, leading to mass fish deaths, shellfish poisoning, and even harm to humans in some cases. These events are often related to changes in water temperature, nutrient availability, or other environmental factors. (Option (a) is correct)
• Rising sea levels are a consequence of global warming but are unrelated to the phenomenon of red tides. Rising sea levels are caused by the melting of polar ice caps and the thermal expansion of water due to global temperature increases, but they do not cause discoloration of water or toxic algal blooms. (Option (b) is incorrect)
• High tides caused by the gravitational pull of the moon are known as spring tides, and while these tides can be stronger during specific lunar events, they are unrelated to the concept of red tides, which are algal blooms, not tidal phenomena. (Option (c) is incorrect)

Increased temperatures in coral reefs lead to coral bleaching, where corals expel the symbiotic algae living in their tissues, causing the corals to turn white. This is unrelated to red tides, which involve the discoloration of water due to algal blooms, not changes in coral colour. (Option (d) is incorrect)

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Mollusks are a diverse group of invertebrates that include species such as snails, clams, octopuses, and squids. While some mollusks, like octopuses and cuttlefish, are often featured in aquariums, they do not have arms or spines radiating from the center of their bodies. Instead, they typically have a soft body, and many possess a hard shell. Mollusks are found both in marine and freshwater environments, and some are even terrestrial. (Option (a) is incorrect)
• Crustaceans are a large group of arthropods that include species like crabs, lobsters, shrimp, and barnacles. While they are marine animals, they do not have arms or spines radiating from the center of their body. Crustaceans are characterized by their segmented bodies, hard exoskeletons, and jointed appendages. They are also commonly found in marine environments and are often featured in aquariums, but their body structure does not match the description provided. (Option (b) is incorrect)
• Protozoa are single-celled microscopic organisms, usually found in water or soil. They do not have complex body structures like arms or spines, nor are they typically featured in aquariums. Protozoa are a diverse group of organisms that are part of the broader category of protists, and they do not exhibit the physical traits described in the question. (Option (c) is incorrect)

Echinoderms are a group of marine animals that include species such as starfish (sea stars), sea urchins, sand dollars, and sea cucumbers. They are known for their radial symmetry, where their body parts (arms or spines) radiate from a central point, typically in multiples of five. Echinoderms are often featured in aquariums and are easily recognizable due to their unique body structure. They play significant roles in marine ecosystems and are exclusively found in marine environments. (Option (d) is correct)

Solution: (b)

Statement Analysis: 

• Statement 1 is correct: Banni grasslands lie in the Kutch district of Gujarat, India. It forms a transitional zone between the Thar Desert to the north and the Arabian Sea to the south, creating a mosaic of arid and semi-arid ecosystems. The Banni grassland in Gujarat‟s Kachchh district is one of the largest grasslands in the Indian subcontinent with an area of over 2500 sq.km
• Statement 2 is correct: Banni grasslands cover 2,497 square kilometers and account for over 45% of Gujarat’s pastures. Bannis is classified as a Dichanthium-Cenchrus-Lasiurus grass cover because it combines two ecosystems: wetlands and grasslands. These grasslands support a diverse range of flora and wildlife, including plants, birds, animals, reptiles, and amphibians. A huge freshwater lake locally known as Chhari-Dhand (Dhand means a shallow lake) is a prominent feature of the Banni grassland.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Maldharis tribe breed cattle, camels and smaller ruminants like goats and sheep. They are concentrated mainly in the eastern Kutch as well as in western Kutch which includes Banni, Asia’s largest grassland. Maldharis dominates the banni grassland.

Statement 4 is correct: The Central government has approved a proposal to set up a cheetah conservation breeding center in Kutch district. Banni grassland used to be the habitat of cheetahs, which became extinct over time.

Solution: (d)

Statement Analysis: 

• • Ocean acidification refers to the process of decrease in pH level of the oceans, primarily driven by the increased uptake of Carbon Dioxide (CO2) gasses from the atmosphere. When CO2 is absorbed by seawater, a series of chemical reactions occur resulting in the increased concentration of hydrogen ions. This process has far reaching implications for the ocean and the creatures that live there.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Eutrophication process in the Ocean can increase the acidity of the Ocean. Eutrophication leads to large algal blooms and the algae eventually dies and sinks to the bottom of the oceans. Bacteria which feed on these dead algae consume oxygen and release CO2 into the Ocean. This increase in CO2 causes an increase in hydrogen ions and decrease in pH level of the ocean thus causes ocean acidification.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Sulphur dioxide (SO2) emissions from ships can further ocean acidification with a rate that is twofold with respect to that caused by carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions.

• Statement 3 is correct: Over extended periods, gradual changes in the carbon cycle can impact ocean acidity across thousands to millions of years. For instance, a sustained rise in volcanic activity will elevate atmospheric CO2 levels, consequently intensifying ocean acidity.

Statement 4 is correct: Changes in ocean circulation patterns can affect the pH of surface waters. Upwelling, for example, transports water from deep inside the ocean to the top. Deep waters are more acidic than surface waters because the CO2 produced by deep-sea organisms during respiration is not used by photosynthesis due to the lack of sunlight in the deep.

Solution: (a)

Statement Analysis: 

• Biomes are large geographical areas. Biomes are defined as “the world’s major communities, classified according to the predominant vegetation and characterized by adaptations of organisms to that particular environment”. Biomes are also defined by factors such as plant structures (such as trees, shrubs, and grasses), leaf types (such as broadleaf and needleleaf), plant spacing (forest, woodland, savanna), and climate
• Freshwater biome consists of the lakes, ponds, rivers, streams, and wetlands. The marine regions include oceans, coral reefs and estuaries. 
• Marine regions cover about three-fourths of the Earth’s surface. It includes oceans, coral reefs, and estuaries. The largest of all the ecosystems, oceans are very large bodies of water that dominate the Earth’s surface
• Estuaries and coral reefs are examples of desert habitats (Hence 3,4,6 are not correct)

Grasslands, Deserts and Tropical rainforest are the examples of Biome. (Hence 1,2 and 5 are correct)

Solution :(c)

Statement Analysis: 

• Autecology is the study of individual species or individuals in relation to the environment. (Hence Statement 1 is incorrect)

• Synecology is the study of the community of living organisms as a unit. (Hence Statement 2 is incorrect).

• An example of Autecology is side effects of acid rain to a pond ecosystem. (Hence Statement 3 is incorrect).

Solution :(b)

Statement Analysis: 

• • Rhizophora mangle is the scientific name of Red mangrove. Rhizophora racemosa is the dominant species. It is the pioneer at the edge of the alluvial salt swamp. It typically grows along the water’s edge and is easily identifiable by its tangled, reddish ‘prop-roots’.

• Avicennia germinans is the scientific name of Black mangrove. Avicennia germinans tend to be found in the more coastal areas. Avicennia germinans is characterized by numerous finger-like projections, called pneumatophores, which protrude from the soil around the tree’s trunk

• Laguncularia racemosa is the scientific name of White mangrove. Laguncularia racemosa has no visible aerial roots and is most easily identified by its leaves. They are elliptical, light yellow green, and have two distinguishing glands at the base of the leaf where it meets the stem. This species tends to occupy higher elevations farther upland than either the red or black mangroves.

•  Conocarpus erectus is the scientific name of Buttonwood mangrove. Conocarpus erectus is in the same family as the white mangrove. The name is derived from the button-like appearance of the dense, rounded flower heads that grow in a branched cluster, and the purplish-green, round, cone-like fruit

• Mangroves support livelihoods in providing habitat for food species, timber for dwellings, cooking and heat, and many other subsistence and commercial activities. Mangroves also provide protection of the coastline from erosion and storm surges.
• The first global attempt to document the status of the mangrove resource, the World Mangrove Atlas, was published in 1997 by the International Society for Mangrove Ecosystems (ISME), financed by ITTO and in partnership with UNEP-WCMC. The information for Africa was updated by UNEP-WCMC in the publication Mangroves of East Africa (2003). This report provides a profile for the 19 countries of the region from Mauritania south to Angola

Solution: (b)

Statement Analysis: 

• Statement one is not correct: The Union Cabinet approved Mission Mausam on September 11, 2024, with a budget outlay of 2,000 crores over two years, is an ambitious initiative of the Government of India
• Statement two is correct: Mission Mausam has the goal of making Bharat a “Weather-ready and Climate-smart” nation, so as to mitigate the impact of climate change and extreme weather events and strengthen the resilience of the communities. Currently the Mission Mausam will be implemented during 2024-26 and it seeks to exponentially enhance the country’s weather and climate observations, understanding, modelling and forecasting, leading to better, more useful, accurate and timely services.
• Statement three is not correct: Three institutes of the Ministry Earth Science: IMD, NCMRWF and the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, will primarily implement Mission Mausam. These institutions will be supported by other Ministry Earth Science institutions (Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services and National Institute of Ocean Technology) along with collaborating national and international institutes, academia and industries, furthering India’s leadership in weather and climate sciences and services.

Statement four is correct: According to the secretary of the Ministry of Earth Science, Mission Mausam will improve forecasts on both spatial and temporal scales and air quality data and help strategize weather management/intervention in the long run. “By March 2026, we are looking at installing a wider network of radars, wind profilers, and radiometers for better observations.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Union Environment Minister announced three new Ramsar sites in Tamil Nadu and Madhya Pradesh earlier this month, taking the total of such sites in India to 85. The new additions are the Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary the Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary in Tamil Nadu, and the Tawa Reservoir in Madhya Pradesh.

The sites/places designated as Ramsar Sites are:

• Karaivetti Bird Sanctuary
• Nanjarayan Bird Sanctuary 
• Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve
• Kazhuveli Bird Sanctuary 
• Longwood Shola Reserve Forest 
• Tawa Reservoir 

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation has granted approval to Siemens Healthineers for the manufacture of RT-PCR testing kits for the detection of Mpox, a senior Health Ministry official said.

• The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO) is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India for the medical devices industry. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is constituted under the provisions of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules.

Under the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, CDSCO is responsible for,

• Approval of New Drugs;
• Conduct of Clinical Trials;
• Laying down the standards for Drugs;
• Control over the quality of imported Drugs in the country;
• Coordination of the activities of State Drug Control Organizations;

• It works under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• CDSCO, along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for the grant of licenses of certain specialized categories of critical Drugs such as blood and blood products, I. V. Fluids, Vaccine, and Sera.

Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is the head of the CDSCO. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The India-Brazil strategic partnership has “deepened and diversified” over the years and now spans a very wide range of domains, including defence, space, security, technology, and people-to-people relations, the External Affairs Minister said.

Brazil is bordered by Uruguay, Argentina, Paraguay, Bolivia, Peru, Columbia, Venezuela, Guyana, Suriname, and French Guiana. Hence option d is correct.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The government has banned 156 fixed-dose combinations (FDC) drugs, including popular medicines such as Cheston Cold and Foracet, used for cold fever and pain respectively.

• Fixed-Dose Combination Drugs are combinations of two or more active drugs in a single dosage form. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They reduce the number of pills the patient needs to take each day, and help improve adherence to the treatment. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• They are meant for patients with conditions such as tuberculosis and diabetes for which they need to take multiple medicines regularly. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: With the availability of game-changing new treatments, India must recast its TB-elimination programmes.

• Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by a bacterium known as Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is a serious infectious and contagious disease that generally affects the lungs.
• TB bacteria spread through the air from one person to another.
• Isoniazid (INH), Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide, and Ethambutol (HRZE) are used to treat it. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The National Tuberculosis Elimination Programme(NTEP) aims to strategically reduce the TB burden in India by 2025. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The current outbreak of Chandipura virus (CHPV) infection in India is considered the largest in the past 20 years and while authorities are making efforts to control the transmission of CHPV, further transmission is possible in the coming weeks, considering the favourable conditions for vector populations during the monsoon season in affected areas, warned the World Health Organisation (WHO) in its latest disease outbreak news on acute encephalitis syndrome due to Chandipura virus (India).

• Chandipura Virus (CHPV) Infection is transmitted by various species of sandflies. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The CHPV is an arbovirus that belongs to the Vesiculovirus genus in the Rhabdoviridae family.
• CHPV was first identified in Chandipura village of Maharashtra in 1965 during a dengue outbreak. 
• The infection remains endemic in central India, especially in rural and tribal areas with higher sandfly populations. 
• It primarily affects children under 15 years old. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• The virus resides in the salivary glands of these insects and is transmitted through their bites. CHPV can infect the central nervous system, potentially leading to encephalitis, an inflammation of the brain’s active tissues.
• Symptoms resemble flu, including fever, body aches, and headache. It can cause altered mental state, seizures, encephalitis, respiratory distress, bleeding tendencies, and anaemia in advanced stages.

Currently, there is no specific antiviral treatment or vaccine for CHPV. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The orcas have struck again — this time ramming a sailboat off Spain’s northwest coast.

Orcas were given the name ‘killer whale’ by ancient sailors’ observations of groups of orcas hunting and preying on larger whale species. They are the largest member of the 

Delphinidae family or dolphins. They are highly social, and most live in social groups called pods. They rely on underwater sound to feed, communicate, and navigate. Hence option b is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: India will soon wear a grand necklace of Industrial Smart Cities as in a landmark decision, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs chaired by the Prime Minister has approved 12 new project proposals under the National Industrial Corridor Development Programme (NICDP) with an estimated investment of Rs. 28,602 crore. 

• The National Industrial Corridor Development Programme (NICDP) aims to facilitate investments from both large anchor industries and Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs). Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It is India’s most ambitious infrastructure programme aiming to develop new industrial cities as “Smart Cities” and converge next-generation technologies across infrastructure sectors.
• It is serving as a catalyst to achieve the government’s ambitious goal of $2 trillion in exports by 2030. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
• Under this programme, the newly sanctioned industrial areas are Khurpia in Uttarakhand, Rajpura-Patiala in Punjab, Dighi in Maharashtra, Palakkad in Kerala, Agra and Prayagraj in Uttar Pradesh, Gaya in Bihar, Zaheerabad in Telangana, Orvakal and Kopparthy in Andhra Pradesh, and Jodhpur-Pali in Rajasthan.
• The development of these industrial cities is envisioned as greenfield smart cities built to global standards, embodying the ‘plug-n-play’ and ‘walk-to-work’ concepts. This innovative approach ensures that the cities will be equipped with advanced infrastructure designed to support sustainable and efficient industrial operations.
• It is implemented by the National Industrial Corridor Development and Implementation Trust (NICDIT). Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Government has adopted Gender Budgeting as a strategy to incorporate a gender perspective in all stages of policymaking.

• The Gender Budget Statement was introduced in the 2005-06 Budget and is structured into three main parts. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They are:

• Part A: This section includes schemes and programs that have 100% allocation specifically for women.
• Part B: This part covers schemes with more than 30% but less than 100% of their allocations directed towards women.
• Part C: Introduced recently, this section reports pro-women schemes that have less than 30% provisioning for women.

• In the 2024-25 budget, the share of allocations to pro-women schemes has increased to approximately 6.8% of the total budget expenditure. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Waldrapp has been on the brink of extinction over the past few decades. However, conservationists have recently employed an innovative method known as the “Airborne Foster Parents Approach” to reintroduce these birds into the wild.

Recently in the news, Waldrapp is a bird. It is also known as the Northern Bald Ibis and is a unique and rare bird with a distinctive look and important conservation status. It is a Medium-sized bird, about 70 to 80 cm long. It has a wingspan ranging from 125 to 135 cm. It has a bald red head and a long, curved red bill. Its feathers are mostly black with a shiny green or purple tint. It was originally found across Europe, North Africa, and the Middle East. Now, they are mostly found in small areas of Morocco and Turkey. They prefer semi-dry areas near rivers or coastal cliffs and like open spaces with little vegetation to find food easily. They live in groups and are known for their grunting and croaking sounds. They feed mainly on the ground, using their long bill to find insects, worms, and other small animals. Sometimes, they also eat small reptiles, amphibians, and plants. They breed in colonies, often on cliffs or high places. They also build nests with sticks and line them with grass. They form strong, lasting pairs with a single mate. They are listed as endangered on the IUCN Red List due to major population declines. Hence option d is correct.

Solution (b) 

Statement Analysis:

Statement (a) is incorrect. According to the passage, wildfires are a natural phenomenon.  They may be caused even without climate change. Human activities and climate change have increased their scale and intensity. Even if the statement is partially correct on its own, it is not the best implied crux of the passage. 

Statement (b) is correct. The entire passage is based on the occurrence and the reasons for intensification of the wildfires. The passage mentions that greenhouse gas emission will intensify the occurrence of wildfires. The greenhouse gases emitted by human activity are responsible for climate change, which in turn is responsible for intensification of wildfires. Furthermore, their adverse consequences and relatively high intensity in wildland-urban interface should be carefully studied to minimise the damages. Hence, it is a correct option. 

Statement (c) is incorrect. The passage mentions that such events are harmful and disastrous for human health and the environment.  It is a correct statement but cannot be the crux of the entire passage.  

Statement (d) is incorrect. According to the passage, the place where an intersection of urban areas and wild land occurs, are the areas where risk of wildfire is very noticeable. It is a correct statement but does not reflect the crux of the passage.

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

A  Given number: x959y 

Here, 44 = 11 × 4 

∴ The number must be divisible by 4 and 11 respectively. 

Divisibility test of 4 says that 9y must be divisible by 4 and since y > 5, so y = 6 

Again x9596 is divisible by 11, so:  x + 5 + 6 = 9 + 9  x = 7 Thus x = 7, y = 6 Hence, option (a) is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation: 

(5! X 4! X 2! X 3!) / 11!

= 24 x 2 x 6 / 11 x 10 x 9 x 8 x 7 x 6

= 1/1155

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

X, Y, Z are in A.P. Let the common difference between them is d then following cases are possible.

Case 1: When d = 1, no triplet possible.

Case 2: When d= 2, possible triplet is (3, 5, 7). Sum = 15

Case 3: When d= 3, no triplet possible.

Case 4: When d= 4, possible triplet is (3, 7, 11).

Sum = 21

Case 5: When d= 5, no triplet possible.

Case 6: When d = 6, possible triplet is (5, 11, 17),

(7, 13, 19). 

Sum = 33, 39

Case 7: When d= 7, no triplet possible.

Case 8: When d= 8, possible triplet is (3, 11, 19).

Sum = 33

For d > 8 no triplet possible. Hence, we see that the possible sums for X, Y and Z are 15, 21, 33 & 39

respectively. 

Hence, a total of 4 possibilities.

Solution (a)

Explanation: 

Let the total number of cars and bikes parked in the basement be ‘a‘ and  ‘b‘ respectively. 

As we know that a car and a bike have four and two wheels respectively. 

Therefore, total number of wheels = 4a + 2b 

Also, it is given that the total number of wheels is 70 more than twice the number of parked vehicles. 

Accordingly,  

4a + 2b = 2(a + b) + 70 

On simplifying we get,  a = 35. 

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.