[DAY 14] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

• • An adjournment motion is introduced only in the Lok Sabha to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance.
  • It is regarded as an extraordinary device as it interrupts the normal business of the House. It needs the support of 50 members to be admitted.
  • The discussion on this motion should last for not less than two hours and thirty minutes.

• An adjournment motion is not permitted in the Rajya Sabha. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• Because it involves censure against the government. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

The right to move a motion for an adjournment of the business of the House is subject to the following restrictions. It should:

• Raise a matter that is definite, factual, urgent, and of public importance.
• Not cover more than one matter.
• Be restricted to a specific matter of recent occurrence.
• Not raise a question of privilege.
• Not revive discussion on a matter that has been discussed in the same session.
• Not deal with any matter that is under adjudication of court.

Not raise any question that can be raised on a distinct motion

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

The election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:

• The election of the Speaker is held on a date fixed by the President. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
• All the Speakers in independent India have been elected unopposed except the 18th Lok Sabha Speaker. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Since independence, the Lok Sabha Speaker and Deputy Speaker have been elected by consensus between the ruling party and the opposition.
• The 18th Lok Sabha is the first time that elections will be held for the Speaker of the lower house. 
• The Speaker is elected by a simple majority, taking into account the number of MPs present and voting. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The rules for electing the Speaker are laid down in Article 93 of the Constitution. All the members of the Lok Sabha will choose the Speaker by casting their votes in a secret ballot.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Zero Hour is an Indian parliamentary innovation. It commences directly after the question hour and extends until the commencement of the day’s agenda, signifying the interval between the two. Under this, Members of Parliament (MP) can raise matters without any prior notice. Hence, option d is correct.

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

• Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional bodies which means they are not mentioned in the Constitution. 
• They are mentioned in the Rules of Business. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Cabinet committees are of two types–standing and ad hoc. Standing committees are of a permanent nature, while the latter is of a temporary nature.
• The composition of cabinet committees in India can range from three to eight members, which typically consist of only Cabinet Ministers. However, non-cabinet ministers may also be appointed as members. Additionally, senior ministers, who are not in charge of the subjects discussed in the committee, may also be included. 
• All cabinet committees except the Cabinet Committee on Accommodation and the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs are usually headed by the Prime Minister. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Cabinet Committee on Accommodation is headed by the Home Minister and Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is headed by the Defence Minister.

They are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

• The Prime Minister is described as the “keystone of the cabinet arch”. Because the Prime Minister is given absolute power in the formation and composition of the Council of Ministers. Hence, option d is correct.
• The Prime Minister is the head of the government and leader of the Council of Ministers. He is the chief of the executive branch of the Union Government.
• The Prime Minister is also known as “a moon among lesser stars”, “the captain of the ship of the state”, and “the steersman of the steering wheel of the ship of the state”.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

• The Constitution of India under Article 78 states that it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister of India to communicate all the decisions taken by the Council of Ministers with regard to the proposals for legislation and the administration of the Union’s affairs. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The Prime Minister of India advises the President in the matters of the appointment of important officials like the Attorney General of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, UPSC chairman and members, Election Commissioners, Chairman and members of the Finance Commission, etc.  Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

If the President of India requires that the Prime Minister shall submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister, but which has not been considered by the Council. Hence, Statement 3 is correct

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

• The President of India is an integral part of the Parliament. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament and does not sit in the Parliament to attend its meetings.
• A bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the President’s assent. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The President summons and pro-rogues both Houses dissolves the Lok Sabha, addresses both Houses, and so on.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• The President appoints a member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Term. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Usually, the senior most member of the house is made the pro-term speaker.
• The Speaker Pro Term presides over the first sitting of the newly elected Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• When the new Speaker is elected by the House, the office of the Speaker Pro Term ceases to exist.
• The President administers the oath to the Speaker Pro Term. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The main duty of the Speaker Pro Term is to administer oaths to new members of the Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• The Speaker Pro Term conducts the vote for the speaker, and deputy speaker, and administers the floor test.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

The ‘Watch and Ward Committee’ is related to parliament Security. It was set up after the incident of 8th April 1929, when revolutionaries Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw bombs and pamphlets into the Assembly under the initiative of Vithalbhai Patel, president of the Central Legislative Assembly. Its name was changed to Parliament Security Service (PSS) in 2009 which is under the control of the Speaker. Hence, option c is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• The Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is an ad-hoc committee, established by the Parliament to conduct a thorough examination of a specific subject or bill. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

• • The Parliament determines the composition of the JPC, and there is no set limit on the number of members.

• It consists of members from both Houses as well as from the ruling and opposition parties. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

• The committee is dissolved after completing its term or task.
• The committee’s recommendations are advisory and not mandatory for the government to follow.
• It is chaired by a member of the Lok Sabha appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

The JPC has the authority to gather evidence from experts, public bodies, associations, individuals, or interested parties either on its own initiative or in response to their requests.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

• Delimitation means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body. The job of delimitation is assigned to a high-power body which is known as the Delimitation Commission or a Boundary Commission. 
• The copies of its orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called into question before any court. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India on this behalf.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

• Under the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague – Chelmsford Reforms), the posts of Speaker and Deputy Speaker were established in India in 1921. Hence, option d is correct.
• Until 1947, the Speaker and Deputy Speaker were known as the President and Deputy President, respectively. 
• The Governor-General of India selected Frederick Whyte and Sachidanand Sinha as the first Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly, respectively, in 1921. 
• Vithalbhai J. Patel was the first Indian and first elected Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly (in 1925).

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

• A whip is a written order that party members be present for an important vote, or that they vote only in a particular way. Parties appoint a senior member from among their House contingents to issue whips – this member is called a Chief Whip. The Chief Whip is assisted by additional Whips. 
• The ‘whip’ is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House nor a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• During Presidential elections, whips cannot direct a Member of Parliament (MP) or Member of Legislative Assembly (MLA) on whom to vote. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Types of Whip :

• One-line whip is underlined once, is usually issued to inform party members of a vote, and allows them to abstain in case they decide not to follow the party line. 
• Two-line whip directs the party members to be present during the vote. No special instructions are given on the pattern of voting. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
• A three-line whip is employed on important occasions such as the second reading of a Bill or a no-confidence motion and places an obligation on members to vote as per the party line. 

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

• The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is India’s bicameral Parliament’s upper house. It has a maximum membership of 250) of which 238 are elected by state and union territory legislatures using single transferable votes via open ballots, while the president can select 12 members for their contributions to art, literature, science, and social services. 
• The Constitution has not fixed the term of office of members of the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Accordingly, the Parliament in the Representation of the People Act (1951) provided that the term of office of a member of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. 
• The Rajya Sabha was first time constituted in 1952. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It is a continuing chamber, meaning it is an ongoing entity that cannot be dissolved. However, every two years, one-third of its members retire. 

In the first batch of the Rajya Sabha, it was decided by lottery as to who should retire. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• Bills introduced in the Parliament are of two kinds – Public Bills and Private Bills. Private Bills cannot be introduced by any member of Parliament. Ministers cannot introduce private bills in the Parliament. 
• Bills introduced by the Ministers in the Parliament are called Public Bills. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Rejection of a Private Bill by the House has no implication on the parliamentary confidence in the government or its resignation. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The rejection of the Public Bill by the House reflects the loss of parliamentary confidence in the government and may lead to its resignation. 
• The introduction of a Public Bill in the House requires only seven days’ notice. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The introduction of a Private Bill in the House requires one month’s notice. 
• While a Public Bill can be introduced and discussed on any day, a private bill can only be introduced and discussed on Fridays.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• The Leader of Opposition (LoP) has statutory recognition through the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act 1977. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The Leader of Opposition is not mentioned in the Constitution. 
• The official leader of the opposition was recognised for the first time in 1969 in India. The main functions of the Leader of Opposition (LoP) is to provide an alternative government and constructive criticism of the policies of the government. 
• The Leader of Opposition is entitled to the salary, allowances, and other facilities equivalent to that of a cabinet minister. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• According to a conventional understanding, in order to get the post of Leader of Opposition a party must have at least 10% of MPs in the House.

Currently, the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have their own Leader of Opposition. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

• The vacation of a member’s seat in the House of Parliament refers to the situation when a member’s seat becomes vacant due to various reasons such as resignation, absence from meetings without permission, disqualification, or defection. 
• A Member of Parliament can choose to resign by submitting a written letter to the respective Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The seat becomes vacant once the resignation is accepted. However, if the Chairman/Speaker believes that the resignation is not voluntary or genuine, they have the authority to reject it. 
• If a Member of Parliament is absent from all its meetings for a continuous period of sixty days without permission, the House has the authority to declare their seat vacant. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The calculation of the sixty days excludes any period when the House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four consecutive days. 
• When a Member of Parliament becomes subject to any of the disqualifications mentioned in the Constitution, their seat becomes vacant. 

The disqualifications cover a range of conditions, including defection as outlined in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

• Vote on Credit is a financial gift given to executives to address urgent financial needs.
• It is granted for meeting an unexpected demand upon the resources of India when on account of the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in a budget. Hence, it is like a blank cheque given to the Executive by the Lok Sabha.
• Vote on Account refers to the central government’s short-term expenditure requirements. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• It can be used by both regular and caretaker governments. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

It is a financial provision mentioned in Article 116 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• The Member of Parliament takes the oath of office to 

• bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India 
• uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
• faithfully discharge the duty upon which he/she is about to enter. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

• The Members of Parliament (MP) take an oath before the President of India or some person appointed by him for this purpose. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Unless a Member of Parliament (MP) takes an oath, he/she cannot vote and participate in the proceedings of the House and does not become eligible for parliamentary privileges and immunities. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• Joint Sitting is an extraordinary machinery provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses over the passage of a bill. 
• The Joint Sitting is governed by the Rules of Procedure of Lok Sabha and not of Rajya Sabha. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses and the Deputy Speaker, in his absence. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
•  If the Deputy Speaker is also absent from a joint sitting, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides. If he is also absent, such other person as may be determined by the members present at the joint sitting presides over the meeting. 
• The Chairman of Rajya Sabha does not preside over a joint sitting as he is not a member of either House of Parliament. 
• The quorum to constitute a joint sitting is one-tenth of the total number of members of the two Houses. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• According to new researches, the majestic rings of Saturn will disappear; though only briefly in March 2025. In this context, Saturn as a planet and the space missions launched to study Saturn become important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• Cassini was a sophisticated robotic spacecraft sent to study Saturn and its complex system of rings and moons in unprecedented detail. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• Cassini was one of the most ambitious efforts ever mounted in planetary exploration. It was a joint endeavour of NASA, ESA (the European Space Agency), and the Italian space agency (ASI). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Saturn is not the only planet in our Solar System that has rings. Interestingly, each of the four gas giants, viz. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune possess their own ring system. But Saturn’s rings are the biggest and the brightest. Even the Earth had a small ring system in the distant past, and Mars may be getting one in the far future. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, RBI introduced the Unified Lending Interface (ULI) platform for seamless credit access, leveraging digital data for quick loan approvals and disbursements. In this context, the features of ULI become important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• Unified Lending Interface (ULI) is a platform that facilitates the seamless flow of a customer’s digitised financial and non-financial data from multiple data service providers to lenders, making credit underwriting seamless and customer journeys frictionless for a diverse range of borrowers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It will bring down the time taken for credit appraisal, especially for smaller and rural borrowers without any credit history. It will also will reduce the complexity of multiple technical integrations besides enabling borrowers to get the benefit of seamless delivery of credit and quicker turnaround time without requiring extensive and time-consuming documentation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 Solution (c)

Context:

• The increased focus of Global Digital Compact (GDC) on digital trust and security is referred as the key to the future of internet. In the context of its recently held meeting, the GDC becomes an important topic for UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Global Digital Compact is part of the Pact for the Future, which will be discussed and adopted at the UN Summit of the Future in September 2024. The objective of this compact is to ensure that digital technologies are used responsibly and for the benefit of all, while addressing the digital divide and fostering a safe and inclusive digital environment. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The GDC aims to build a collaborative multi-stakeholder framework that strives to address the digital divide, advance the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), and create a secure and inclusive digital environment. It also seeks to strengthen the international governance of emerging technologies, including AI, to ensure that they align with fundamental rights and values. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

 Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, Goods Trade Barometer was released by WTO which gave inputs about trends regarding world trade. In this context, basic information about it can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

The Goods Trade Barometer was formerly known as the World Trade Outlook Indicator. It is developed by the World Trade Organization and provides “real-time” information on trends in world trade. A reading of 100 indicates trade expansion in line with recent trends. Readings greater than 100 suggest above-trend growth while readings below 100 indicate below-trend growth. This Barometer is updated on a quarterly basis. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Recently, the Supreme Court asked Himachal Pradesh HC collegium to reconsider names of two judicial officers for elevation as Judges.

Explanation:

• In the Second Judges Case, 1993 (Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association Vs Union of India), a nine-judge Constitution Bench overruled the decision given in First Judges Case, 1981 (SP Gupta Case) and devised a specific procedure called ‘Collegium System’ for the appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The Supreme Court collegium is headed by the CJI (Chief Justice of India) and comprises four other senior most judges of the court. A High Court collegium is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and two other senior most judges of that court. Judges of the higher judiciary are appointed only through the collegium system and the government has a role only after names have been decided by the collegium. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) was a constitutional body proposed to replace the long-standing Collegium system of appointing judges. The NJAC was established by amending the Constitution [The Constitution (Ninety-Ninth Amendment) Act, 2014] but in 2015, the Supreme Court rejected the National Judicial Appointments Commission and the 99th Constitutional Amendment Act. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• Quoting the examples of Fatehpur Sikri in Agra and Atala Masjid in Jaunpur, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) told a Parliamentary panel that having protected monuments which are also notified as Waqf property give rise to conflicts and administrative issues. The ASI made this argument during its submission to a joint committee holding consultations on the Waqf (Amendment) Bill, 2024.

Explanation:

• The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) was founded in 1861 by Alexander Cunningham- the first Director-General of ASI. Alexander Cunningham is also known as the “Father of Indian Archaeology.” During the time of Lord Curzon, the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act of 1904 was passed. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• For the maintenance of ancient monuments and archaeological sites and remains of national importance the entire country is divided into 36 Circles. These carry out archaeological fieldwork, research activities and implement the various provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (AMASR) Act, 1958 and Antiquities and Art Treasures Act, 1972. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

It functions under the Ministry of Culture, is the premier organization for the archaeological research and protection of the cultural heritage of the nation. It administers more than 3650 ancient monuments, archaeological sites and remains of national importance. Its activities include carrying out surveys of antiquarian remains, exploration and excavation of archaeological sites, conservation and maintenance of protected monuments etc. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• In its first post-election meeting, held after a gap of five months in July end, the standing committee of the National Board for Wildlife (SC-NBWL) has cleared projects such as a transmission line in Little Rann of Kutch, a controversial transmission line project in Goa’s Mollem national park as well as a clutch of infrastructure projects in tiger corridors of central India, among others.

Explanation:

• National Board for Wildlife is a statutory Board constituted officially in 2003 under the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. It serves as an apex body for the review of all wildlife-related matters and for the approval of projects in and around national parks and sanctuaries. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• The National Board for Wildlife is chaired by the Prime Minister and is responsible for promotion of conservation and development of wildlife and forests. The standing committee of the board is chaired by the Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The National Board for Wildlife is ‘advisory’ in nature and can only advise the Government on policy making for conservation of wildlife. However, without the approval or recommendation of the NBWL, construction of tourist lodges, alteration of the boundaries of Protected Areas, destruction or diversion of wildlife habitat and de-notification of Tiger Reserves, cannot be done. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, SpaceX launched its daring Polaris Dawn mission, a multiday orbital expedition carrying a four-member civilian crew for the first spacewalk by non-professional astronauts.

Explanation:

• The Polaris Dawn mission aims to revolutionise commercial spaceflight with a high-orbit mission and the first-ever private spacewalk by non-professional astronauts. It is set to be the first non-governmental mission to conduct a spacewalk, reaching an unprecedented altitude of approximately 700 kilometres (435 miles) above Earth. This altitude surpasses that of the International Space Station (ISS), which orbits at about 400 kilometres. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• SpaceX will provide the Falcon 9 rocket and Dragon capsule for the mission. The spacecraft will attempt to break the altitude record set by NASA’s Gemini 11 mission in 1966, which reached 1,373 kilometres. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Polaris Dawn is set to be the first of three missions under the Polaris program, a collaboration between Isaacman, the founder of tech company Shift4 Payments, and billionaire Elon Musk’s SpaceX. The mission is spearheaded by billionaire entrepreneur Jared Isaacman, who previously financed and flew on SpaceX’s Inspiration4 mission, the first civilian mission to orbit Earth. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• The Union Health Ministry has approved the introduction of a new treatment regimen known as BPaLM regimen for drug-resistant tuberculosis in India.

Explanation:

The BPaLM regimen consisting of four drugs- Bedaquiline, Pretomanid, Linezolid and Moxifloxacin has proven to be a safe, more effective and quicker treatment option than the previous Multidrug-Resistant Tuberculosis (MDR-TB) treatment procedure. It will help India to achieve the target of TB elimination by 2025, five years ahead of the global target for eliminating the disease under the Sustainable Development Goals. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Context:

• Recently, the Union Minister for Textiles, while inaugurating a conference and exhibition on technical textiles in New Delhi, said that the Annual export of technical textiles is likely to cross $10 billion by 2030. In this context, the technical textiles become important from the perspective of UPSC.

Explanation:

• • Technical textiles are defined as textile materials and products used primarily for their technical performance and functional properties rather than their aesthetic or decorative characteristics. The other terms used for defining technical textiles include industrial textiles, functional textiles, performance textiles, engineering textiles, invisible textiles, and hi-tech textiles. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The technical textiles can be manufactured using natural (cotton, wood, jute, silk, etc.) as well as man-made fibres (nomex, kevlar, spandex, twaron, etc). These are classified into 12 major groups based on their application areas, viz. Agrotech, Geotech, Buildtech, Mobiltech, Hometech, Clothtech, Indutech, Meditech, Sportstech, Protech, Packtech, and Oekotech. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The government of India has recognized the Technical Textile industry as a Sunrise sector within the other segments of textiles & Clothing in India. Technical textile accounts for approximately 13% of India’s total textile and apparel market and contributes to India’s GDP at 0.7%. There is a huge potential to fulfil a large demand gap as the consumption of technical textiles in India is still only at 5-10% against 30-70% in some of the advanced countries. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b) 

Statement analysis:

Option (a) is incorrect: The context of polar bears being shifted to other oceans is not a part of the passage. The passage is about climate change and its impact on polar bears. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.  

Option (b) is correct: The passage conveys that climate change has impacted polar bears and even threatened their survival. So, any policy for the Arctic Ocean must keep polar bears in focus. The lines “Conservation efforts, sustainable policies, and international cooperation are imperative to mitigate the melting of Arctic ice, safeguard the unique ecosystem, and ensure the survival of polar bears, emblematic creatures of the Arctic facing an uncertain future in the wake of climate-induced transformations” also carry the same essence. So, this is the most logical inference from the passage.  

Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not mention reversing climate change as the ‘only’ way to protect polar bears. It only mentions mitigation of climate change for the survival of polar bears in the lines “Conservation efforts, sustainable policies, and international cooperation are imperative to mitigate the melting of Arctic ice, safeguard the unique ecosystem, and ensure the survival of polar bears, emblematic creatures of the Arctic facing an uncertain future in the wake of climate-induced transformations.” Hence, this option is beyond the scope of the passage.   

Option (d) is incorrect: The passage is about polar bears and the impact of climate change on them. The passage does not mention that polar bears are keystone species. Therefore, this option is not correct.

Solution (a) 

Statement analysis:

Option (a) is correct: The option captures the main theme of the passage, which is the role of political maturity in strengthening democracy. It is visible in the lines “Democracy, a cornerstone of political systems, thrives when accompanied by political maturity among citizens … Political maturity acts as a stabilizing force, fostering constructive dialogue and conflict resolution, ensuring that democratic ideals withstand internal tensions and external pressures, and allowing nations to navigate challenges.” These lines reflect that political maturity plays an important role in strengthening democracy. Hence, this is the correct and best answer.  

Option (b) is incorrect: The option is not correct because it states that a mature democracy consists of a “biologically mature population” instead of saying a “politically mature population”. The central theme of the passage focusses upon the role of political maturity in making democracy stronger. So, this option is not the correct answer.  

Option (c) is incorrect: Refer to the lines “Striking a balance between individual rights and collective responsibility becomes paramount for the sustenance of a robust democracy.” The author clearly talks about balancing individual rights and collective responsibility. A democracy might become chaotic if there is no balance between individual rights and collective responsibility.  Hence, this option is not the correct answer.  

Option (d) is incorrect: The central theme of the passage is political maturity and its significance for strengthening democracy. However, the option talks about the elements of democracy, which is neither the main idea of the passage, nor is covered in the passage per se. Hence, this answer option is incorrect.  

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

30% of the work is done by A alone. It means A did 3/10 unit of work alone. 

33.33% of the work is done by B alone. It means B did 1/3 unit of work alone.  

Portion of work done by A and B together in 2 days = [1 – {(3/10) + (1/3)}  

= 1 – (19/30) = 11/30 

So, the portion of work done by A and B together in 1 day = 11/60 

It is given that B takes 20% more time than A. Let A completes a work in x days. Then B will complete the same work in 1.2x days.  

So, (1/x) + (1/1.2x) = 11/60 

Or (1/x) + (5/6x) = 11/60 

Or (11/6x) = 11/60 

Or x = 10 days 

B can complete the work in 1.2x days, i.e. 1.2 × 10 = 12 days So, option (a) is the correct answer.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

The figure:  

There are 3 horizontal lines, namely AG, BF, and CE. 

There are 3 vertical lines, namely AC, HD, and GE. 

There are 6 slant lines, namely AD, AE, GC, GD, CD, and ED. 

Thus, there are 3 + 3 + 6 = 12 straight lines in all. 

Hence, option (b) is the right answer.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

HCF of 160, 224, 96, 128, 192 and 64 = 32 

So, minimum number of buses required = (160 + 224 + 96 + 128 + 192 + 64)/32 = 864/32 = 27 Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.