Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Fission is the splitting of a heavy, unstable nucleus into two lighter nuclei, and fusion is the process where two light nuclei combine together releasing vast amounts of energy. Hence option a is incorrect. 
• Nuclear fission power plants have the disadvantage of generating unstable nuclei; some of these are radioactive for millions of years. Fusion on the other hand does not create any long-lived radioactive nuclear waste. Hence option b is correct. 
•  Nuclear fusion releases more energy than nuclear fission, but it is harder to achieve and sustain. The amount of energy released by a fusion reaction is proportional to the mass difference between the reactants and the products. Since the mass difference is larger for fusion than for fission, the energy output is also larger. Hence, the nuclear fusion is difficult to sustain because it requires extreme conditions to maintain the high temperatures and pressures needed for nuclear fusion to occur. Hence option c is incorrect.

 Nuclear Fusion reactions power the Sun and other stars. In a fusion reaction, two light nuclei merge to form a single heavier nucleus. The process releases energy because the total mass of the resulting single nucleus is less than the mass of the two original nuclei. The leftover mass becomes energy. Hence option d is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The Tarapur Atomic Power Station (T.A.P.S.) is situated in Tarapur, Maharashtra and holds the distinction of being the first commercial nuclear power station constructed in the country. The Plant has a current operational capacity of 1400 MW. Hence Pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
• Kaiga Nuclear reactor is located in Karnataka. It is located near the Kali River in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka. The plant is managed by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India with a current operational capacity of 880 MW. Hence Pair 2 is incorrectly matched.

Kakrapar nuclear reactor is located in Gujarat. It has an operational capacity of 1840 MW. Hence Pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Nuclear power is the use of nuclear reactions to produce electricity. Nuclear power is the second-largest source of low-carbon electricity today.
•  A major environmental concern related to nuclear power is the creation of radioactive wastes such as uranium mill tailings, spent (used) reactor fuel, and other radioactive wastes. These materials can remain radioactive and dangerous to human health for thousands of years.  Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The nuclear accidents does not commonly occur, but when it happens, it can lead to significant consequences to people and the environment. The prime example of a “major nuclear accident” is one in which a reactor core is damaged and significant amounts of radioactive isotopes are released in air, such as in the Chernobyl disaster in 1986 and Fukushima nuclear disaster in 2011.  Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• Used nuclear fuel has long been reprocessed to extract fissile materials for recycling and to reduce the volume of high-level wastes. A significant amount of plutonium recovered from used fuel is currently recycled into MOX fuel. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
• Storage and disposal of used fuel is a major hindrance in nuclear energy. Used nuclear fuel is kept in either wet or dry storage facilities, before being recycled or disposed of. When used fuel is taken out of a reactor, it is both hot and radioactive and requires storage in water to allow the fuel to cool. Hence Statement 4 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Neon is used in discharge tubes. Neon bulbs are used in botanical gardens and in green houses. It is also used to make high-voltage indicators and switching gear, lightning arresters, diving equipment and lasers. Hence Pair 1 is correct.
• Argon is used mainly to provide an inert atmosphere in high temperature metallurgical processes (arc welding of metals or alloys) and for filling electric bulbs. It is used in the laboratory for handling substances that are air-sensitive. Argon is one of the elements used in the welding industry as it provides an inert atmosphere in which welded metals will not oxidise. Hence Pair 2 is correct.

Xenon is used in many different ways, from high-intensity lamps to jet propellant. Xenon is the most common propellant used in ion propulsion. It is easily ionized and has a high atomic mass, thus generating a desirable level of thrust when ions are accelerated. It also is inert and has a high storage density; therefore, it is well suited for storing on spacecraft. Hence Pair 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Neutrinos can be produced in various situations. The Sun, and all other stars, produce neutrinos copiously due to nuclear fusion and decay processes within their core. There are many other natural sources of neutrinos including exploding stars (supernovae), relic neutrinos (from the birth of the universe), natural radioactivity, and cosmic ray interactions in the atmosphere of the Earth. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• A neutrino is a fermion that interacts only via the weak interaction and gravity. The neutrino is so named because it is electrically neutral and because its rest mass is very small. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• It can be artificially produced. Neutrinos can be produced by colliding a proton using a particle accelerator. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

These belong to the category of leptons. Leptons are the particles that interact through the so-called weak force. For this reason and because it is electrically neutral, neutrino interactions with matter are extremely rare. Quarks interact with the strong nuclear force. Protons and neutrons belong to the category of quarks. Hence Statement 4 is correct.

 Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Pressurised Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) uses natural Uranium as fuel. PHWRs not only produce energy from natural uranium but also produce fissile plutonium (Pu)-239. The Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) use plutonium-239 (and not thorium) for generating electricity. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• PHWR uses heavy water (deuterium oxide D2O) as its coolant and neutron moderator.  FBRs do not have a neutron moderator, and use less-moderating coolants such as liquid sodium, so its neutrons remain high-energy. Breeder reactors use a small core, which is important to sustain chain reactions. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• India has adopted a three-stage strategy of nuclear power generation. The first stage involves the use of natural uranium as a fuel, with heavy water as moderator. The Plutonium-239 obtained from reprocessing of the discharged fuel from the reactors then serves as a fuel for the second stage — the fast breeder reactors. The third stage, most significant in the long term, involves using fast breeder reactors to produce fissile Uranium-233 from Thorium-232 and to build power reactors based on them. Hence option 1 is correct. 
• Deuterium, a heavier isotope of Hydrogen is one of the components of the fuel used in a nuclear fusion reactor. Hence option 2 is correct.

 A Lithium Blanket is a covering consisting of Lithium which is wrapped around the vacuum chamber containing the plasma in a nuclear fusion reactor (called a Tokamak). This covering slows the neutrons converting their kinetic energy into heat energy which is absorbed by the coolant (like water) to ultimately power turbines for production of power. Hence option 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Bt cotton was the first GM crop approved in India in March 2002 for commercial cultivation. Bt. has been used as an insecticide to control stored grain pests in many other countries, including India, as sprays in cotton Integrated Pest Management (IPM) programs to control insects. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Bt cotton is a genetically modified (GM) cotton crop that expresses an insecticidal protein whose gene was derived from the soil bacterium (not fungus) Bacillus thuringiensis, also known as Bt. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The use of Bt Cotton has led to reduction in the use of pesticides and it has reduced the risk of poisoning people who apply pesticides or work in the fields and animals. Bt cotton has also increased yields through better pest control and has benefited adopting farmers in India and several other developing countries. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is responsible for appraisal of activities involving large scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production from the environmental angle. It is also responsible for appraisal of proposals relating to release of genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products into the environment including experimental field trials. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• GEAC is the statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The GEAC functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). It is chaired by the Special Secretary/Additional Secretary of MoEF&CC and co-chaired by a representative from the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

The transgenic crops are engineered to have enhanced growth and development, which can lead to faster maturity, higher yields and higher levels of essential nutrients, such as vitamins and minerals. They also require less inputs such as weedicides, pesticides, insecticides, etc. However, they tend to decrease the genetic diversity within a species, as they involve selective breeding of a small number of individuals with desired traits. The production of transgenic crops also does not promote sustainability in agriculture. Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Solution (c) 

Explanation:

Genetically modified (GM) is a technology that involves inserting DNA into the genome of an Organism. The cells are typically cultured in tissue culture after which they transform into plants. The modified DNA will be passed along to the seeds that these plants generate. 

Future conflicts may be avoided with the introduction of genetically engineered (GE) drought-tolerant crops that can tolerate longer and more intense droughts. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.

Nutritional improved GM crops being developed include wheat variants free of gluten, a common trigger for food allergies, and vegetables with increased iron and vitamin A levels to avoid common nutritional deficits in developing countries. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Genetically Engineered plants have not been created to enable them to be grown in spacecraft, space stations, and submarines to perform photosynthesis. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Israel has created transgenic, longer-lasting banana plants. They can slow down plant ageing and give fruits like tomatoes an extra week of shelf life. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Bollgard I (single-gene technology) is India’s first biotech crop technology (Genetically modified crop) approved for commercialization in India in 2002, followed by Bollgard II – (double-gene technology) in mid-2006.  Bollgard cotton has an insecticidal protein from a naturally occurring soil microorganism called Bacillus thuringiensis and offers built-in protection for cotton against destructive American Bollworm Heliothis Armigera infestations (Bt). The enhanced double-gene Cry1Ac and Cry2Ab technology found in Bollgard II technology protects against bollworms and Spodoptera caterpillars, improving boll retention, maximising yield, using fewer pesticides, and preventing insect resistance.

Hence, Option (b) is correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The combining of DNA fragments acquired from cells of different species cannot result in the creation of functional chromosomes. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.

In a lab, artificial functioning DNA fragments can be produced. Japanese researchers announced the creation of the first DNA molecule in the world that is almost entirely formed of synthetic components in 2007. Hence Statement 2 is correct 

In a lab, it is possible to get a portion of animal DNA to reproduce on its own outside of a living cell. It is done through the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technology. Hence Statement 3 is correct 

In a lab setting, Petri dishes can be used to induce cell division in isolated plant and animal cells. Plant cells are totipotent and a single cell has the capacity to divide through the process of mitosis in sterile conditions in a culture Petri dish to develop into a mature plant. Hence Statement 4 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation: 

Biomarkers is an application of biotechnology in the environment that responds to the chemicals to measure the effect of pollution caused. A biomarker may change biological responses starting from the molecular level through cellular and physiological responses or by behavioural changes, which may be associated with exposure to a toxic effect of environmental chemicals. Hence, Statement-1 is correct. 

Biofuels are usually applied in the industrial, domestic, and space sectors. In today’s life, the need for Clean Energy has increased. There are three types of biofuels: First-generation biofuels, second generation biofuels, and third-generation biofuels. First-generation biofuels include bio alcohol (corn, sugarcane), biodiesel, syngas, and biogas. Examples of second-generation biofuels are cellulosic, biofuels, bio hydrogen, and bioethanol. Algae fuel comes under third generation biofuels. Hence, Statement-2 is correct.

Solution: option (d) 

Explanation:

. Thorium about four times more abundant than uranium. Thorin can also produce about 8 times more energy per unit ma as compared to uranium.
Thorium also produces much lesser radioactive element because of the nature of its fuel cycle. Thorium exclusively allows thermal breeder reactors as opposed faster breeder. It means that if the fuel is re-process reactor could be fuelled without making any additional U-235 for reactivity boasts which means the nuclear can be extended by 2 orders of the magnitude with complications of fast reactors. Thorium produces harmful waste compare to uranium.

Hence correct answer is option (d).

Solution: option (b)

Explanation: 

 India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritisation and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with Russia.
During the visit of HE Vladimir Putin, President of Russian Federation to India, ‘Action Plan for Prioritisation and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ identified jointly by India and Russia was signed on 5th October, 2018 in New Delhi.
For the New Nuclear Project in India, Russia will offer the evolutionary WWER or VVER (Water-Water Energetic Reactor) generation ‘3+’ technical solutions.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Solution: option (b) 

Explanation:

In India, some nuclear reactors are kept under ‘IAEA safeguard’ while others are riot because some use imported uranium and others uses domestic supplies.
A total of 26 nuclear reactors of India are under the safeguard of IAEA. The decision to put the reactors under the safeguard of IAEA is based on the source of uranium used in
As Inthemot a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferatise Treaty, the reactors that are under IAEA’s safeguard use Imported uranium for civil peaceful purposes. The reactors India wants. for civil pe cosmetic uranium anywhere.

Hence option (b) is the correct answer.

Solution: option (b)

Explanation: 

Nuclear power plants are a type of power plant that uses the process of nuclear fission to generate electricity.

They use nuclear reactors in combination with the Rankine cycle, where the heat generated by the reactor converts water into steam, which spins a turbine and a generator.

The nuclear reactor is a key component of a nuclear power plant, as it contains the fuel and its nuclear fission chain reaction, along with all of the nuclear waste products.

A chain reaction refers to a process in which neutrons released in fission reaction produces an additional fission reaction in at least one further nucleus. This nucleus, in turn, produces neutrons, and the process repeats. The process may be controlled like in nuclear power or uncontrolled as in nuclear weapons.

Uranium is the dominant nuclear fuel used in nuclear reactors, and its fission reactions produce the heat within a reactor. This heat is then transferred to the reactor’s coolant, which provides steam to the turbine of the nuclear power plant.

Hence Option (b) is the correct answer.

Solution: option (c) 

Explanation:

Pu – 236 is an isotope of plutonium

Uranium-238 is the most common isotope of uranium found in nature, with a relative abundance of 99%. Unlike uranium-235, it is non-fissile, which means it cannot sustain a chain reaction in a thermal-neutron reactor.

Plutonium-244 is the most stable isotope of plutonium

Plutonium has several industrial uses, particularly in the nuclear industry. Plutonium-239 is primarily used as a fuel to power nuclear reactors.

Hence Option (c) is the correct answer.

Solution: option (a)

Explanation:

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Despite reporting an unusually high number of 19 cases of amoebic meningoencephalitis in five months, Kerala also managed to create a medical history of sorts because it managed to save 14 out of the 19 cases, bringing down the mortality rate of amoebic encephalitis, from the global rate of 97% to 26%. 

• Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM) is a disease caused usually by infection with Naegleria fowleri, a microscopic amoeba. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• Naegleria fowleri, commonly known as “brain-eating amoeba,” is a single-cell organism. It is found in a warm freshwater environment such as lakes, hot springs, and even in poorly maintained swimming pools. 
• It destroys brain tissue, causing severe brain swelling and death in most cases. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The amoeba enters the human body through the nose and then travels up to the brain. This can usually happen when someone goes for a swim, or dive, or even when they dip their head in a freshwater body. 
• It does not spread from person to person, nor does it manifest symptoms when contracted in other forms. 
• The infection is primarily associated with a warm freshwater environment, especially during hot summer months when water temperatures are higher. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The National Green Tribunal (NGT) observed that “not even a single effective step has been taken at the ground level for demarcation of the Yamuna floodplain on the 22-km stretch” from Wazirabad to Palla.

• Yamuna River is the major tributary of the Ganges River. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• It rises in the high Himalayas, in the Yamunotri Glacier, at a height of 4,421 meters. 
• The 1,376 km long Yamuna flows solely through India.
• It flows through Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, and Haryana. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Near Prayagraj (Allahabad), after a course of about 855 miles (1,376 km), the Yamuna joins the Ganges River. The confluence of the two rivers is an especially sacred place to Hindus and is the site of annual festivals as well as the Kumbh Mela, which is held every 12 years.
• It passes through Delhi, where it feeds the Agra Canal. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Near Dehradun, the capital city of Uttarakhand, the Yamuna is joined by its biggest tributary, the Tons River.
• The Chambal River is Yamuna’s biggest tributary on the right.

Its tributaries include the Hindon, Sarda, and Giri Rivers. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: As Manipur’s Tamenglong district gears up to welcome its winged guests, the Amur falcon (Falco Amurensis), the district administration imposed a ban on hunting, catching, killing, and selling of the bird, locally known as ‘Kahuaipuina’, with immediate effect.

• Amur Falcons are small raptors (predatory birds) of the falcon family.
• They breed in South-Eastern Siberia and Northern China before migrating across India and over the Arabian Sea to winter on Southern and East African coasts. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• They get their name from the Amur River which forms the border between Russia and China.
• They are known as ‘Kahuaipuina’ in Manipur and ‘Molulem’ in Nagaland. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• They are locally known as Akhuipuina, and they arrive in northeastern parts mainly in Manipur and Nagaland of India, from Siberia and stay about two months in India before they head for warmer climates in Kenya and South Africa in a non-stop flight over the Arabian Sea.
• Doyang Lake in Nagaland is better known as a stopover for the Amur falcons during their annual migration from their breeding grounds to warmer South Africa. Thus, Nagaland is also known as the “Falcon Capital of the World”.
• They are listed as least concern under IUCN’s Red Data List. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• They are protected under the Wildlife Protection Act 1972 and included under its Schedule IV.
• They are also listed in Appendix II of CITES.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Home Minister said White Revolution 2.0 will help the inclusion of women engaged in the procurement of milk in formal employment as the money will be deposited in their bank accounts.

Hence option c is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The President of the French Space Agency, Centre National d’Etudes Spatiales (CNES), who is in India to participate in the Bengaluru Space Expo 2024, spoke on the sidelines of the event on a wide range of topics from celebrating 60 years of French-India space cooperation to the Gaganyaan and the TRISHNA missions.

• The Thermal Infrared Imaging Satellite for High-resolution Natural Resource Assessment (TRISHNA) Mission is a collaborative endeavour between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the French Space Agency CNES. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• The satellite will operate in a sun-synchronous orbit at an altitude of 761 km, with a local time of 12:30 PM at the equator. This orbit will provide a spatial resolution of 57 meters for land and coastal areas and 1 km for oceanic and polar regions. The mission is designed for a 5-year operational life.
• It is engineered to deliver high spatial and temporal resolution observations of Earth’s surface temperature, vegetation health, and water cycle dynamics. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It helps in a comprehensive assessment of urban heat islands, detection of thermal anomalies linked to volcanic activity and geothermal resources, and precise monitoring of snow-melt runoff and glacier dynamics.
• It will also provide valuable data on aerosol optical depth, atmospheric water vapor, and cloud cover.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

Context: Indian scientists developed a sustainable pheromone dispenser with a controlled release rate which could bring down costs of pest control and management.

• Pheromones are ecto-hormones, meaning they are secreted outside the body. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
• They are chemical substances that are secreted on the outside by an individual, and received by another individual of the same species. 
• They are present in all bodily secretions, and especially in the axillary sweat — which can be detected by the olfactory system. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• Animals, with their heightened senses and vomeronasal organ, are known to secrete pheromones to trigger many kinds of behaviours like raising an alarm, signalling a food trail, warning another animal to back off, and bonding with an offspring.

They are used by fungi, slime molds, and algae as attractants in reproduction. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: An elaborate attack by an Al Qaeda affiliate in Mali’s capital killed some 70 people, diplomatic and security sources.

• Mali is a landlocked country in West Africa. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• It has a monotonous landscape, with plains and plateaus dominating the country’s topography. 
• The landscape transitions from the Sahara Desert in the north through the Sahel to the zone of Sudanian savanna in the south.
• Its capital is Bamako. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• It is one of the hottest nations on earth with an average temperature of 114.8 °F (46 °C) in the summer months.
• It is bordered by seven countries. They are Burkina Faso, Niger, Senegal, Guinea, Cote d’Ivoire, Algeria, and Mauritania. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
• The languages spoken are Bambara, Dogon, Fulfulde, Manding, Arabic, Tuareg, French, etc.
• Niger River flows through its interior. Hence statement 4 is correct.
• There are many ethnic groups in Mali. The largest of them is Bambara, making up 36.5% of the population. 

It gained independence from France in 1960.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: In its first post-election meeting, the Standing Committee of the National Board for Wildlife (SC-NBWL) has cleared projects such as a transmission line in Little Rann of Kutch, a controversial transmission line project in Goa’s Mollem National Park as well as a clutch of infrastructure projects in tiger corridors of central India, among others. 

• The National Board for Wildlife (NBWL) is a statutory board constituted under the Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The WLPA mandates that without the approval/recommendation of the NBWL, construction of tourist lodges, alteration of the boundaries of PAs, destruction or diversion of wildlife habitat, and de-notification of Tiger Reserves, cannot be done.
• It is responsible for issuing approvals for projects in protected areas (PAs). Hence statement 2 is correct.
• While the act envisaged the board and the committee as advisory bodies, their powers, and responsibilities were increased in 2002 after the Supreme Court ruled that the SC-NBWL had to approve all proposals that sought permission for “any activity” within a wildlife sanctuary.
• The SC-NBWL also makes recommendations on the setting up of and management of National Parks, Sanctuaries, and other PAs and on matters relating to restriction of activities in those areas.
• In addition to offices and institutions directly involved in the conservation and protection of wildlife, the NBWL also has the chief of army staff, defence secretary, and expenditure secretary to the Government of India as members.
• Further, the central government nominates 10 members who are eminent conservationists, ecologists, and environmentalists.

It is headed by the Prime Minister and the Minister of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change as vice chairperson. Hence statement 3 is correct

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister has approved the development of the Venus Orbiter Mission (VOM), which will be a significant step towards the Government’s vision of exploring and studying Venus, beyond the moon and Mars. 

Venus Orbiter Mission is envisaged to orbit a scientific spacecraft in the orbit of planet Venus. India Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will be responsible for the development of the spacecraft and its launch. The mission is expected to be accomplished on the opportunity available during March 2028. The realization of the spacecraft and launch vehicle is through various industries. The total fund approved for the VOM is Rs.1236 Cr out of which Rs 824.00 Crore will be spent on the spacecraft. The objectives of the Venus Orbiter Mission:

• Study of Venusian surface and subsurface
• Study of Venus’s atmospheric processes
• Study of the influence of the Sun on the Venusian atmosphere
• Study of the underlying causes of the transformation of Venus

Hence option d is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

Context: The second edition of the Direct Tax Vivad se Viswas scheme 2024 (VSV 2.0) will be operational from October 1, the Finance Ministry has said in a notification. 

• Vivad Se Vishwas Scheme 2024 (VSV 2.0) aims to reduce ongoing litigations related to income tax. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The primary goal of VSV 2.0 is to provide a cost-effective mechanism for settling disputed issues, thereby alleviating the burden of litigation on taxpayers and the judicial system. 
• VSV 2.0 will enable taxpayers and the Income Tax Department to resolve disputes through a streamlined appeals process.
• It will provide a mechanism for filing appeals across various appellate forums, including the Joint Commissioner of Income-tax (Appeals), the Income Tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT), and higher courts.
• It covers cases with objections filed before the Dispute Resolution Panel (DRP) where no final assessment order has been issued and pending revision applications before the Commissioner.
• Under the scheme, certain cases are excluded from eligibility, including those involving searches, prosecutions, and undisclosed foreign income. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The scheme covers appeals, writ petitions, and special leave petitions pending as of July 22, 2024, and will waive penalties and interest for settlements, ensuring no prosecution will be initiated for cases resolved under the scheme. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d) 

Explanation:

Option (a) is incorrect: Though true, this is not the main inference of the passage. The passage reflects how economic capital and natural and human capital are important for growth, and so all of them should be taken in account to measure and achieve sustainable development.  

Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does not include the context of the role of government per se. It only mentions that GDP has certain limitations, but that does not mean giving up GDP completely as suggested in the option. So, this option is not the logical inference from the passage. 

Option (c) is incorrect: Though true, this statement covers only a part of the argument presented in the passage.  

Option (d) is correct: The following lines in the passage – “It is a multipurpose indicator capable of measuring not only traditional stocks of wealth but also those less tangible and unseen—such as educational levels, skill sets, health care, as well as environmental assets and the functioning of key ecosystem services that form the backbone of human well-being and ultimately set the parameters for sustainable development”, show that economic capital, human capital and natural capital determine sustainable growth/development. So, it is correct to infer that economic, human and natural capital should be the parameters of growth. 

Solution (a) 

Explanation:

The number in the circles are given by the sum of first n natural numbers. So, Sn = n(n+1)/2 

S1 = 1; S2 = 3; S3 = 6; S4 = 10; S5 = 15; S6 = 21; S7 = 28; S8 = 36; S9 = 45 

Note: You may also solve it considering it to be a question of series, wherein the difference between the terms is continuously increasing by 1.  

Hence, option (a) is the correct answer

Solution (b)

Explanation:

We know that there would be 12 vertices in a polygon having 12 sides. And, to form a triangle we need just 3 vertices of the polygon.

Then, required number of triangles would be equal to the number of ways in which 3 vertices can be chosen out of 12 vertices.

∴ Required number of ways- = 12C3

= (12!)/ {3! × 9!} = 220 ways

Hence, the required number of triangles is 220.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Let the man’s age be 7x years,

Then son’s age = 3x years

∴ 7x * 3x = 756

⇒ 21x2 = 756

⇒x2 = 756

⇒x2 = 36

⇒x = 6