[DAY 21] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – ECONOMY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Recession is a term used to signify a slowdown in general economic activity. In macroeconomics, recessions are officially recognized after two consecutive quarters of negative GDP growth rates. Effects of a Recession:

• • Riskier assets like stocks and high-yield bonds tend to lose value in a recession, while gold appreciates. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  • Short-term interest rates tend to fall. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  • As businesses seek to cut costs, unemployment rates increase. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  • Credit availability tightens. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  • An inverted yield curve occurs when short-term debt instruments have higher yields than long-term instruments. An inverted yield curve is unusual; it reflects bond investors’ expectations for a decline in longer-term interest rates, typically associated with recessions.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• CPI is released by The National Statistical Office (CSO). It releases the list of items and their weightages using the Modified Mixed Reference Period (MMRP). Under this method, for food items and certain other items, data on expenditures incurred are collected during the last seven days. For durable goods, clothing, and footwear, data on expenditure incurred are collected during the last 365 days. For certain other items such as fuel and light, miscellaneous goods and services, the reference period is 30 days. This method is understood to give a more accurate reflection of consumption patterns.
• Housing (Rural and Urban) has a combined weightage of 10.67%. Health and Education come under the Miscellaneous category with 5.89% and 4.46% weightage. Food and Beverages (Rural and URBAN) combined have the weightage of 45.86%. Transport and communication (Rural and Urban) combined have a weightage of 8.59%. Fuel and light has 6.84%. Hence Option c is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Inflation refers to an increase in the price of goods and services in the economy over a period of time. It may be caused by a number of factors that are classified into two categories – Demand Pull Factors and Cost Push Factors.
• Cost Push Factors are those reasons that cause inflation by increasing the cost of production of goods and services in an economy. In order to protect their profit margins, the producers increase the sale price of their product/ service, thus causing inflation in the economy.
• Appreciation of local currency would mean that the value of the Rupee (in case of India) has increased vis-a-vis other currencies, thus making imports cheaper. As the imports (including raw materials for various goods) become cheaper, the price of products will go down not up (no inflation). So, this option is incorrect as it does not contribute to cost-push inflation. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Labour is one of the four Factors of Production (Land, Labour, Capital & Entrepreneurship). So, if the wages of the labour involved in production of a good/ service increases, so will the cost of production. In order to maintain their profit margin, firms will increase the sale price of the good/ service, leading to cost-push inflation. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• Higher Taxes would make raw materials costlier for manufacturers, which they would pass on to the consumers in the form of increased sale prices, in order to protect their profit margins. This would again lead to cost-push inflation. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
• Higher global oil prices have a cascading effect on raw material costs in an import dependent economy like India. Since the cost of importing the oil would be high, it would get passed along the entire value chain, as increased cost of transportation of raw materials and thus increased cost of production, which would be passed on to customers in the form of higher sale prices leading to cost-push inflation. Hence Statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation also known as Retail inflation, tracks the change in retail prices of goods and services which households purchase for their daily consumption. CPI is calculated (base year is 2012) for a fixed basket of goods and services. The National Statistical Office (NSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), compiles CPI for All India and States for Rural, Urban, Combined sectors and releases it every month. The RBI currently uses CPI as a key measure of inflation to set monetary and credit policy.
• Wholesale price index (WPI) measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk. It is calculated and published by the Office of Economic Advisor, Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. WPI is calculated with base year 2011-12 by taking a weighted average of the prices of a basket of 697 goods comprising:

• • Primary Articles (Weight 22.62%)
  • Fuel and Power (Weight 13.15%)
  • Manufactured Products (Weight 64.23%)

• Both CPI and WPI include (with different weightage) items like food, fuel and power, manufactured products etc. Hence, points 1 and 2 are correct.
• Difference between WPI and CPI inflation:

• • WPI includes primary articles such as minerals and basic metals. CPI does not include it. Hence, point 3 is incorrect.

WPI is restricted to only goods, while CPI is for both goods and services like health, education and housing etc. Hence, point 4 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Core inflation excludes food and fuel items from headline inflation. Headline inflation refers to the change in value of all goods in the basket. Headline inflation reflects the prices of essential consumption goods. Inflation in these prices hurts people in lower-income groups more as they spend a higher proportion of their incomes on food and fuel items.Hence, Statement a is incorrect.
• Core inflation is less volatile than headline inflation because the prices of fuel and food items in headline inflation tend to fluctuate and create ‘noise’ in inflation computation. Hence, Statement b is correct.
• Headline inflation is more relevant for developing economies than developed economies. In a developed economy, food & fuel account for 10-15% of the household consumption basket and in developing economies it forms 30-40% of the basket. Hence Statement c is incorrect.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Reflation is a fiscal or monetary policy designed to expand output, stimulate spending, and curb the effects of deflation, which usually occurs after a period of economic uncertainty or a recession. Reflation is a policy that is enacted after a period of economic slowdown or contraction. Reflation aims to stop deflation, the general decline in prices for goods and services that occurs when inflation falls below 0%. It is a long-term shift, often characterized by a prolonged reacceleration in economic prosperity that strives to reduce any excess capacity in the labor market.  Hence Pair 1 is correct.
• Disinflation occurs when price inflation slows down temporarily. This term is commonly used to describe a period of slowing inflation. Unlike deflation, this is not harmful to the economy because the inflation rate is reduced marginally over a short-term period. Deflation is the economic term used to describe the drop in prices for goods and services, where the inflation rate falls below 0%. Hence Pair 2 is incorrect.
• Skewflation means the skewness of inflation among different sectors of the economy in this phenomenon some sectors are facing huge inflation, some none and some deflation. Hence Pair 3 is correct.
• Stagflation refers to an economy that is experiencing a simultaneous increase in inflation and stagnation of economic output. Stagflation was first recognized during the 1970s when many developed economies experienced rapid inflation and high unemployment as a result of an oil shock. Stagflation is characterized by slow economic growth and relatively high unemployment or economic stagnation which is at the same time accompanied by rising prices (i.e. inflation). Stagflation can be alternatively defined as a period of inflation combined with a decline in the gross domestic product (GDP). Hence Pair 4 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Shrinkflation refers to the practice of reducing the quantity of a product without altering its price. For instance, reducing the weight of chips in a packet without altering its price would count as shrinkflation. Shrinkflation is related more to reducing the quantity of product while keeping the same price. Hence option c is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The Goldilocks scenario in an economy is a term stolen from a line from the popular children’s story Goldilocks and the Three Bears. Consequently, the ‘Goldilocks scenario’ can be understood to describe an ideal state for an economic system. In this perfect state, there is full employment, economic stability, and stable growth. Hence option d is correct.

Test explained

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The RBI Act provides for the inflation target to be set by the Government of India, in consultation with the Reserve Bank, once in every five years. Accordingly, the Central Government has notified 4 per cent Consumer Price Index (CPI) inflation as the target until the fiscal year 2025-26 with the upper tolerance limit of 6 per cent and the lower tolerance limit of 2 per cent.  Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• India formally adopted flexible inflation targeting (FIT) in June 2016 to place price stability, defined in terms of a target CPI inflation, as the primary objective of the monetary policy. In May 2016, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934 was amended to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.  Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• If RBI fails to meet the target, RBI will have to explain the reason for its failure to meet as well as give a timeframe within which it will achieve it.   Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
• The amended RBI Act, 1934 provides for an empowered six-member monetary policy committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Central Government by notification in the Official Gazette. The MPC determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target.  Hence Statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Inflation refers to a continuous rise in the general price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. Inflation leads to decline in the value of money over a period of time.
• High inflation leads to increase in the Current Account Deficit. This is due to cheaper imports availability as compared to expensive domestic goods. Further, exports also fall due to increase in price of domestic goods. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• During Inflation, holding money does not remain an intelligent economic decision. That is why people visit banks more frequently and try to hold least money with themselves and put maximum with the banks in their saving accounts. This is also known as the shoe leather cost of inflation. It means that saving rate increases. But this happens as a short-term effect of inflation. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• In the long-run, higher inflation depletes the saving rate in an economy.
• Real Interest rate is the nominal rate of interest minus Inflation. So, real interest rate falls by the same percentage with which inflation rises. This means lenders suffer and borrowers benefit out of inflation. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation 

Phillips curve represent the relationship between the rate of unemployment and the inflation.  The Phillips curve originated out of analysis comparing money wage growth with unemployment. The findings of A.W. Phillips in The Relationship between Unemployment and the Rate of Change of Money Wages in the United Kingdom 1861–1957 suggested there was an inverse correlation between the rate of change in money wages and unemployment.  For example, a rise in unemployment was associated with declining wage growth and vice versa. (Hence option b is correct)

Solution (b)

Explanation

Solution (b)

Explanation

Solution (d)

Explanation

Solution (a)

Explanation

Menu costs are a type of transaction cost incurred by firms when they change their prices. Menu costs are one microeconomic explanation offered by New Keynesian economists for macroeconomic price-stickiness, which may cause an economy to fail to adjust to changing macroeconomic conditions. The main takeaway from menu costs is that some prices are sticky. That is, firms are hesitant to change their prices until there is a sufficient disparity between the firm’s current price and the equilibrium market price to justify the expense of incurring the menu cost. (Hence option a is correct) 

Solution (a)

Explanation

Disinflation is a temporary slowing of the pace of price inflation. The term is used to describe occasions when the inflation rate has reduced marginally over the short term. Unlike inflation and deflation, which refer to the direction of prices, disinflation refers to the rate of change in the rate of inflation. A healthy amount of disinflation is necessary since it prevents the economy from overheating. (Hence option a is correct)

Solution (d)

Explanation 

Solution (b)

Explanation

Solution (b)

Explanation

Solution (a)

Context:

• The Nobel Assembly at the Karolinska Institutet has decided to award the 2024 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine jointly to Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun “for the discovery of microRNA and its role in post-transcriptional gene regulation.” In this context, the Nobel prizes become important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• The 2024 Nobel Prize for Medicine has been awarded to scientists Victor Ambros and Gary Ruvkun for their discovery of microRNA — tiny molecules which play a crucial role in how genes function. MicroRNAs, or miRNAs, are small, non-coding molecules of RNA. These microRNAs act as molecular switches, fine-tuning the expression of genes in different cell types and under varying conditions. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Context:

• Recently, Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) Issued Guidelines for Prevention and Regulation of Greenwashing and Misleading Environmental Claims. In this context, CCPA as an institution becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is a statutory body. It was established under Consumer Protection Act 2019, which came into effect in July 2020. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 replaced the Consumer Protection Act, 1986. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• CCPA aims to protect the rights of consumers by cracking down on unfair trade practices and false and misleading advertisements that are detrimental to the interests of the public and consumers. It works under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• Section 21 of CPA, 2019 grants the CCPA the power to issue directions and penalties against false or misleading advertisements. It provides definition of Misleading Advertisement, Powers of the CCPA and Penalties (imprisonment of up to 2 years and a fine of up to Rs. 10 lakh). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Recently, the MACE Observatory has been inaugurated by the Secretary DAE & Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission, at Hanle, Ladakh. So, the basic details about the observatory becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) Observatory is the largest imaging Cherenkov telescope in Asia. It is Asia’s Largest and World’s Highest Imaging Cherenkov Observatory. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It is indigenously built by Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) with support from Electronics Corporation of India (ECIL), Hyderabad, and other Indian industry partners. It will help the scientific community enhance its understanding in the fields of astrophysics, fundamental physics, and particle acceleration mechanisms. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• It is located at an altitude of ~4,300 m, at Hanle, Ladakh. It will observe high-energy gamma rays, contributing to global efforts to understand the most energetic phenomena in the universe, such as supernovae, black holes, and gamma-ray bursts. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• The Nashik Municipal Corporation (NMC) has planned to outsource 60 sanitary workers through a private agency to clean the Godavari River and its tributaries. In this context, Godavari river and its tributaries become important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• Godavari is India’s second-longest river after the Ganga and the third-largest in India, drains about 10% of India’s total geographical area. It is also called Dakshina Ganga, which translates into South Ganges River. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• The origin of the Godavari River is in Brahmagiri Mountain at Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. It runs for a length of about 1,465 kilometers. It finally empties itself into the Bay of Bengal at Narasapuram in West Godavari district, Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• The principal tributaries of the river are the Pravara, the Purna, the Manjra, the Penganga, the Wardha, the Wainganga, the Pranhita (combined flow of Wainganga, Penganga, Wardha), the Indravati, the Maner, and the Sabri. Harangi, Hemavati, Lakshmana Tirtha, Kabini, Suvarnavathi, etc. are the tributaries of Kaveri River. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The Union Cabinet recently approved the development of the National Maritime Heritage Complex (NMHC) in Lothal, Gujarat. In this context, NMHC becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• Under the Sagarmala programme, the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways is developing the NMHC, a world-class facility at Lothal, Gujarat. It is set to become an international tourist destination, showcasing India’s maritime heritage from ancient to modern times through an edutainment approach utilizing the latest technology. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Context:

• Recently, the 2024 Living Planet Index reported a 73% average decline in wildlife populations. In this context, the index becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Living Planet Report is published biennially by World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF). It is a comprehensive study of trends in global biodiversity and the health of the planet. The Living Planet Report 2024 is the 15th edition of the report. The WWF uses the Living Planet Index (LPI), which tracks the average trends in wildlife populations rather than focusing on increases or declines in individual species numbers. Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Context:

• The night sky was illuminated recently by the northern lights, or aurora borealis, visible in parts of the world including the United States, Canada, the United Kingdom, Germany, and even Hanle village in Ladakh. In this context, auroras become important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• An aurora is a natural light display in Earth’s sky, predominantly seen in high-latitude regions (around the Arctic and Antarctic). They are also commonly known as the northern lights (aurora borealis) or southern lights (aurora australis). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• Auroras are caused by the interaction of energetic particles (electrons and protons) of the solar wind with atoms of the upper atmosphere. They display dynamic patterns of brilliant lights that appear as curtains, rays, spirals, or dynamic flickers covering the entire sky. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• A 13th-century stone inscription, or Veeragallu, has been recently uncovered during the renovation of the ancient Kalleshwar temple. In this context, basic details about the temple can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Kalleshwar temple is a Hindu temple located in the town of Bagali in the Davangere district of Karnataka. The construction of the temple spans the rule of two Kannada dynasties: the Rashtrakuta Dynasty during the mid-10th century, and the Western Chalukya Empire,during the reign of founding King Tailapa II around 987 AD. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• It is one of the oldest temples in the region and is dedicated to Lord Shiva. The temple is a single shrine construction with an adjoining hall (mantapa). The Shikara of the temple is a perfect example of early Cholan architecture. The temple houses a large Shivalinga, which is believed to be more than a thousand years old. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• A hundred million tonnes of nitrogen are now removed from the atmosphere and converted into fertilizer via the Haber-Bosch process, adding 165 million tonnes of reactive nitrogen to the soil. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the Haber-Bosch process.

Explanation:

• Haber-Bosch Process is a process that fixes nitrogen with hydrogen to produce ammonia (NH3), a critical part in the manufacture of plant fertilizers. The process was developed in the early 1900s by Fritz Haber and was later modified to become an industrial process to make fertilizers by Carl Bosch. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It was the first industrial chemical process to use high pressure for a chemical reaction. It is extremely important because it was the first of the processes developed that allowed people to mass-produce plant fertilizers due to the production of ammonia. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) flagged over 50 drugs, including Paracetamol, as ‘not of standard quality’. In this context, CDSCO becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) is the National Regulatory Authority (NRA) of India for the medical devices industry under the provisions of the Drugs & Cosmetics Rules. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• It works under the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and, Drugs Controller General of India (DCGI) is the head of the CDSCO. CDSCO, along with state regulators, is jointly responsible for the grant of licenses for certain specialized categories of critical drugs, such as blood and blood products, Vaccines and Sera. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• It is headquartered in New Delhi. It serves a similar function to the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) of the United States or the European Medicines Agency of the European Union. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Statement (1) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Despite these mammoth law-making bodies, they lack their own common public recruiting and training agency at the national level”. Also “A common service can build a combined and experienced legislative staff cadre, enabling them to serve from across local bodies to the Union Parliament”. So, the passage mentions that it is not a decentralized system of recruitment and training, but a common system of public recruiting and training agency at the national level that is needed for competent and robust legislative institutions and their functioning. Hence, this answer option is incorrect. 

Statement (2) is correct. It is given in the passage, “The growth of modern government and expansion of governmental activities require a matching development and laborious legislative exercise. A common service can build a combined and experienced legislative staff cadre, enabling them to serve from across local bodies to the Union Parliament”. So it can be implied that there is a need for all-India legislative services that will fulfill the mandate of maximum governance from local bodies to Parliament level. These arguments are aptly captured in this answer option. 

Statement (3) is incorrect. The passage is advocating for a common public recruiting and training agency at the national level. It is also mentioned that a qualified and well-trained staff will ensure a competent and robust legislative institution. But there is nothing mentioned about ‘red-tapism’ and cumbersome processes‘. So, this statement is incorrect. 

Statement (4) is correct. The passage mentions “Despite these mammoth law-making bodies, they lack their own common public recruiting and training agency at the national level. Ensuring competent and robust legislative institutions demands having qualified and well-trained staff in place. A common service can build a combined and experienced legislative staff cadre, enabling them to serve from across local bodies to the Union Parliament”. So, it can be implied that enhancing governmental activities necessitates strengthening the legislative institutions by common public recruiting agencies. And from the phrase “to serve” it can be inferred that they will ensure effective policy making. So, this statement is correct. 

Solution (d)

Explanation:

None of the conclusions follows.  Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Statement (a) is correct.  The entire passage describes how export surplus of India helped the British to overcome protectionist policies elsewhere in the world. The passage mentions that through vast outflows of agricultural products and raw commodities, India’s continual export surplus with other countries neutralized British deficits elsewhere. Hence, it is the correct answer. 

Statement (b) is incorrect. Though the passage revolves around the argument of how Indian exports helped the British in stability of their Balance of Payments, but it is nowhere mentioned that the entire British economy was depended on Indian exports. Hence, it is not the correct answer. 

Statement (c) is incorrect. According to the passage, India provided military and strategic advantages to the British, but that is not the most important point of this passage, because the focus of the passage is on British financial deficit. Hence, it is not the correct answer. 

Statement (d) is incorrect. According to the passage, Britain was facing huge budget problems as a result of the building of tariff walls surrounding other emerging capitalist economies in Western Europe and America. The author restricts the domain to Western Europe and America. The word “Global” has not been used. Hence, it is not the correct answer. Moreover, the focus of the passage is on India and not just Britain. 

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Assumption 1 is incorrect. The given option is about affirmative action, but the passage nowhere discusses any such thing. There is a lag between male and female education as per the line, “As per a report, India’s country-wide female literacy rate is 70.3%, while the male literacy rate is estimated at 84.7%”. But the reason for the same is not described in the passage. Moreover, this statement seems more to be in the nature of an implication, than an assumption. Hence, this assumption is not valid.  

Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “India is working but the pace is slow as we haven’t achieved what we should have been so far. As per a report, India’s country-wide female literacy rate is 70.3%, while the male literacy rate is estimated at 84.7%”. This line does show that women fall behind men. However, there is no discussion with respect to rapid growth in recent years. Rather, the passage is mentioning the slow pace of women’s education. So, the assumption in the statement is not valid. 

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Statement (1) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Despite these mammoth law-making bodies, they lack their own common public recruiting and training agency at the national level”. Also “A common service can build a combined and experienced legislative staff cadre, enabling them to serve from across local bodies to the Union Parliament”. So, the passage mentions that it is not a decentralized system of recruitment and training, but a common system of public recruiting and training agency at the national level that is needed for competent and robust legislative institutions and their functioning. Hence, this answer option is incorrect.

Statement (2) is correct. It is given in the passage, “The growth of modern government and expansion of governmental activities require a matching development and laborious legislative exercise. A common service can build a combined and experienced legislative staff cadre, enabling them to serve from across local bodies to the Union Parliament”. So it can be implied that there is a need for all-India legislative services that will fulfill the mandate of maximum governance from local bodies to Parliament level. These arguments are aptly captured in this answer option.

Statement (3) is incorrect. The passage is advocating for a common public recruiting and training agency at the national level. It is also mentioned that a qualified and well-trained staff will ensure a competent and robust legislative institution. But there is nothing mentioned about ‘red-tapism’ and cumbersome processes‘. So, this statement is incorrect.

Statement (4) is correct. The passage mentions “Despite these mammoth law-making bodies, they lack their own common public recruiting and training agency at the national level. Ensuring competent and robust legislative institutions demands having qualified and well-trained staff in place. A common service can build a combined and experienced legislative staff cadre, enabling them to serve from across local bodies to the Union Parliament”. So, it can be implied that enhancing governmental activities necessitates strengthening the legislative institutions by common public recruiting agencies. And from the phrase “to serve” it can be inferred that they will ensure effective policy making. So, this statement is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

876 + 2P3 = 10Q9,

It is clear that there is no carry over obtained in the

addition of the unit’s digit, while the sum of hundredth

digit of the numbers is same as the hundredths

digit of the sum. It means 7 + P =Q.

10Q9 is divisible by 11, so (9 + 0) − (1 + Q) = 11n,

where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, …..

Q = 8 & P = Q − 7 = 1.

Therefore, P – Q =7

Solution (d)

Explanation:

None of the conclusions follows.  Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Statement (a) is correct.  The entire passage describes how export surplus of India helped the British to overcome protectionist policies elsewhere in the world. The passage mentions that through vast outflows of agricultural products and raw commodities, India’s continual export surplus with other countries neutralized British deficits elsewhere. Hence, it is the correct answer.

Statement (b) is incorrect. Though the passage revolves around the argument of how Indian exports helped the British in stability of their Balance of Payments, but it is nowhere mentioned that the entire British economy was depended on Indian exports. Hence, it is not the correct answer.

Statement (c) is incorrect. According to the passage, India provided military and strategic advantages to the British, but that is not the most important point of this passage, because the focus of the passage is on British financial deficit. Hence, it is not the correct answer.

Statement (d) is incorrect. According to the passage, Britain was facing huge budget problems as a result of the building of tariff walls surrounding other emerging capitalist economies in Western Europe and America. The author restricts the domain to Western Europe and America. The word “Global” has not been used. Hence, it is not the correct answer. Moreover, the focus of the passage is on India and not just Britain.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Assumption 1 is incorrect. The given option is about affirmative action, but the passage nowhere discusses any such thing. There is a lag between male and female education as per the line, “As per a report, India’s country-wide female literacy rate is 70.3%, while the male literacy rate is estimated at 84.7%”. But the reason for the same is not described in the passage. Moreover, this statement seems more to be in the nature of an implication, than an assumption. Hence, this assumption is not valid.

Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “India is working but the pace is slow as we haven’t achieved what we should have been so far. As per a report, India’s country-wide female literacy rate is 70.3%, while the male literacy rate is estimated at 84.7%”. This line does show that women fall behind men. However, there is no discussion with respect to rapid growth in recent years. Rather, the passage is mentioning the slow pace of women’s education. So, the assumption in the statement is not valid.

876 + 2P3 = 10Q9,

It is clear that there is no carry over obtained in the addition of the unit’s digit, while the sum of hundredth digit of the numbers is same as the hundredths digit of the sum. It means 7 + P =Q.

10Q9 is divisible by 11,

so (9 + 0) − (1 + Q) = 11n,

where n = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, …..

Q = 8 & P = Q − 7 = 1.

Therefore, P – Q =7