IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025.
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Question 1 of 34
1. Question
Which of the following statements are correct about the legal tender money?
- Legal tender laws prohibit the use of anything other than existing legal tender in the economy as money.
- The RBI Act of 1943 grants the Central Bank the sole authority to issue banknotes.
- In India, coins are only legal tender in limited quantities.
- Coins can be issued up to the denomination of ₹500 under The Coinage Act, 2011.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect The coins issued by Government of India under Section 6 of The Coinage Act, 2011, shall be legal tender in payment or on account provided that a coin has not been defaced and has not lost weight so as to be less than such weight as may be prescribed in its case. Legal tender laws effectively prohibit the use of anything other than existing legal tender in the economy as money. By law, the legal denomination of a country’s currency must be accepted as a medium of exchange and payment for a money debt. The RBI Act of 1934, which grants the Central Bank the sole authority to issue banknotes, states that “every banknote shall be legal tender in payment for the amount expressed therein in any place in India. The acceptance or rejection of legal tender status is significant because paper money derives all of its value from the government’s acceptance of it. Limited Legal Tender Money is a type of money that can be used to pay off a debt up to a certain amount, after which a person can refuse to accept the payment and no legal action can be taken against them. In India, coins are only legal tender in limited quantities. Coins can be issued up to the denomination of ₹1000 under The Coinage Act, 2011. Different designs of ₹10 coins are currently in circulation. All coins of ₹10 denomination minted from time to time by the Government of India (with/without the Rupee symbol) are legal tender. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Correct Correct Incorrect The coins issued by Government of India under Section 6 of The Coinage Act, 2011, shall be legal tender in payment or on account provided that a coin has not been defaced and has not lost weight so as to be less than such weight as may be prescribed in its case. Legal tender laws effectively prohibit the use of anything other than existing legal tender in the economy as money. By law, the legal denomination of a country’s currency must be accepted as a medium of exchange and payment for a money debt. The RBI Act of 1934, which grants the Central Bank the sole authority to issue banknotes, states that “every banknote shall be legal tender in payment for the amount expressed therein in any place in India. The acceptance or rejection of legal tender status is significant because paper money derives all of its value from the government’s acceptance of it. Limited Legal Tender Money is a type of money that can be used to pay off a debt up to a certain amount, after which a person can refuse to accept the payment and no legal action can be taken against them. In India, coins are only legal tender in limited quantities. Coins can be issued up to the denomination of ₹1000 under The Coinage Act, 2011. Different designs of ₹10 coins are currently in circulation. All coins of ₹10 denomination minted from time to time by the Government of India (with/without the Rupee symbol) are legal tender. -
Question 2 of 34
2. Question
With reference to economy, consider the following statements.
- In India, bank notes are printed at four currency presses fully owned by the Government of India.
- The Central Government cannot put into circulation any rupees, except through the Bank.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Bank notes are printed at four currency presses, two of which are owned by the Government of India through its Corporation, Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd. (SPMCIL) and two are owned by the Reserve Bank, through its wholly owned subsidiary, Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note. Mudran Private Ltd. (BRBNMPL). The currency presses of SPMCIL are at Nasik (Western India) and Dewas (Central India). The two presses of BRBNMPL are at Mysuru (Southern India) and Salboni (Eastern India). As per the Section 38 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Central Government shall undertake not to put into circulation any rupees, except through the Bank, and the Bank shall undertake not to dispose of rupee coin other-wise than for the purposes of circulation. The coins are issued for circulation only through the Reserve Bank in terms of Section 38 of the RBI Act. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct Bank notes are printed at four currency presses, two of which are owned by the Government of India through its Corporation, Security Printing and Minting Corporation of India Ltd. (SPMCIL) and two are owned by the Reserve Bank, through its wholly owned subsidiary, Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note. Mudran Private Ltd. (BRBNMPL). The currency presses of SPMCIL are at Nasik (Western India) and Dewas (Central India). The two presses of BRBNMPL are at Mysuru (Southern India) and Salboni (Eastern India). As per the Section 38 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Central Government shall undertake not to put into circulation any rupees, except through the Bank, and the Bank shall undertake not to dispose of rupee coin other-wise than for the purposes of circulation. The coins are issued for circulation only through the Reserve Bank in terms of Section 38 of the RBI Act. -
Question 3 of 34
3. Question
Which of the following statements are correct about the currency production in India?
- The Government of India is responsible for the designing and minting of coins.
- The highest denomination notes ever printed by the Reserve Bank of India was the ₹10000 note in 1938.
- In India, two or more banknotes can have same serial number.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In respect of coins, the role of RBI is limited to distribution of coins that are supplied by Government of India. The Government of India is responsible for the designing and minting of coins in various denominations as per the Coinage Act, 2011. The highest denomination note ever printed by the Reserve Bank of India was the ₹10000 note in 1938 which was demonetized in January 1946. The ₹10000 was again introduced in 1954. These notes were demonetized in 1978. It is possible to have two or more banknotes with the same serial number, but they would either have a different Inset Letter or year of printing or signature of a different Governor of RBI. An Inset Letter is an alphabet printed on the Number Panel of the banknote. There can be notes without any inset letter also. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct In respect of coins, the role of RBI is limited to distribution of coins that are supplied by Government of India. The Government of India is responsible for the designing and minting of coins in various denominations as per the Coinage Act, 2011. The highest denomination note ever printed by the Reserve Bank of India was the ₹10000 note in 1938 which was demonetized in January 1946. The ₹10000 was again introduced in 1954. These notes were demonetized in 1978. It is possible to have two or more banknotes with the same serial number, but they would either have a different Inset Letter or year of printing or signature of a different Governor of RBI. An Inset Letter is an alphabet printed on the Number Panel of the banknote. There can be notes without any inset letter also. -
Question 4 of 34
4. Question
With reference to Indian money, consider the following statements.
- The currency in circulation is the total value of the Reserve Bank of India’s currency that has ever been issued.
- Central bank money is designated as M0 in money supply data.
- High-powered money does not include the reserves held by commercial banks as part of the Cash Reserve Ratio requirement.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The currency in circulation is the total value of the Reserve Bank of India’s currency (coins and paper currency) that has ever been issued minus the amount that has been withdrawn. The following items make up cash in circulation (public money): currency notes and coins with the public, cash in hand with banks. It is a significant liability on a central bank’s balance sheet. Central Bank Money (M0) refers to a central bank’s liabilities, such as currency and depository accounts. Commercial Bank Money (M1 and M3) refers to commercial banks’ obligations, such as current and savings accounts. M0 is the term given to reserve money under the new system. High-powered money, also known as monetary base, refers to the total monetary liabilities of the central bank in a country. It includes currency in circulation, which comprises all the currency notes held by the public and used for transactions. High-powered money also includes the reserves held by commercial banks with the central bank (RBI) as part of the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) requirement. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The currency in circulation is the total value of the Reserve Bank of India’s currency (coins and paper currency) that has ever been issued minus the amount that has been withdrawn. The following items make up cash in circulation (public money): currency notes and coins with the public, cash in hand with banks. It is a significant liability on a central bank’s balance sheet. Central Bank Money (M0) refers to a central bank’s liabilities, such as currency and depository accounts. Commercial Bank Money (M1 and M3) refers to commercial banks’ obligations, such as current and savings accounts. M0 is the term given to reserve money under the new system. High-powered money, also known as monetary base, refers to the total monetary liabilities of the central bank in a country. It includes currency in circulation, which comprises all the currency notes held by the public and used for transactions. High-powered money also includes the reserves held by commercial banks with the central bank (RBI) as part of the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) requirement. -
Question 5 of 34
5. Question
Which of the following occurs due to increased money supply in economy?
- Need for labour rises
- Increase in interest rates
- Results in inflation
- More money in the hands of consumers.
Select the correct option using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Due to increase in money supply, businesses respond by expanding production and ordering more raw materials. The need for labour rises as company activity rises generating employment. A decrease in the money supply often increases interest rates. This hinders borrowing and spending reducing investments and disposable income in the hands of consumers. An increase in the money supply often lowers interest rates. Increased disposable income increases the demand for commodities and results in inflation. An increase in the money supply often lowers interest rates. This stimulates spending by generating more investment and putting more money in the hands of consumers. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Due to increase in money supply, businesses respond by expanding production and ordering more raw materials. The need for labour rises as company activity rises generating employment. A decrease in the money supply often increases interest rates. This hinders borrowing and spending reducing investments and disposable income in the hands of consumers. An increase in the money supply often lowers interest rates. Increased disposable income increases the demand for commodities and results in inflation. An increase in the money supply often lowers interest rates. This stimulates spending by generating more investment and putting more money in the hands of consumers. -
Question 6 of 34
6. Question
Which of the following is not a component of the money aggregate M2?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation
- M2 is made up of Currency with the public, Current Deposits with the Banking System, Savings Deposits with the Banking System, Certificates of Deposits issued by Banks, Residents’ Term Deposits with the Banking System with a contractual maturity up to and including one year, and ‘Other’ Deposits with RBI. (Hence option a, b and c are correct)
Term Deposits of residents with a contractual maturity of over one year with the Banking System is a component of M3 (Broad money). (Hence option d is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation
- M2 is made up of Currency with the public, Current Deposits with the Banking System, Savings Deposits with the Banking System, Certificates of Deposits issued by Banks, Residents’ Term Deposits with the Banking System with a contractual maturity up to and including one year, and ‘Other’ Deposits with RBI. (Hence option a, b and c are correct)
Term Deposits of residents with a contractual maturity of over one year with the Banking System is a component of M3 (Broad money). (Hence option d is incorrect)
-
Question 7 of 34
7. Question
Who among the following was served as the chairman of the working Group on Money Supply, constituted 1998 for new monetary aggregates?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation
The RBI has started publishing a set of new monetary aggregates following the recommendations of the Working Group on Money Supply: Analytics and Methodology of Compilation which submitted its report in June 1998. Yaga Venugopal Reddy served as the chairman of this working group. The Working Group recommended compilation of four monetary aggregates on the basis of the balance sheet of the banking sector in conformity with the norms of progressive liquidity: M0 (monetary base), M1 (narrow money), M2 and M3 (broad money). (Hence option a is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation
The RBI has started publishing a set of new monetary aggregates following the recommendations of the Working Group on Money Supply: Analytics and Methodology of Compilation which submitted its report in June 1998. Yaga Venugopal Reddy served as the chairman of this working group. The Working Group recommended compilation of four monetary aggregates on the basis of the balance sheet of the banking sector in conformity with the norms of progressive liquidity: M0 (monetary base), M1 (narrow money), M2 and M3 (broad money). (Hence option a is correct)
-
Question 8 of 34
8. Question
Which of the following statements are correct about the recent updates on Merchant Discount Rate by Government of India?
- Abolished the burden of Merchant Discount Rate during transactions of digital payments from customers and merchants.
- Payments through UPI and RuPay debit cards do not attract any Merchant Discount Rate.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Indian Government made significant decisions on Merchant Discount Rate on 1st January 2020. It abolished the burden of MDR during transactions of digital payments from customers and merchants. Mandates offering low-cost digital payment options to customers for businesses with an annual turnover of over Rs. 50 crores. Currently, UPI payments do not attract merchant discount rates (MDRs), while for debit cards, MDR is capped at 0.9 per cent for transactions, except for RuPay debit card, which attracts zero MDR. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct The Indian Government made significant decisions on Merchant Discount Rate on 1st January 2020. It abolished the burden of MDR during transactions of digital payments from customers and merchants. Mandates offering low-cost digital payment options to customers for businesses with an annual turnover of over Rs. 50 crores. Currently, UPI payments do not attract merchant discount rates (MDRs), while for debit cards, MDR is capped at 0.9 per cent for transactions, except for RuPay debit card, which attracts zero MDR. -
Question 9 of 34
9. Question
Which of the following statements are correct about Bharat Interface for Money?
- It was developed by Reserve Bank of India in 2016.
- The user can request money through the app from a UPI ID.
- It is a digital payment app that works for all Indian bank accounts.
- It is not interoperable with other Unified Payment Interface applications.
Select the correct option using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect Pioneered and developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), BHIM has been launched in 2016 to bring in Financial Inclusion to the nation and digitally empowered society. One can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. One can also request money through the app from a UPI ID. Bharat Interface for Money is a digital payment app that works for all Indian bank accounts. BHIM makes payments through bank-to-bank transfers, unlike wallet apps. BHIM is interoperable with other Unified Payment Interface (UPI) applications, and bank accounts. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Incorrect Correct Correct Incorrect Pioneered and developed by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), BHIM has been launched in 2016 to bring in Financial Inclusion to the nation and digitally empowered society. One can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. One can also request money through the app from a UPI ID. Bharat Interface for Money is a digital payment app that works for all Indian bank accounts. BHIM makes payments through bank-to-bank transfers, unlike wallet apps. BHIM is interoperable with other Unified Payment Interface (UPI) applications, and bank accounts. -
Question 10 of 34
10. Question
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Unified Payments Interface?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a common platform through which a person can transfer money from his bank account to any other bank account in the country instantly using nothing but his/her UPI ID. It was launched in 2016 as Mobile First digital payments platform. UPI is currently the largest of the systems operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), which also includes the National Automated Clearing House (NACH), the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), the Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS), the Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), and RuPay. India’s UPI will be connected to Singapore’s PayNow. The cross-border payment tie-up between Singapore’s PayNow and India’s Unified Payments Interface, the first international payment systems link to use scalable cloud-based infrastructure, is currently clocking close to 3,000 transactions a month, benefiting the Indian diaspora through a sharp reduction in remittance costs. UPI is a platform whereas BHIM is a separate mobile wallet app like Paytm, PhonePe, etc. If a person has bank accounts with the different banks then the person will have to use different UPI apps and VPA (Virtual Payment Address). Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Statement 4 Correct Incorrect Correct Correct Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a common platform through which a person can transfer money from his bank account to any other bank account in the country instantly using nothing but his/her UPI ID. It was launched in 2016 as Mobile First digital payments platform. UPI is currently the largest of the systems operated by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), which also includes the National Automated Clearing House (NACH), the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), the Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS), the Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS), and RuPay. India’s UPI will be connected to Singapore’s PayNow. The cross-border payment tie-up between Singapore’s PayNow and India’s Unified Payments Interface, the first international payment systems link to use scalable cloud-based infrastructure, is currently clocking close to 3,000 transactions a month, benefiting the Indian diaspora through a sharp reduction in remittance costs. UPI is a platform whereas BHIM is a separate mobile wallet app like Paytm, PhonePe, etc. If a person has bank accounts with the different banks then the person will have to use different UPI apps and VPA (Virtual Payment Address). -
Question 11 of 34
11. Question
With reference to Business Correspondent, consider the following statements.
- These are retail agents engaged by banks for providing banking services at locations other than a bank branch.
- Banks are not responsible for any acts of omission of the Business Correspondents.
- The Business Correspondent model allows banks to provide door-step delivery of cash in and cash out’ transactions.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The RBI has allowed banks to appoint entities and individuals as agents for providing basic banking services in remote areas where they can’t practically start a branch. These agents are called business correspondents. Banks are required to take full responsibility for the acts of omission and commission of the BCs that they engage and have, therefore, to ensure thorough due diligence and additional safeguards for minimizing the agency risk. The Business Correspondent model allows banks to provide door-step delivery of services, especially ‘cash in – cash out’ transactions at a location much closer to the rural population, thus addressing the last-mile problem. As per the RBI guidelines the products provided by BCs are: Small Savings Accounts, Fixed Deposit and Recurring Deposit with low minimum deposits, Remittance to any BC customer, Micro Credit and General Insurance. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct The RBI has allowed banks to appoint entities and individuals as agents for providing basic banking services in remote areas where they can’t practically start a branch. These agents are called business correspondents. Banks are required to take full responsibility for the acts of omission and commission of the BCs that they engage and have, therefore, to ensure thorough due diligence and additional safeguards for minimizing the agency risk. The Business Correspondent model allows banks to provide door-step delivery of services, especially ‘cash in – cash out’ transactions at a location much closer to the rural population, thus addressing the last-mile problem. As per the RBI guidelines the products provided by BCs are: Small Savings Accounts, Fixed Deposit and Recurring Deposit with low minimum deposits, Remittance to any BC customer, Micro Credit and General Insurance. -
Question 12 of 34
12. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about the Banking Ombudsman?
- The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the Reserve Bank of India for a tenure of five years.
- RBI introduced an Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies in 2018.
- The decision of the Banking Ombudsman is binding on the parties.
Select the answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Banking Ombudsman is a senior official in the rank of Chief General Manager or General Manager appointed by the Reserve Bank of India to redress customer complaints against deficiency in certain banking services. The tenure of a banking ombudsman is for a period not exceeding 3 years. In 2018, RBI introduced an Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC’s) to redress customer complaints against NBFCs for deficiency in certain services covered under the grounds of complaint specified under Clause 8 of the Scheme. The appeal lays before an appellate authority i.e. the Deputy Governor in charge of the Department of the Reserve Bank implementing the Scheme. The ombudsman is required to send an annual report to the RBI governor containing general review of the activities of his office during the preceding financial year and other information required by the central bank. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect The Banking Ombudsman is a senior official in the rank of Chief General Manager or General Manager appointed by the Reserve Bank of India to redress customer complaints against deficiency in certain banking services. The tenure of a banking ombudsman is for a period not exceeding 3 years. In 2018, RBI introduced an Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC’s) to redress customer complaints against NBFCs for deficiency in certain services covered under the grounds of complaint specified under Clause 8 of the Scheme. The appeal lays before an appellate authority i.e. the Deputy Governor in charge of the Department of the Reserve Bank implementing the Scheme. The ombudsman is required to send an annual report to the RBI governor containing general review of the activities of his office during the preceding financial year and other information required by the central bank. -
Question 13 of 34
13. Question
The RuPay, the first-of-its-kind global Card payment network of India was launched by:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
RuPay is a product of National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), the umbrella organisation that powers retail payments in the country. The provision under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, empowered the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) to create a secure electronic payment and settlement system in India. The nature of NPCI’s initiatives and objectives includes it under the “Not for Profit Company” under the provisions of Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 and more recently under the Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013. (Hence option b is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
RuPay is a product of National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), the umbrella organisation that powers retail payments in the country. The provision under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007, empowered the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) to create a secure electronic payment and settlement system in India. The nature of NPCI’s initiatives and objectives includes it under the “Not for Profit Company” under the provisions of Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 and more recently under the Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013. (Hence option b is correct)
-
Question 14 of 34
14. Question
What is the primary benefit of Core Banking Solutions (CBS) for customers?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation
Core Banking Solutions (CBS) can be defined as a solution that enables banks to offer a multitude of customer-centric services on a 24×7 basis from a single location, supporting retail as well as corporate banking activities. The centralisation thus makes a “one-stop” shop for financial services a reality. Using CBS, customers can access their accounts from any branch, anywhere, irrespective of where they have physically opened their accounts. (Hence option c is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation
Core Banking Solutions (CBS) can be defined as a solution that enables banks to offer a multitude of customer-centric services on a 24×7 basis from a single location, supporting retail as well as corporate banking activities. The centralisation thus makes a “one-stop” shop for financial services a reality. Using CBS, customers can access their accounts from any branch, anywhere, irrespective of where they have physically opened their accounts. (Hence option c is correct)
-
Question 15 of 34
15. Question
If the reserve requirement is increased, what happens to the money multiplier?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation
A money multiplier is a method of demonstrating the maximum amount of broad money that commercial banks could create for a given fixed amount of base money and reserve ratio. Money multiplier (m) is the inverse of the reserve requirement which means if the reserve requirement is increased, then the money multiplier will increase. (Hence option b is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation
A money multiplier is a method of demonstrating the maximum amount of broad money that commercial banks could create for a given fixed amount of base money and reserve ratio. Money multiplier (m) is the inverse of the reserve requirement which means if the reserve requirement is increased, then the money multiplier will increase. (Hence option b is correct)
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Question 16 of 34
16. Question
With reference to Developmental Banks in India, consider the following statements:
- The Industrial Development Bank of India was originally established as a subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.
- The National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development focuses exclusively on the credit needs of rural areas and agriculture.
- The Small Industries Development Bank of India provides financial assistance to both small and medium enterprises in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- IDBI was established in 1964 as a subsidiary of RBI to provide financial assistance for industrial development in India. In 1976, it was made an independent financial institution. (Statement 1 is correct)
- NABARD’s primary focus is on agriculture and rural development, but it also supports infrastructure development, microfinance, and cottage industries in rural areas. It does not focus exclusively on agriculture. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
SIDBI is focused on promoting, financing, and developing micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs). It provides a wide range of financial products and services to this sector. (Statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- IDBI was established in 1964 as a subsidiary of RBI to provide financial assistance for industrial development in India. In 1976, it was made an independent financial institution. (Statement 1 is correct)
- NABARD’s primary focus is on agriculture and rural development, but it also supports infrastructure development, microfinance, and cottage industries in rural areas. It does not focus exclusively on agriculture. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
SIDBI is focused on promoting, financing, and developing micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs). It provides a wide range of financial products and services to this sector. (Statement 3 is correct)
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Question 17 of 34
17. Question
With reference to the classification of banks in India, consider the following statements:
- Payments Banks are allowed to accept demand deposits and provide loans to their customers.
- Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) have been established to primarily serve rural areas and focus on providing banking services to weaker sections of society.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Payments Banks are allowed to accept demand deposits (up to a certain limit, currently ₹2 lakh per individual), provide remittance services, and issue debit cards, but they are not allowed to provide loans or issue credit cards. The primary function of Payments Banks is to enhance financial inclusion by offering basic banking service. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
- RRBs were established with the objective of providing banking services, such as credit and savings, to rural areas, specifically to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans, and other economically weaker sections. They play a crucial role in financial inclusion in rural areas. (Statement 2 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Payments Banks are allowed to accept demand deposits (up to a certain limit, currently ₹2 lakh per individual), provide remittance services, and issue debit cards, but they are not allowed to provide loans or issue credit cards. The primary function of Payments Banks is to enhance financial inclusion by offering basic banking service. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
- RRBs were established with the objective of providing banking services, such as credit and savings, to rural areas, specifically to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, artisans, and other economically weaker sections. They play a crucial role in financial inclusion in rural areas. (Statement 2 is correct)
-
Question 18 of 34
18. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) in India?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- D-SIBs are identified by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), based on the bank’s size, interconnectedness, substitutability, and complexity, not by the Central Government. The RBI uses specific criteria to assess the systemic importance of banks. (Option (a) is incorrect)
- The D-SIB framework requires a detailed evaluation based on the systemic importance scores (SISs), not merely based on a bank’s asset size relative to GDP. The 1% of GDP criterion is only a guideline for assessing systemic importance, but does not automatically classify a bank as a D-SIB. (Option (b) is incorrect)
- As of the latest review, SBI, ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank continue to be classified as D-SIBs by the RBI. No new banks have been added to this list recently. (Option (c) is correct)
D-SIBs are required to maintain additional capital buffers beyond the minimum regulatory requirements. This additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital varies based on the bank’s placement in different “buckets” of systemic importance, as per the RBI’s D-SIB framework. (Option (d) is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- D-SIBs are identified by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), based on the bank’s size, interconnectedness, substitutability, and complexity, not by the Central Government. The RBI uses specific criteria to assess the systemic importance of banks. (Option (a) is incorrect)
- The D-SIB framework requires a detailed evaluation based on the systemic importance scores (SISs), not merely based on a bank’s asset size relative to GDP. The 1% of GDP criterion is only a guideline for assessing systemic importance, but does not automatically classify a bank as a D-SIB. (Option (b) is incorrect)
- As of the latest review, SBI, ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank continue to be classified as D-SIBs by the RBI. No new banks have been added to this list recently. (Option (c) is correct)
D-SIBs are required to maintain additional capital buffers beyond the minimum regulatory requirements. This additional Common Equity Tier 1 (CET1) capital varies based on the bank’s placement in different “buckets” of systemic importance, as per the RBI’s D-SIB framework. (Option (d) is incorrect)
-
Question 19 of 34
19. Question
With reference to monetary policy tools used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), consider the following statements:
- When liquidity in the banking system is tight, RBI is likely to conduct a reverse repo operation.
- If inflationary pressures are rising, RBI is likely to increase the repo rate.
- If the rupee is appreciating too fast, RBI is likely to buy foreign currency.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- A reverse repo is a tool used by RBI to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system. When liquidity is tight, RBI is more likely to inject liquidity through repo operations rather than reverse repo. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
- To control rising inflation, the RBI may increase the repo rate. This action makes borrowing more expensive, thus reducing demand and helping to control inflation. (Statement 2 is correct)
When the rupee appreciates too quickly, the RBI may intervene by buying foreign currency, primarily U.S. dollars, to curb excessive rupee strength. This helps maintain export competitiveness. (Statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- A reverse repo is a tool used by RBI to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system. When liquidity is tight, RBI is more likely to inject liquidity through repo operations rather than reverse repo. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
- To control rising inflation, the RBI may increase the repo rate. This action makes borrowing more expensive, thus reducing demand and helping to control inflation. (Statement 2 is correct)
When the rupee appreciates too quickly, the RBI may intervene by buying foreign currency, primarily U.S. dollars, to curb excessive rupee strength. This helps maintain export competitiveness. (Statement 3 is correct)
-
Question 20 of 34
20. Question
Consider the following statements about scheduled banks:
- All banks which are included in the Second Schedule to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 are Scheduled Banks.
- Cooperative banks are not eligible for scheduled bank status.
- Number of Payment Banks have received Scheduled status from RBI in the recent past.
Identify the correct statements:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Scheduled Banks are those that are listed under the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. They meet certain criteria laid down by RBI, including a minimum paid-up capital and reserves, and they must also comply with RBI’s regulations. Being in this schedule provides them access to certain facilities, such as borrowing from the RBI for day-to-day liquidity needs. (Statement 1 is correct)
- Cooperative banks can be eligible for scheduled status if they meet the criteria outlined by the Reserve Bank of India. In fact, some state cooperative banks and urban cooperative banks have been granted the status of scheduled banks. An example is the State Cooperative Bank of India, which has scheduled status. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
Recently, certain payment banks like Airtel Payment Bank and Paytm Payment Bank have been granted scheduled bank status. This enables them to participate in government-operated payment schemes and enhances their ability to serve customers. (Statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Scheduled Banks are those that are listed under the Second Schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. They meet certain criteria laid down by RBI, including a minimum paid-up capital and reserves, and they must also comply with RBI’s regulations. Being in this schedule provides them access to certain facilities, such as borrowing from the RBI for day-to-day liquidity needs. (Statement 1 is correct)
- Cooperative banks can be eligible for scheduled status if they meet the criteria outlined by the Reserve Bank of India. In fact, some state cooperative banks and urban cooperative banks have been granted the status of scheduled banks. An example is the State Cooperative Bank of India, which has scheduled status. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
Recently, certain payment banks like Airtel Payment Bank and Paytm Payment Bank have been granted scheduled bank status. This enables them to participate in government-operated payment schemes and enhances their ability to serve customers. (Statement 3 is correct)
-
Question 21 of 34
21. Question
With reference to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) consider the following statements:
- It is a convention that seeks to address all threats to biodiversity and ecosystem services.
- Conference of the Parties (COP) is its governing body.
- Its CoP meeting takes place every year.
- The Secretariat of the CBD is based in Montreal, Canada.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The 16th Conference of Parties (COP16) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is set to begin in Cali, Colombia. The meeting, starting on October 21, is the first time the Parties are meeting since the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) was adopted in 2022.
- Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) with currently 196 contracting parties, is the most comprehensive binding international agreement in the field of nature conservation and the sustainable use of natural resources.
- It covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems, species, and genetic resources. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It was opened for signing at the UN Conference on Environment and Development in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
- It has three overarching objectives:
- The conservation of biological diversity (genetic diversity, species diversity, and habitat diversity).
- The sustainable use of biological diversity.
- The fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
- Conference of the Parties (COP) is its governing body. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The meeting of CoP takes place every two years. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- The Secretariat of the CBD is based in Montreal, Canada. Hence statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The 16th Conference of Parties (COP16) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is set to begin in Cali, Colombia. The meeting, starting on October 21, is the first time the Parties are meeting since the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (KMGBF) was adopted in 2022.
- Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) with currently 196 contracting parties, is the most comprehensive binding international agreement in the field of nature conservation and the sustainable use of natural resources.
- It covers biodiversity at all levels: ecosystems, species, and genetic resources. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It was opened for signing at the UN Conference on Environment and Development in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
- It has three overarching objectives:
- The conservation of biological diversity (genetic diversity, species diversity, and habitat diversity).
- The sustainable use of biological diversity.
- The fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources.
- Conference of the Parties (COP) is its governing body. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The meeting of CoP takes place every two years. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- The Secretariat of the CBD is based in Montreal, Canada. Hence statement 4 is correct.
-
Question 22 of 34
22. Question
With reference to African Baobabs, consider the following statements:
- They are long-lived evergreen trees.
- The oldest baobab tree on record was the Panke baobab in Zimbabwe.
- They help keep soil conditions humid, aid nutrient recycling, and slow soil erosion.
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: New research by South African ecologists has refuted the claim that the African Baobab (Adansonia digitata) tree is dying due to climate change.
- African Baobabs are long-lived deciduous trees. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- They are small to large trees from 20 to 100 feet tall with broad trunks and compact tops.
- These trees can live to become thousands of years old.
- The oldest baobab tree on record was the Panke baobab in Zimbabwe. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- These solitary trees are also incredibly resilient, thriving in dry, open areas such as the savannas of southern Africa and western Madagascar.
- They help keep soil conditions humid, aid nutrient recycling, and slow soil erosion with their massive root systems. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It absorbs and stores water from the rainy season in its massive trunk, producing a nutrient-dense fruit in the dry season, which can grow up to a foot long.
- The fruit contains tartaric acid and Vitamin C, serving as a vital nutrient and food source for many species.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: New research by South African ecologists has refuted the claim that the African Baobab (Adansonia digitata) tree is dying due to climate change.
- African Baobabs are long-lived deciduous trees. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- They are small to large trees from 20 to 100 feet tall with broad trunks and compact tops.
- These trees can live to become thousands of years old.
- The oldest baobab tree on record was the Panke baobab in Zimbabwe. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- These solitary trees are also incredibly resilient, thriving in dry, open areas such as the savannas of southern Africa and western Madagascar.
- They help keep soil conditions humid, aid nutrient recycling, and slow soil erosion with their massive root systems. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It absorbs and stores water from the rainy season in its massive trunk, producing a nutrient-dense fruit in the dry season, which can grow up to a foot long.
- The fruit contains tartaric acid and Vitamin C, serving as a vital nutrient and food source for many species.
-
Question 23 of 34
23. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Moonlight Programme:
- It is the USA’s first-ever dedicated satellite constellation for telecommunication services for the Moon.
- Its prime focus is to offer coverage at the Moon’s North Pole.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The European Space Agency (ESA) at the International Astronautical Congress, launched its Moonlight Lunar Communications and Navigation Services (LCNS) programme.
- Moonlight Programme is Europe’s first-ever dedicated satellite constellation for telecommunication services for the Moon. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It will have a constellation of about five lunar satellites that will allow accurate autonomous landings, high-speed communication, and surface mobility.
- As part of the programme, the first step will be the launch of Lunar Pathfinder, a communications relay satellite built by Surrey Satellite Technology LTD, in 2026.
- The initial services of the programme will reportedly begin by the end of 2028, and the system is said to be fully operational by 2030.
- Its prime focus is to offer coverage at the Moon’s South Pole. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- The South Pole of the Moon is a key area for many missions owing to lighting conditions and the potential presence of water ice within craters that perpetually remain in the shadows.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The European Space Agency (ESA) at the International Astronautical Congress, launched its Moonlight Lunar Communications and Navigation Services (LCNS) programme.
- Moonlight Programme is Europe’s first-ever dedicated satellite constellation for telecommunication services for the Moon. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- It will have a constellation of about five lunar satellites that will allow accurate autonomous landings, high-speed communication, and surface mobility.
- As part of the programme, the first step will be the launch of Lunar Pathfinder, a communications relay satellite built by Surrey Satellite Technology LTD, in 2026.
- The initial services of the programme will reportedly begin by the end of 2028, and the system is said to be fully operational by 2030.
- Its prime focus is to offer coverage at the Moon’s South Pole. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- The South Pole of the Moon is a key area for many missions owing to lighting conditions and the potential presence of water ice within craters that perpetually remain in the shadows.
-
Question 24 of 34
24. Question
With reference to National Water Awards, consider the following statements:
- Its first edition was introduced by the Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation in 2018.
- It focuses on the good work and efforts made by individuals and organizations across the country in attaining the government’s vision of a ‘Jal Samridh Bharat’.
- The 5th National Water Awards of 2023, Uttar Pradesh secured first place in the category of Best State.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The Hon’ble President of India Smt. Droupadi Murmu will confer the 5th National Water Awards 2023 on October 22nd, 2024 at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
- The first edition of the National Water Awards was introduced by the Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation in 2018. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It creates awareness among the people about the importance of water and motivates them to adopt the best water usage practices.
- It focuses on the good work and efforts made by individuals and organizations across the country in attaining the government’s vision of a ‘Jal Samridh Bharat’. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The 5th National Water Awards, 2023, is given for 09 categories viz Best State, Best District, Best Village Panchayat, Best Urban Local Body, Best School or College, Best Industry, Best Water User Association, Best Institution (other than school or college), and Best Civil Society.
In the 5th National Water Awards of 2023, Odisha secured first place in the category of Best State followed by Uttar Pradesh at the second position, and Gujarat and Puducherry jointly securing the third position. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The Hon’ble President of India Smt. Droupadi Murmu will confer the 5th National Water Awards 2023 on October 22nd, 2024 at Vigyan Bhawan, New Delhi.
- The first edition of the National Water Awards was introduced by the Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation in 2018. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It creates awareness among the people about the importance of water and motivates them to adopt the best water usage practices.
- It focuses on the good work and efforts made by individuals and organizations across the country in attaining the government’s vision of a ‘Jal Samridh Bharat’. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The 5th National Water Awards, 2023, is given for 09 categories viz Best State, Best District, Best Village Panchayat, Best Urban Local Body, Best School or College, Best Industry, Best Water User Association, Best Institution (other than school or college), and Best Civil Society.
In the 5th National Water Awards of 2023, Odisha secured first place in the category of Best State followed by Uttar Pradesh at the second position, and Gujarat and Puducherry jointly securing the third position. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 25 of 34
25. Question
Consider the following pairs:
Naval Exercise Countries - Exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr
India and Oman - Indra
India and USA - Samudra Shakti
India and Sri Lanka - Exercise Za’ir-Al-Bahr
India and Qatar How many pair/s is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: INS Trikand and Dornier Maritime Patrol Aircraft, participated in the Indo-Oman bilateral naval exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr with the Royal Navy of Oman Vessel Al Seeb off Goa from 13 to 18 October 24.
Naval Exercise Countries - Exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr
India and Oman - Indra
India and Russia - Samudra Shakti
India and Indonesia - Exercise Za’ir-Al-Bahr
India and Qatar Hence option b is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: INS Trikand and Dornier Maritime Patrol Aircraft, participated in the Indo-Oman bilateral naval exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr with the Royal Navy of Oman Vessel Al Seeb off Goa from 13 to 18 October 24.
Naval Exercise Countries - Exercise Naseem-Al-Bahr
India and Oman - Indra
India and Russia - Samudra Shakti
India and Indonesia - Exercise Za’ir-Al-Bahr
India and Qatar Hence option b is correct.
-
Question 26 of 34
26. Question
Recently in the news, NNC2215 is related to which of the following disease?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Scientists have made a breakthrough in developing what has been long called the “holy grail” diabetes treatments — a “smart” insulin that responds in real-time to fluctuations in one’s blood sugar level.
NNC2215 is the newly developed insulin to treat diabetes. It comprises two parts: a ring-shaped structure, and a molecule with a similar shape to glucose called a glucoside. When blood sugar levels are low, the glucoside binds to the ring, keeping the insulin in an inactive state to prevent further lowering of blood sugar. But, as blood glucose rises, the glucoside is replaced by glucose itself, triggering the insulin to shift its shape and become active, helping bring blood sugar levels down to safer ranges. Hence option c is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Scientists have made a breakthrough in developing what has been long called the “holy grail” diabetes treatments — a “smart” insulin that responds in real-time to fluctuations in one’s blood sugar level.
NNC2215 is the newly developed insulin to treat diabetes. It comprises two parts: a ring-shaped structure, and a molecule with a similar shape to glucose called a glucoside. When blood sugar levels are low, the glucoside binds to the ring, keeping the insulin in an inactive state to prevent further lowering of blood sugar. But, as blood glucose rises, the glucoside is replaced by glucose itself, triggering the insulin to shift its shape and become active, helping bring blood sugar levels down to safer ranges. Hence option c is correct.
-
Question 27 of 34
27. Question
With reference to Sri Singeeswarar Temple, consider the following statements:
- It is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva.
- It is located in Tamil Nadu.
- It was built by Rajaraja Chola in the year 976 AD.
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: A set of copper plate inscriptions with two leaves dating back to the 16th Century CE have been discovered at the Sri Singeeswarar temple at Mappedu village in Tiruvallur district recently.
- Sri Singeeswarar Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is located at Mappedu Village near Perambakkam in Thiruvallur District of Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is built in the Dravidian architecture style, and the Rajagopuram consists of 5 tiers.
- The temple was built by Aditya Karikalan II in the year 976 AD. He is the father of the great Chola emperor Rajaraja Cholan, who built the Thanjavur Big Temple. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- Later, during the reign of Krishnadevaraya, his viceroy, Dalavai Ariyanadha Mudaliar, used his influence and built the Rajagopuram-Main Tower, compound wall, and 16-pillar Mandap in the year 1501.
- The presiding deity is called Singeeswarar. Singeeswarar is found in the form of a slightly big Shiva Lingam in the sanctum.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: A set of copper plate inscriptions with two leaves dating back to the 16th Century CE have been discovered at the Sri Singeeswarar temple at Mappedu village in Tiruvallur district recently.
- Sri Singeeswarar Temple is a Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- It is located at Mappedu Village near Perambakkam in Thiruvallur District of Tamil Nadu. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- It is built in the Dravidian architecture style, and the Rajagopuram consists of 5 tiers.
- The temple was built by Aditya Karikalan II in the year 976 AD. He is the father of the great Chola emperor Rajaraja Cholan, who built the Thanjavur Big Temple. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
- Later, during the reign of Krishnadevaraya, his viceroy, Dalavai Ariyanadha Mudaliar, used his influence and built the Rajagopuram-Main Tower, compound wall, and 16-pillar Mandap in the year 1501.
- The presiding deity is called Singeeswarar. Singeeswarar is found in the form of a slightly big Shiva Lingam in the sanctum.
-
Question 28 of 34
28. Question
With respect to Malaria, consider the following statements:
- It is a bacterial disease spread to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
- It is not contagious and cannot spread from one person to another.
- Egypt was officially declared ‘malaria-free’ by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2024.
Select the correct answer using the code below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Egypt is the 5th African nation to receive ‘malaria-free’ certification from the World Health Organization, bringing the total number of certified malaria-free countries and territories to 44.
- Malaria is an acute febrile illness caused by Plasmodium parasites that is spread to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Five species of parasites can cause malaria in humans and 2 of these species – Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax – pose the greatest threat.
- It is a life-threatening disease primarily found in tropical countries.
- It is not contagious and cannot spread from one person to another. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The first symptoms of malaria usually begin within 10–15 days after the bite from an infected mosquito.
- Fever, headache, and chills are typically experienced, though these symptoms may be mild and difficult to recognize as malaria.
- Egypt was officially declared ‘malaria-free’ by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2024. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It is preventable and curable. Vector control is the main approach to prevent malaria and reduce transmission.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Egypt is the 5th African nation to receive ‘malaria-free’ certification from the World Health Organization, bringing the total number of certified malaria-free countries and territories to 44.
- Malaria is an acute febrile illness caused by Plasmodium parasites that is spread to people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
- Five species of parasites can cause malaria in humans and 2 of these species – Plasmodium falciparum and Plasmodium vivax – pose the greatest threat.
- It is a life-threatening disease primarily found in tropical countries.
- It is not contagious and cannot spread from one person to another. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- The first symptoms of malaria usually begin within 10–15 days after the bite from an infected mosquito.
- Fever, headache, and chills are typically experienced, though these symptoms may be mild and difficult to recognize as malaria.
- Egypt was officially declared ‘malaria-free’ by the World Health Organization (WHO) in 2024. Hence statement 3 is correct.
- It is preventable and curable. Vector control is the main approach to prevent malaria and reduce transmission.
-
Question 29 of 34
29. Question
Which of the following organization released the Climate Change and Nuclear Power Report?
Correct
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The 2024 edition of the IAEA’s Climate Change and Nuclear Power Report has been released on the margins of the Clean Energy Ministerial (CEM) in Brazil.
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) released the Climate Change and Nuclear Power Report. It highlighted the need for a significant increase in investment to achieve goals for expanding nuclear power. According to the report, global investment in nuclear energy must increase to 125 billion USD annually, up from the around 50 billion USD invested each year from 2017-2023, to meet the IAEA’s high case projection for nuclear capacity in 2050. Hence option c is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Statement Analysis:
Context: The 2024 edition of the IAEA’s Climate Change and Nuclear Power Report has been released on the margins of the Clean Energy Ministerial (CEM) in Brazil.
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) released the Climate Change and Nuclear Power Report. It highlighted the need for a significant increase in investment to achieve goals for expanding nuclear power. According to the report, global investment in nuclear energy must increase to 125 billion USD annually, up from the around 50 billion USD invested each year from 2017-2023, to meet the IAEA’s high case projection for nuclear capacity in 2050. Hence option c is correct.
-
Question 30 of 34
30. Question
With reference to Bioluminescence, consider the following statements:
- It is a natural phenomenon produced primarily by microscopic plankton called dinoflagellates.
- In general, it is widespread among surface marine animals either to evade predators, attract prey, or during mating.
- It is exhibited by many marine creatures like sponges, jellyfish, worms, species of fish, anthropods, echinoderms, and unicellular alga.
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Residents of Thiruvanmiyur and Neelankarai experienced a stunning spectacle on Friday night as stretches of the beach glowed with bioluminescence.
- Bioluminescence is a natural phenomenon produced primarily by microscopic plankton called dinoflagellates. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- This occurs when the luciferase enzyme reacts with the luciferin compound in the presence of oxygen to produce a cold light.
- In general, it is widespread among deep marine animals either to evade predators, attract prey, or during mating. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- It is widespread in lagoons and sometimes breakwaters and is particularly visible during warm weather conditions.
It is exhibited by many marine creatures like sponges, jellyfish, worms, species of fish, anthropods, echinoderms, and unicellular alga. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Statement Analysis:
Context: Residents of Thiruvanmiyur and Neelankarai experienced a stunning spectacle on Friday night as stretches of the beach glowed with bioluminescence.
- Bioluminescence is a natural phenomenon produced primarily by microscopic plankton called dinoflagellates. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- This occurs when the luciferase enzyme reacts with the luciferin compound in the presence of oxygen to produce a cold light.
- In general, it is widespread among deep marine animals either to evade predators, attract prey, or during mating. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
- It is widespread in lagoons and sometimes breakwaters and is particularly visible during warm weather conditions.
It is exhibited by many marine creatures like sponges, jellyfish, worms, species of fish, anthropods, echinoderms, and unicellular alga. Hence statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 31 of 34
31. Question
How many triangles can be formed from a set of 15 points where, 5 are collinear?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Number of triangles = 15C3 – 5C3
= 455 – 10 = 445
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Number of triangles = 15C3 – 5C3
= 455 – 10 = 445
-
Question 32 of 34
32. Question
Passage – 1
Wildfires are predicted to worsen in the coming years and decades, the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) has warned in its annual Frontiers report released February 17, 2022. Wildfires are a natural phenomenon, but are becoming more dangerous and affecting larger areas. The UN report has attributed this to climate change and human activities. “The trends towards more dangerous fireweather conditions are likely to increase due to rising concentrations of atmospheric greenhouse gases and the attendant escalation of wildfire risk factors,” Inger Andersen, executive director, UNEP, said in her foreword. Such extreme events are disastrous for human health and the environment, the report warned. The document has been released 10 days ahead of the UN Environment Assembly. There has been a rapid expansion of cities towards forest areas in many regions in recent decades. This wildland-urban interface is the area where wildfire risks are most pronounced, the report said, citing rising fires in California, United States.
Which one of the following statements best implies the crux of the passage?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement (a) is incorrect. According to the passage, wildfires are a natural phenomenon. They may be caused even without climate change. Human activities and climate change have increased their scale and intensity. Even if the statement is partially correct on its own, it is not the best implied crux of the passage.
Statement (b) is correct. The entire passage is based on the occurrence and the reasons for intensification of the wildfires. The passage mentions that greenhouse gas emission will intensify the occurrence of wildfires. The greenhouse gases emitted by human activity are responsible for climate change, which in turn is responsible for intensification of wildfires. Furthermore, their adverse consequences and relatively high intensity in wildland-urban interface should be carefully studied to minimise the damages. Hence, it is a correct option.
Statement (c) is incorrect. The passage mentions that such events are harmful and disastrous for human health and the environment. It is a correct statement but cannot be the crux of the entire passage.
Statement (d) is incorrect. According to the passage, the place where an intersection of urban areas and wild land occurs, are the areas where risk of wildfire is very noticeable. It is a correct statement but does not reflect the crux of the passage.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement (a) is incorrect. According to the passage, wildfires are a natural phenomenon. They may be caused even without climate change. Human activities and climate change have increased their scale and intensity. Even if the statement is partially correct on its own, it is not the best implied crux of the passage.
Statement (b) is correct. The entire passage is based on the occurrence and the reasons for intensification of the wildfires. The passage mentions that greenhouse gas emission will intensify the occurrence of wildfires. The greenhouse gases emitted by human activity are responsible for climate change, which in turn is responsible for intensification of wildfires. Furthermore, their adverse consequences and relatively high intensity in wildland-urban interface should be carefully studied to minimise the damages. Hence, it is a correct option.
Statement (c) is incorrect. The passage mentions that such events are harmful and disastrous for human health and the environment. It is a correct statement but cannot be the crux of the entire passage.
Statement (d) is incorrect. According to the passage, the place where an intersection of urban areas and wild land occurs, are the areas where risk of wildfire is very noticeable. It is a correct statement but does not reflect the crux of the passage.
-
Question 33 of 34
33. Question
Based on the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made:
- The dip in demand for electricity in Africa, North America and parts of Europe was offset by the corresponding increase in Asia.
- Nations should not only invest in ensuring net-zero emission through nuclear power, but also in ensuring the safety of the process.
Which of the above assumptions is/are invalid?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
The question is about invalid assumption – not valid ones.
Assumption 1 is an invalid assumption. Refer to the lines, “In 2020, power generation declined in Africa, North America and in West and Central Europe. Generation rose in Asia, although by a much smaller amount than in recent years”. The author only says that the rise in electricity generation was less in Asia as compared to recent years. We get no indication from the passage that this rise was able to ‘offset’ the fall in demand in other parts of the world. So, this statement is an invalid assumption.
Assumption 2 is also invalid. The line, “Nuclear electricity generation will need to double between 2020 and 2050 if the world is to meet its net-zero ambitions”, shows that nuclear power can help achieve net-zero ambition of the world, but the given option also includes the aspect of safety which has not been discussed anywhere in the passage. So, to assume that nations should invest in the safety of nuclear power generation is beyond the scope of the passage. Hence, the statement is not a valid assumption.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
The question is about invalid assumption – not valid ones.
Assumption 1 is an invalid assumption. Refer to the lines, “In 2020, power generation declined in Africa, North America and in West and Central Europe. Generation rose in Asia, although by a much smaller amount than in recent years”. The author only says that the rise in electricity generation was less in Asia as compared to recent years. We get no indication from the passage that this rise was able to ‘offset’ the fall in demand in other parts of the world. So, this statement is an invalid assumption.
Assumption 2 is also invalid. The line, “Nuclear electricity generation will need to double between 2020 and 2050 if the world is to meet its net-zero ambitions”, shows that nuclear power can help achieve net-zero ambition of the world, but the given option also includes the aspect of safety which has not been discussed anywhere in the passage. So, to assume that nations should invest in the safety of nuclear power generation is beyond the scope of the passage. Hence, the statement is not a valid assumption.
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Question 34 of 34
34. Question
Sonu planned to renovate his house. He had Rs. 27000 budget, out of which he spent 12% on floor work, 28% on painting, and some percent on construction of boundary around the house. In the last he was left with Rs. 8100 in his hand. How much percent of the budget did he spend on construction of boundary around the house?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Let us assume that he spent x percent on constructing the boundary.
Amount spent on floor work = 12×27000/100 (∵ His overall budget is Rs. 27000)
Amount spent on painting work = 28×27000/100
Amount spent on boundary construction = x × 27000/100
Left amount = Rs. 8100
According to the question,
(12×27000/100) + (28×27000/100) + (x × 27000/100) + 8100 = 27000
⟹ (27000/100) (12+28+x) = 27000 – 8100
⟹ (27000/100) (40+x) = 18900
⟹ 40+x = (18900×100)/27000
⟹ 40+x = 70
⟹ x = 30, i.e. 30%
Thus, Sonu spent 30% on construction of the boundary around the house.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Alternate Method:
Let’s calculate the percent amount left.
Amount left = (8100/27000) × 100 = 30%
Spend on painting = 28%
Spend on floor work = 12%
Let percentage amount spent on construction of boundary around the house be y%.
According to the question,
30+28+12+y = 100
Or y = 30%
Thus, Sonu spent 30% on construction of boundary around the house.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Let us assume that he spent x percent on constructing the boundary.
Amount spent on floor work = 12×27000/100 (∵ His overall budget is Rs. 27000)
Amount spent on painting work = 28×27000/100
Amount spent on boundary construction = x × 27000/100
Left amount = Rs. 8100
According to the question,
(12×27000/100) + (28×27000/100) + (x × 27000/100) + 8100 = 27000
⟹ (27000/100) (12+28+x) = 27000 – 8100
⟹ (27000/100) (40+x) = 18900
⟹ 40+x = (18900×100)/27000
⟹ 40+x = 70
⟹ x = 30, i.e. 30%
Thus, Sonu spent 30% on construction of the boundary around the house.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Alternate Method:
Let’s calculate the percent amount left.
Amount left = (8100/27000) × 100 = 30%
Spend on painting = 28%
Spend on floor work = 12%
Let percentage amount spent on construction of boundary around the house be y%.
According to the question,
30+28+12+y = 100
Or y = 30%
Thus, Sonu spent 30% on construction of boundary around the house.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
All the Best
IASbaba