[DAY 25] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

• Proportional representation is a voting system where seats in an elected body are distributed proportionally based on the number of votes each party or candidate receives. It aims to ensure fair representation by giving each party or candidate a share of seats corresponding to their share of the total votes. 
• Proportional representation weakens the traditional link between Members of Parliament (MPs) and their constituency. In PR systems, political parties gain seats in proportion to the percentage of votes they receive in an election, rather than through individual constituency victories. This means that MPs are often elected from party lists rather than being directly tied to specific geographic districts. As a result, the personal connection and accountability between MPs and their constituents can be diluted. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Proportional Representation can reduce accountability to voters, as an ousted party of government can retain office by finding new coalition partners after an election. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Proportional Representation promotes minority thinking and group interests. Unlike winner-takes-all systems, PR allows for a more accurate reflection of the diverse opinions and perspectives within society. It ensures that minority groups, which may not have significant representation in a single-member district system, can still have their voices heard and their interests represented. PR encourages the formation of multiple political parties, giving smaller parties and minority groups a better chance of gaining seats in the legislature. This promotes inclusivity and diversity in decision-making processes, leading to a more representative and inclusive democracy. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• Proportional Representation is highly expensive, PR often involves larger constituencies or multi-member districts, which require more extensive administrative efforts for voter registration, candidate nomination, and ballot counting. Also, PR systems may necessitate the use of complex and costly voting technologies, such as electronic voting machines or sophisticated counting methods.

 Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• The Leader of Opposition (LoP) has statutory recognition through the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act 1977. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The Leader of Opposition is not mentioned in the Constitution. 
• The official leader of the opposition was recognised for the first time in 1969 in India. The main functions of the Leader of Opposition (LoP) is to provide an alternative government and constructive criticism of the policies of the government. 
• The Leader of Opposition is entitled to the salary, allowances, and other facilities equivalent to that of a cabinet minister. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• According to a conventional understanding, in order to get the post of Leader of Opposition a party must have at least 10% of MPs in the House.

Currently, the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have their own Leader of Opposition. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

 Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

• The vacation of a member’s seat in the House of Parliament refers to the situation when a member’s seat becomes vacant due to various reasons such as resignation, absence from meetings without permission, disqualification, or defection. 
• A Member of Parliament can choose to resign by submitting a written letter to the respective Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The seat becomes vacant once the resignation is accepted. However, if the Chairman/Speaker believes that the resignation is not voluntary or genuine, they have the authority to reject it. 
• If a Member of Parliament is absent from all its meetings for a continuous period of sixty days without permission, the House has the authority to declare their seat vacant. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• The calculation of the sixty days excludes any period when the House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four consecutive days. 
• When a Member of Parliament becomes subject to any of the disqualifications mentioned in the Constitution, their seat becomes vacant. 

The disqualifications cover a range of conditions, including defection as outlined in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

• Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the Upper House of the Indian Parliament. 
• Rajya Sabha consists of the representatives of the States and the Union Territories and persons nominated by the President of India. 
• The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 

              The Special Powers of the Rajya Sabha are:

• Rajya Sabha can authorise the Parliament to make a law on a subject enumerated in the State List (Article 249). There is no such special power where Rajya Sabha has been given the power to authorise State Legislature to make a law on a subject enumerated in the union list. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Only the Rajya Sabha alone can initiate a move for the removal of the Vice-President. 
• Under Article 67, a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and not in the Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Under Article 312, Rajya Sabha can authorise the Parliament to create new All-India Services common to both the centre and states. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• In India, a Money Bill is a type of legislation that relates to the appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India, which is the main fund of the government. 
• Article 110 of the Constitution deals with the definition of Money Bills. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• According to the Constitution of India, a bill is considered a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the following matters:

• The imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax.
• The regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
• The custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund.
• The appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
• The declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure.
• The receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money.
• Any matter incidental to any of the matters specified above.

• The money bill’s defeat in the Lok Sabha leads to the resignation of the government. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Money bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and only with the recommendation of the President.
• Money bills are considered government bills and can only be introduced by a minister.
• After a money bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for consideration. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers with regard to money bills and can only make recommendations and cannot reject or amend the bill.
• The Rajya Sabha must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, with or without recommendations. The Lok Sabha can accept or reject any recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha.
• If the Lok Sabha accepts any recommendations, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the modified form.
• If the Lok Sabha does not accept any recommendations, the bill is deemed to have passed by both Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha without any change.
• If the Rajya Sabha does not return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha.
• The Lok Sabha has more powers than the Rajya Sabha with regard to money bills.
• When a money bill is presented to the President, he may give or withhold his assent to the bill but cannot return the bill for reconsideration. The President normally gives assent to a money bill as it is introduced in the Parliament with his prior permission.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

• The Constitution of India under Article 78 states that it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister of India to communicate all the decisions taken by the Council of Ministers with regard to the proposals for legislation and the administration of the Union’s affairs. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The Prime Minister of India advises the President in the matters of the appointment of important officials like the Attorney General of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, UPSC chairman and members, Election Commissioners, Chairman and members of the Finance Commission, etc.  Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

If the President of India requires that the Prime Minister shall submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister, but which has not been considered by the Council. Hence, Statement 3 is correct

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) have been set up to secure more accountability of the Executive to Parliament, particularly financial accountability. 
• Each Departmentally Related Standing Committee consists of 31 members (21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha). 
• The members from the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker, just as the members from the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the Chairman from amongst its members. 
• A minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the standing committees. 
• They are not constitutional bodies. On the recommendation of the Rules Committee of the Lok Sabha, 17 DRSCs were set up in Parliament in 1993. In 2004, seven more such committees were set up, thus increasing their number from 17 to 24. Out of the 24 Departmental Standing Committees, 8 work under the Rajya Sabha and 16 under the Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The term of office of each standing committee is one year from the date of its constitution. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• They secure more accountability of the Council of Ministers to the Parliament. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• DRSCs secure financial accountability on the Executive and assist the Parliament in debating the budget more effectively. 
• They aid and assist the legislature in discharging its duties and regulating its functions effectively, expeditiously, and efficiently. 
• They assist the Parliament in thoroughly and systematically scrutinizing the bills and matters that could not be discussed on the floor at length. These bills are referred to the Committee by the Chairman or the Speaker. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.
• The Committees also provide the expertise on a matter which is referred to them.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• Special Mention is a tool used to raise issues of public importance in Parliament. The mechanism of ‘special mention’ is confined to Rajya Sabha. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Its equivalent procedural device in the Lok Sabha is known as Notice (Mention) Under Rule 377. 

A matter that is not a point of order or which cannot be raised during question hour, half-an-hour discussion, short duration discussion, calling attention notice, or under any rule of the House can be raised under the special mention. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

• The Public Accounts Committee is a committee of selected Members of Parliament, constituted by the Parliament of India, to audit the revenue and expenditure of the Government of India. 
• At present, it consists of 22 members including 15 members from the Lok Sabha and 7 members from the Rajya Sabha. 
• The members are elected by the Parliament every year from amongst its members according to the principle of proportional representation using the single transferable vote. 
• The Public Accounts Committee was first set up in the wake of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms. It was set up first in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 and has since been in existence. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Public Accounts Committee can examine the accounts of autonomous and semiautonomous bodies if the audit of these bodies is conducted by the CAG. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It also examines the accounts of state corporations, trading concerns, and manufacturing projects and the audit report of CAG on them (except those public undertakings which are allotted to the Committee on Public Undertakings).
• The effectiveness of the role of the committee is limited by the following factors: 

• It is not concerned with the questions of policy in a broader sense. 
• It conducts a post-mortem examination of accounts (showing the expenditure already incurred). 
• It cannot intervene in the matters of day-to-day administration.
• It is not vested with the power of disallowance of expenditures by the departments. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
• It is not an executive body and hence, cannot issue an order. 
• Only the Parliament can take a final decision on its findings.

Solution (d)

Statement Analysis:

• Kitchen Cabinet is an informal extra-constitutional body that is not mentioned in the Constitution of India. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• It consists of the Prime Minister and two to four influential colleagues in whom he has faith and with whom he can discuss every problem. 
• It advises the prime minister on important political and administrative issues and assists him in making crucial decisions. 
• The Kitchen Cabinet is composed of not only cabinet ministers but also outsiders like friends and family members of the Prime Minister. 
• It comprises the Prime Minister, other cabinet members, and those from outside the government in whom the Prime Minister has confidence and trust. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The advice tendered by the Kitchen Cabinet is non-binding in nature. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
• It is found in the United States and the United Kingdom.

 Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

The Vice-President, like the president, is elected indirectly. The Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of all the members of both houses of Parliament. This includes both Nominated members of Parliament and elected members of Parliament. Hence, option b is correct.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• Parliamentary Privileges are special rights, immunities, and exemptions enjoyed by the members of the Parliament and their committees. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Under these privileges, the members of Parliament are exempted from any civil liability (but not criminal liability) for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties.
• They are defined in Article 105 of the Indian Constitution. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• They are rather based on constitutional provisions, various laws made by Parliament, rules of both the Houses, parliamentary conventions, and judicial interpretations.
• Parliament has not made any special law to exhaustively codify all the privileges. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 

Solution (a)

Statement Analysis:

The 17th Lok Sabha, which met from June 2019 to February 2024, conducted a noteworthy total of 274 sessions, lasting for 1,354 hours, and achieved a commendable work productivity rate of approximately 97%.

The functioning of the 17th Lok Sabha:

• The Ministries of Finance and Home Affairs piloted the highest number of Bills. It was followed by Law and Justice (9%) and Health and Family Welfare (9%). Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• Maximum use of digital technology is being made in parliamentary work while realising the vision of a paperless office in the 17th Lok Sabha. Presently, more than 97% of question notices are being given through electronic mediums.
• 729 Private Members’ Bills were introduced in this Lok Sabha. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• During the 17th Lok Sabha, 26,750 papers were laid by Ministers.
• Parliamentary Standing Committees presented a total of 691 reports and more than 69% of Committee recommendations were accepted by the government.

 Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• Motion of Thanks is a parliamentary procedure in which a formal motion is presented to express appreciation for the President’s address to both Houses of Parliament. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• The President’s Address is a statement of policy of the Government and, as such, is drafted by the Government. It contains a review of various activities and achievements of the Government during the previous year and sets out the policies, projects, and programmes which the Government wishes to pursue concerning important national and international issues.
• The address of the president is discussed in both Houses of Parliament through a motion called the ‘Motion of Thanks’. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• Article 87 of the Constitution of India states that the President will address both Houses of Parliament at the beginning of the first session after each general election and at the beginning of the first session of each year. The President will also inform Parliament of the reasons for its summons.
• The rules that govern the procedure of either House will make provisions for the allotment of time for discussion of the matters referred to in the address.
• If the Motion of Thanks is not passed in the House it leads to the defeat of the government. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• The limitation of the motion of thanks is that the members cannot refer to matters that are not under the direct responsibility of the central government or mention the name of the President in the debate.

Solution (c)

Statement Analysis:

• The Suspension of Members of Parliament is governed by the respective Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• In order to ensure that proceedings are conducted in the proper manner, the Speaker/ Chairman is empowered to force a Member to withdraw from the House.

Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha :

• Under Rule 373, the Speaker can direct a member to withdraw immediately from the House if he finds the member’s conduct disorderly.
• Under Rule 374, the Speaker can name a member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the House by persistently and wilfully obstructing the business thereof.
• Rule 374A was incorporated in the Rule Book in December 2001. In case of gross violation or severe charges, on being named by the Speaker, the member stands automatically suspended from the service of the House for five consecutive sittings or the remainder of the session, whichever is less.

Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Rajya Sabha:

• The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is empowered under Rule 255 of its Rule Book to “direct any Member whose conduct is in his opinion grossly disorderly to withdraw immediately” from the House.
• Under Rule 256, the Chairman may “name a Member who disregards the authority of the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council by persistently and wilfully obstructing” business.

The power to suspend is vested in the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Statement Analysis:

• The Ethics Committee was constituted first in Rajya Sabha in 1997 and then in Rajya Sabha in 2000. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• It enforces the code of conduct of members of Parliament. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It examines the cases of misconduct and recommends appropriate action. Thus, it is engaged in maintaining discipline and decorum in Parliament.

The Lok Sabha committee has 15 members while the Rajya Sabha committee has 10 members. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

 Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The first Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management was constituted by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha in 2005. Subsequently seven more forums were added and presently there are eight parliamentary forums. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. 
• The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio Chairperson/president of all the Forums except the Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health wherein the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the ex-officio President and the Speaker is the ex-officio, Co-President. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Parliamentary forums provide a platform for legislative members and political executives (Ministers) of the government to have discussion on critical issues faced by a nation. The forum facilitates meaningful interaction between Member of Parliaments (MPs) and the concerned Ministers which helps them in making informed decisions. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

There is no obligation on these forums to submit an annual report to the President of India. Hence Statement 4 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Indian Parliamentary Group is an autonomous body formed in the year 1949 in pursuance of a motion adopted by the Constituent Assembly (Legislative) on 16th August, 1948. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Membership of the Indian Parliamentary Group is open to all Members of Parliament and ex-Members of Parliament. A Member of Parliament can become a life Member of the Group on payment of life subscription. On ceasing to be a Member of Parliament, a life member of the Group is designated as ‘Associate Life Member’. The management and control of the affairs of the Group are vested in the Executive Committee. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex officio president of the Group. The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are the ex officio vice-presidents of the Group. The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha acts as the ex officio Secretary-General of the Group. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• It is true that IPG functions as the National Group of the Inter Parliamentary Union. IPU is the global organization of national parliaments that traces its origin to 1889 when it was started as small Parliamentary groups. IPU aims to facilitate parliaments and parliamentarians across the world to promote peace, democracy and sustainable development around the world. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Parliamentary groups do not organise conferences among speakers of State legislative assemblies. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.

It is true that Parliamentary groups aim to study questions of public importance by arranging seminars and discussions among members of this group. The group organises seminars and symposia on parliamentary subjects of topical interest at national as well as international level. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Quorum means the minimum number of people to be present in the assembly to hold meetings. The word quorum is mentioned in Article 100 and 189 of the constitution of India. Hence Statement a is incorrect. 
• The quorum to constitute a meeting of a House of the Legislature of a State shall be ten members or one-tenth of the total number of members of the House, whichever is greater. Hence Statement b is incorrect.
• It is the duty of the Speaker/Chairman of the house to adjourn the House or suspend the meeting in absence of a quorum. Hence Statement c is incorrect.

A provision regarding Quorum in State Legislature can be made by simple majority of the State Legislature. Hence Statement d is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Glacial lakes and other water bodies across the Himalayan region saw a 10.81% increase in area from 2011 to 2024 due to climate change, signalling a heightened risk of glacial lake outburst floods (GLOFs), according to a Central Water Commission’s (CWC) report. In this context, a question about Central Water Commission can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• • The Central Water Commission (CWC) is a premier technical organization of India in the field of water resources. It is entrusted with the general responsibilities of initiating, coordinating, and furthering, in consultation with the State Governments concerned, schemes for control, conservation, and utilization of water resources throughout the country for purposes of Flood Control, Irrigation, Navigation, Drinking Water Supply, and Water Power Development. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The Central Water Commission (CWC) is presently functioning as an attached office of the Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development, and Ganga Rejuvenation, Government of India. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

The National Water Academy, located in Pune, is responsible for training of central and state in-service engineers and it functions directly under the guidance of the Chairman. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• The global market for clean energy technologies is set to rise from $700 billion in 2023 to more than $2 trillion by 2035 – close to the value of the world’s crude oil market in recent years, says a first of its kind study by the International Energy Agency (IEA).

Explanation:

• International Energy Agency (IEA) is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation within the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) framework. It works with governments and industry to shape a secure and sustainable energy future for all. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• It was created in response to the 1973-1974 oil crisis when an oil embargo by major producers pushed prices to historic levels and exposed the vulnerability of industrialised countries to dependency on oil imports. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

It is made up of 31 member countries, 13 association countries, and 5 accession countries. India joined this organization in 2017 as an Associate member. Some of the reports published by it include World Energy Outlook, World Energy Balances, Energy Technology Perspectives, World Energy Statistics. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, Ningol Chakkouba festival was held with religious fervour and gaiety across the State of Manipur. In this context, UPSC can ask a question about the festival.

Explanation:

• The festival is held every year on the second day of the lunar month of Hiyangei of the Meitei calendar. The festival is mainly celebrated by the Meiteis but nowadays many other communities also have started to celebrate it as it emphasises the importance of happiness and reunion of a family in bringing peace and harmony in a society. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Ningol means ‘married woman’ and Chakouba means ‘invitation for feast’; so the festival is the one where the married women are invited to their parents’ home for a feast. The main component of the festival is the visit of married sisters to their maternal homes for grand feast and joyous reunion followed by giving away the gifts. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• Recently 3 children of Yanadi tribe were missing in Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh. In this context, a question about the tribe can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Yanadis are one of the major scheduled tribes of Andhra Pradesh. They are among the most vulnerable tribal groups in India. They live in extreme conditions of poverty and social exclusion. A significant population of Yanadis live in the plains of Nellore, a district in the eastern coastal state of Andhra Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

They have rich traditional health knowledge, including knowledge for everyday healthcare and specialized knowledge (e.g., snakebite cures). They harness the medicinal potential of plants for treating gastrointestinal disorders, respiratory ailments, skin conditions, and reproductive health issues. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, Sukhvinder Sukhu launched water sports at Bilaspur’s Gobind Sagar Lake. In this context, some basic questions can be asked by UPSC about the lake.

Explanation:

Gobind Sagar Lake is a manmade reservoir located in the Una and Bilaspur districts of Himachal Pradesh. It is named in honour of Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Sikh Guru. Its source is the Bhakra Dam on the Sutlej River. Gobind Sagar reservoir is 90 k.m. long and encompasses an area of approximately 170 sq. km. The maximum and mean depths of the reservoir are 163.07 m and 55 m, respectively, making it one of the deepest man-made lakes in the world. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Recently, Indonesia’s Mount Lewotobi Laki Laki erupted again, spewing a column of hot clouds from its peak three days after a midnight eruption killed nine people and injured dozens of others. In this context, the location of the volcano becomes important from the perspective of UPSC.

Explanation:

• Mount Lewotobi Laki Laki is a volcanic mountain situated in East Nusa Tenggara province of Indonesia. The volcano is part of a twin-volcano system that the local residents perceive as male and female mountains. The ongoing volcanic eruption has occurred at the male counterpart of the system (Lewotobi Lakilaki) while the female mountain is known as Lewotobi Perempuan. The two mountains are classified as stratovolcanoes which are the most commonly occurring volcanoes around the world and are formed by the layers of lava that repeatedly oozes out of the crater. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Scientists at the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA) Bengaluru recently reported the “first significant” results from the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC) payload onboard the ADITYA-L1 Mission. In this context, basic details about VELC become important from the perspective of UPSC.

Explanation:

• It is the primary payload of the Aditya-L1 Mission-India’s first mission to observe the Sun from a vantage point 1.5 million kilometres from the earth. It is an internally occulted solar coronagraph capable of simultaneous imaging, spectroscopy, and spectro-polarimetry close to the solar limb. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The VELC consists of a coronagraph, spectrograph, polarimetry module, and detectors, aside from auxiliary optics. It is built by the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (IIA), Bengaluru at its CREST (Centre for Research and Education in Science and Technology) campus in Hosakote. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

It will observe the solar corona, which is the tenuous, outermost layer of the solar atmosphere. It can image the solar corona down to 1.05 times the solar radius, which is the closest any such payload has imaged. It will analyze the coronal temperature, plasma velocity, density, etc. It will also study Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) and the solar wind. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• The US army would be carrying out a test launch of a Minuteman III hypersonic nuclear missile hours after voting close on Election Day. In this context, the missile becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• The LGM-30G Minuteman III is an American intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM). “L” in LGM is the US Department of Defense designation for silo-launched; “G” means surface attack; and “M” stands for guided missile. It first became operational in the early 1970s. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• It is the sole land-based component of the U.S. nuclear triad. Originally, it was only supposed to be kept in service for about ten years, but instead, it has been modernized as its replacement, the Ground-Based Strategic Deterrent (GBSD),is due to become available for use in 2029. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• It was the first U.S. missile fitted with multiple independently targetable re-entry vehicles (MIRVs). The United States currently has an estimated 440 Minuteman III missiles in its arsenal. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• Recently, the union minister of Science and Technology said that India will launch the European Space Agency’s Proba-3 mission early next month from the spaceport at Sriharikota. In this context, a question about the mission can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• It is the European Space Agency’s (ESA) first mission dedicated to precision formation flying. It is the innovative mission which will demonstrate precision formation flying between two satellites to create an artificial eclipse, revealing new views of the Sun’s faint corona. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The core objective of the mission is to create an artificial eclipse by precisely coordinating two independent satellites. This capability will enable scientists to observe the Sun’s corona, a region typically obscured by the intense brightness of the Sun. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, a rare ‘Cat Snake’ was spotted in Bihar’s Valmiki Tiger Reserve. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the snake.

Explanation:

• Common Cat Snake, also known as Indian gamma snake, is a species of rear-fanged snake endemic to South Asia. While venomous, the Common Cat Snake’s venom is not considered highly dangerous to humans. It primarily uses its venom to subdue prey. Unlike other cat snakes of its range, this species bears characteristic “gamma” or “Y”-shaped marking that helps in its quick identification on the field. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

In India, it is found all over the country, excluding north-east states after Sikkim; it is also, not found in Indian islands. It can be found in almost all kinds of forests and wide ranges of elevations. It is a medium-sized snake that is usually found in the 70-100 cm range. It comes in the category of least concern under IUCN Red list. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (a) 

Statement Analysis:

Option (a) is correct:  The passage mentions the Global Tax Evasion Report 2024 which calls for taxing billionaires globally. This would help in checking tax evasion. The passage says that “This would both address evasion and “generate nearly $250 billion from less than 3,000 individuals”. This implies that the amount raised by taxing billionaires would be substantial. Hence, option (a) is correct. 

Option (b) is not correct: The passage mentions tax evasion as the reason why billionaires enjoy lower tax. However, there is no mention of inadequate policy implementation or corrupt bureaucracy as a reason for lower tax rates for billionaires. Hence, option (b) is not correct.  

Option (c) is not correct: The central theme of the passage is to check tax evasion by billionaires by offering lower tax rates. This would help in the collection of $250 billion from billionaires. The tax havens are mentioned in the context of the places having stored undeclared income. Scrutinizing them to check tax evasion can be one of the logical suggestions, however, the same is not mentioned in the passage. Hence, option (c) is not correct. 

Option (d) is not correct:  The passage mentions the need for taxing the wealth of rich individuals and that their undeclared money is stashed in tax havens. There is no direct connection established between tax havens thriving due to the undeclared money of billionaires being stored there. Moreover, tax havens are not the main focus of the passage. Hence, option (d) is not correct. 

Solution (c) 

Statement Analysis:

Option (a) is not correct: According to the passage, the protein rhodopsin is responsible for vision in humans and microalgae use it in place of chlorophyll to survive in the oceans. The same phenomenon is not taking place in both ecosystems, even though the same biochemical is used. It can be assumed that the biochemical rhodopsin is being utilised by humans and microalgae differently and hence as far as the information in the passage is concerned, it is not the ‘same’ phenomenon that is occurring on land and water. Even if it was, we could not have generalized it based on just one example. Hence, option (a) is not correct. 

Option (b) is not correct: The passage mentions the adaptation of the microalgae to the changing environment and how it has adapted to the effects of global warming. The passage does not talk about climate mitigation, or whether biochemical like rhodopsin may prove helpful in such a cause.  

Option (c) is correct: Consider the line, “As climate change reduces the availability of nutrients in the sea, marine microalgae or eukaryotic phytoplankton fire up a protein called rhodopsin”. This implies that microalgae are adopting to changing external environment. It is further mentioned in the passage, “Estimates suggested they may absorb as much light as chlorophyll-based photosynthesis in the sea, which also captures light to generate energy and food”. These lines imply that rhodopsin replaces chlorophyll in microalgae to facilitate food production. This way, the passage revolves around the theme of adaptability to changing external conditions. Hence, option (c) is correct. 

Option (d) is not correct:  The passage revolves around the theme of adaptability by taking the case of microalgae and discussing the process of their survival in the absence of chlorophyll. The passage does not mention the effects of adaptability on productivity. The passage only narrates how adaptability can help in survival in a changing environment. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Solution (d) 

Explanation:

Total number of flashlights = 20 

Number of defective flashlight = 20 × (2/5) = 8 

Number of working flashlights = 20 – 8 = 12 

Three flashlights can be selected from 20 flashlights in 20C3 ways. 

Number of ways of drawing 3 flashlights from 8 defective flashlights is 8C3. 

So, the probability that all the three flashlights are defective = 8C3/20C3 = [8!/{3!(8 – 3)!}] / [20!/{3!(20 – 3)!}] = 14/285  

The probability that at least one flash light is good = 1 – Probability that no flashlight is good = 1– (14/285) = 271/285                             

Hence, option (d) is the right answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Let o, t, f denote the number of toys of one rupee, three rupees and five rupees respectively. Then according to the question,

o + 3t + 5f= 200 (i)

o =St (ii)

From equations (i) and (ii), we get:

(8t + 3t) + 5f= 200 

Or 11 t + 5f= 200

Clearly, t must be a multiple of 5.

Number of three-rupee toys is more than 10. So, t > 10. 

Thus, values oft can be 15, 20, …..

But t= 20 is not possible as 11 x (20) = 220 >200

Thus t= 15, o=8t=8×15= 120

f = (200 – 11t)/5 = (200 – 11 x 15)/5 = 7

Thus, there are 15 + 7 + 120 = 142 toys in all. 

Hence, option (c) is the right answer.

Solution (b) 

Explanation:

Average of 6 numbers = a 

Thus, the sum of six numbers = 6a………………(i) 

Now, out of 6 numbers there are 3 numbers at even positions and 3 at odd positions.  

Average of numbers occurring at even places = b. 

So, sum of numbers at even positions = 3b…………(ii) 

Similarly, average of numbers occurring at odd places = c So, sum of numbers at odd positions = 3c. ………….(iii)

From (i), (ii) and (iii), we get: 

6a = 3b + 3c 

Thus, 2a = (b + c) 

Hence, option (b) is the right answer.