[DAY 30] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution: Option (d) 

Explanation:

Usually grain crops like rice, wheat etc, needs a lot of nutrition. Repeated growing of these crops rob the land from its nutrients. Hence it is ideal to rotate them with leguminous crops so that their fertility can be regained through nitrogen fixation.

Hence Option d is the correct answer.

Solution: Option (d) 

Explanation: 

Mixed cropping is growing two or more crops simultaneously on a piece of land, this reduces  risk and if the insects and some microorganisms attack anyone’s crop the two crops also get  spoiled, and is difficult to spray pesticides to crops. Intercropping is the growing of two or  more crops simultaneously on a piece of land in definite patterns. This method of cropping  can give a better yield. 

• Crop rotation is the practice of planting different crops sequential’ on the same plot of land  to impro soil health, optimize nutrients in the soil, and combat pest and weed pressure. Mixed  farming is the one in which there is rearing of livestock. The livestock enterprises are 

complementary to crop production so as to provide a balanced and productive system of  farming.  

Hence Option d is the correct answer.

 Solution: Option (c) 

Explanation: 

Blue revolution refers to the intense growth of the aquaculture industry by the rapid increase  in fish and marine products. It was first begun in China. China accounts for around two-thirds  of total aquaculture production worldwide. 

Hence Option c is the correct answer.

Solution: Option (a) 

Explanation: 

The setting up of NDMA is mandated by the Disaster Management Act,2005. • It is a Statutory Body for disaster management in the country. 

• It is mandated to lay down the policies, plans and guidelines for Disaster Management. India  envisions the development of an ethos of Prevention, Mitigation, Preparedness and Response. • It is the apex body for Disaster Management in India. 
• It is the nodal division in the Ministry of Home Affairs for disaster management. • The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is headed by the Prime Minister of  India. 
• The Prime Minister is the Ex-official Chairman of the National Disaster Management  Authority.

IASBABA’S DAY 30-60 DAY PLAN 

• The Cabinet Minister is the Vice-Chairman. 

The NDMA Secretariat, headed by a Secretary, is responsible for providing secretarial support  and continuity. 

• NDMA has 8 Ministers of State as its Members. 
• It develops practices, delivers hands-on training and organizes drills for disaster  management. 

Some of the key responsibilities- 

• Lay down policies on disaster management. 
• Approve the National Plan. 
• Provide such support to other countries affected by major disasters as may be determined  by the Central Government. 
• Take such other measures for the prevention of disaster, or the mitigation, or preparedness  and capacity building for dealing with threatening disaster situations or disasters as it may  consider necessary. 

Hence Option a is the correct answer.

Solution: Option (c) 

Explanation: 

The farmers specialize in vegetables only, this type of farming is known as Truck farming. • In the regions where farmers specialize in vegetables only, the farming is known as Truck  farming, and the distance of truck farms from the market is governed by the distance that a  truck can cover overnight, hence the name truck farming. 

• Vegetable farms are in some regions known as truck farms: “truck” is a noun for which its  more common meaning overshadows its historically separate use as a term for”vegetables are  grown for the market”. The production of crops of some vegetables on an extensive scale in  regions especially suited to their culture primarily for shipment to distant markets known as  Truck farming. 
• The major truck-farming areas are in California, Texas, Florida, along the Atlantic Coastal  Plain, and in the Great Lakes area.Centres for specific crops vary with the season. Among the  most important truck crops are tomatoes, lettuce, melons, beets, broccoli, celery, radishes,  onions, cabbage, and strawberries. 

Hence Option C is the correct answer.

 Solution: Option (b) 

Explanation: 

The National Disaster Management 

Authority (NDMA) is the apex statutory body for disaster management in India. • The Disaster Management Act was passed by Parliament in 2005. 

• The NDMA may have not more than Nine members including Vice-Chairman. • Hence, Options (1), (3) and (4) are correct. 

• The Prime Minister acts as a Chairperson of the NDMA instead of the Union Home Minister.  Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Solution: Option (c) 

Explanation: 

The mixing of fertilizer or chemicals in irrigation water is called Fertigation. • Fertigation is a method in which fertilizer is mixed within the irrigation water by the drip  system. 

• In this system, fertilizer solution is distributed evenly in irrigated land. The availability of  nutrients is very high therefore the efficiency is more and reducing the losses.

IASBABA’S DAY 30-60 DAY PLAN 

• In this method, both liquid fertilizers, as well as water-soluble fertilizers, are used. By this  method, fertilizer use efficiency is increased from 80 to 90 per cent. 

Hence Option C is the correct answer.

Solution: Option (c)  

Explanation: 

• Drip Irrigation is indeed a type of micro-irrigation system that allows water to drip slowly to  the roots of plants. This method is more suitable for crops with space between two rows as it  can be precisely controlled and delivers water directly to the plant roots. It is very useful for  fruit trees as it provides the right amount of water and nutrients directly to the roots.This  method saves water by reducing evaporation and runoff, making it a highly efficient irrigation  method. 

Hence Option C is the correct answer.

Solution: Option (c) 

Explanation: 

Wind Energy:

IASBABA’S DAY 30-60 DAY PLAN 

• It is a type of renewable energy which is restricted to geographical areas where the wind is  relatively constant. It involves rotation of the wind turbines (mechanical energy) due to rotor  to spin (kinetic energy) and generation of electricity using a generator. Direct energy  conversion usually implies the elimination of mechanical rotary machinery (turbines). Wind  turbines are used to convert wind energy to electricity. India is ranked fifth in the world with  a total wind power capacity of 10° MW. In India, states such as Gujarat, Maharashtra,  Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh have great potential for wind energy. 

Hence Option C is the correct answer.

Solution: Option (d)  

Explanation: 

Not a single silicon chip for solar energy is manufactured in India. Every solar panel which is  made in India is assembled while all the material comes other countries. India is yet to develop  semiconductor clusters. India plans to invest $480 million to set up its first unit for  manufacturing solar silicon cells that will feed a project to build the world’s largest solar power  plant. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission regulate the tariff of generating companies  owned or controlled by the Central Government. Solar Energy Corporation of India Limited  (SECI) has a power trading license. 

Hence Option D is the correct answer.

 Solution: Option (a) 

Explanation: 

Photovoltaic (PV) devices generate electricity directly from sunlight using PV cells made up of  semiconductors. 

• Photovoltaic devices convert optional radiation into electricity. 
• Several solar thermal systems can collect and transform radiant energy received from the sun into high-temperature thermal (heat) energy, which can be used  directly or converted into electricity. Hence Statement 1 is Correct. 

• Solar energy can be converted directly into electrical energy (direct current, DC) by  photovoltaic (PV) cells commonly called solar cells. Hence Statement 2 is not Correct. • India has a manufacturing base for Solar Thermal technology as well c for Photovoltaics.  Hence Statement 3 is not Correct.

 Solution: Option (b) 

Explanation: 

Geothermal energy uses the heat generated by the Earth’s core to produce clean energy.  Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.

Geothermal Energy is the only renewable energy source that is unaffected by day-night. The  main advantage of geothermal energy is its low cost. Hence Statement 2 and 3 are correct.

Solution: Option (d) 

Explanation: 

In India, Northwestern Himalayas and the western coast are considered geothermal areas. • The USA has the world’s largest geothermal power plants followed by New Zealand, Iceland,  the Philippines and Central America. 

• The Puga valley in the Ladakh region has the most promising geothermal field. Hence,  statement 1 is correct 
• The Geological Survey of India has already identified more than 350 hot spring sites, which  can be explored as areas to tap geothermal energy. 
• Geothermal energy can pose several environmental problems which include on-site noise,  emissions of gas and disturbance at drilling sites. 

• The steam contains hydrogen sulphide gas, which has the odour rotten eggs and causes air  pollution. Hence, statement 3 is correct. The minerals in the steam are also toxic to fish and  they are corrosive to pipes, and equipment, requiring constant maintenance. • To promote wider geothermal energy development, IRENA coordinates and facilitates the  work of the Global Geothermal Alliance (GGA) – a platform for enhanced dialogue and  knowledge sharing for coordinated action to increase the share of installed geothermal  electricity and heat generation worldwide. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution: Option (b) 

Explanation: 

Biofuel Production 

• Land and Water Flexibility: Algae-based biofuels can be produced on land, saline water, or  wastewater, not just in seas. They can also grow on non-cropland and brackish or polluted  water. Land-Based Systems: These systems are more advanced and widely used compared to  sea-based systems. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 
• Technological and Expertise Requirements 
• Pre-Commercial Stage: The production of algae-based biofuels requires high levels expertise  and advanced technology, especially during the setup and construction stages. Capital Investment: Developing countries often face challenges in capital investments due to  the pre-commercial nature of this technology. Hence, statement 2 is correct. • Ecological and Social Concerns :Impact on Food and Resources: Large-scale production  facilities may compete with food production, raising concerns about food shortages and  increased costs. 

• Environmental Impact: Such facilities may also have ecological implications, affecting local  ecosystems. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution: Option (d)  

Explanation: 

Green hydrogen 

• It is produced with the help of electrolysis through electricity generated from renewable  sources of energy such as solar and wind. Hence, statement 1 is correct. An electric current then splits the water into hydrogen and oxygen. Hence, statement 2 is  correct. 
• This ensures no greenhouse gas emissions as the only byproduct of this process is oxygen,  making it a great replacement for carbon-emitting fuels. Hence, statement 3 is correct. • Green Chemicals like ammo and methanol can directly be utilized in existing applications like  fertilizers, mobility, power, chemicals, shipping etc 

Green Hydrogen blending up to 10% may be adopted in CGD networks to gain widespread  acceptance. 

• It is a clean-burning molecule, which can decarbonize a range of sectors including iron and  steel, chemicals, and transportation. 
• Renewable energy that cannot be stored or used by the grid can be channelled to produce  hydrogen.

 Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of oxygen that  microorganisms, such as bacteria, need to break down the organic matter in a given  water sample. The more organic waste present in the water, the more oxygen the  bacteria will need for decomposition. BOD is a critical indicator of water quality, especially in aquatic ecosystems, and is used to assess the pollution levels in water  bodies.

• The higher the BOD value, the greater the amount of organic pollutants in the water.  This is because a higher concentration of organic matter means that more oxygen will  be required for the bacteria to decompose it. High BOD levels indicate significant  organic pollution in a water body, which can lead to oxygen depletion and negatively  impact aquatic life. (Hence Option (c) is correct)

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• Land Degradation Neutrality (LDN) is a globally recognized framework initiated by the  United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD). LDN aims to balance  land degradation with efforts to improve land productivity, ecosystem services, and  human well-being. It integrates sustainable land management, biodiversity  conservation, and poverty reduction, especially in desertification-prone areas. 
• The National Watershed Development Programme focuses on improving the  management of watersheds for agricultural productivity and water resource  conservation, primarily in rainfed areas. 
• The National Mission on Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) focuses on climate-resilient  agriculture practices, including water-efficient cropping systems, improving soil health,  and agroforestry. 
• The Soil Health Card Scheme is an initiative by the Government of India to provide  farmers with information on soil fertility and recommendations on nutrient  management. 

Hence Option A is the correct answer.

Solution: Option (a) 

Explanation: 

• The “Shoonya – Zero Pollution Mobility” initiative, led by NITI Aayog, aims to enhance  air quality in India by expediting the adoption of electric vehicles (EVs) for ride-hailing  and delivery services. Derived from the Sanskrit word for zero, “Shoonya” signifies the  inception of possibilities. Inspired by this meaning, the campaign intends to transform  the transportation sector through a swift transition to zero-emission vehicles. The  campaign focuses on creating awareness among consumers and acknowledging  industry efforts towards sustainable mobility. The Shoonya campaign aims to pave the  way for 100% electrification in India’s urban final-mile connectivity and delivery sector. Hence Option A is the correct answer. 

Solution: Option (b) 

Explanation: 

• The Union Cabinet approved Mission Mausam on September 11, 2024, with a budget  outlay of 2,000 crores over two years, is an ambitious initiative of the Government of  India Statement one is not correct.

IASBABA’S DAY 30-60 DAY PLAN 

• Mission Mausam has the goal of making Bharat a “Weather-ready and Climate-smart”  nation, so as to mitigate the impact of climate change and extreme weather events  and strengthen the resilience of the communities. Currently the Mission Mausam will  be implemented during 2024-26 and it seeks to exponentially enhance the country’s  weather and climate observations, understanding, modelling and forecasting, leading  to better, more useful, accurate and timely services. Statement two is correct 
• Three institutes of the Ministry Earth Science: IMD, NCMRWF and the Indian Institute  of Tropical Meteorology, will primarily implement Mission Mausam. These institutions  will be supported by other Ministry Earth Science institutions (Indian National Centre  for Ocean Information Services and National Institute of Ocean Technology) along with  collaborating national and international institutes, academia and industries, furthering  India’s leadership in weather and climate sciences and services. Statement three is  not correct 

● According to the secretary of the Ministry of Earth Science, Mission Mausam will  improve forecasts on both spatial and temporal scales and air quality data and help  strategize weather management/intervention in the long run. “By March 2026, we are  looking at installing a wider network of radars, wind profilers, and radiometers for  better observations. Statement four is correct

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• Red tides are caused by the rapid growth of certain types of algae, mainly  dinoflagellates, which produce toxins. These algal blooms can give the water a reddish  or brownish color and are harmful to marine life due to the toxins produced, leading  to mass fish deaths, shellfish poisoning, and even harm to humans in some cases.  These events are often related to changes in water temperature, nutrient availability,  or other environmental factors. (Option (a) is correct) 
• Rising sea levels are a consequence of global warming but are unrelated to the  phenomenon of red tides. Rising sea levels are caused by the melting of polar ice caps  and the thermal expansion of water due to global temperature increases, but they do  not cause discoloration of water or toxic algal blooms. (Option (b) is incorrect) 
• High tides caused by the gravitational pull of the moon are known as spring tides, and  while these tides can be stronger during specific lunar events, they are unrelated to  the concept of red tides, which are algal blooms, not tidal phenomena. (Option (c) is  incorrect)

• Increased temperatures in coral reefs lead to coral bleaching, where corals expel the  symbiotic algae living in their tissues, causing the corals to turn white. This is unrelated  to red tides, which involve the discoloration of water due to algal blooms, not changes  in coral color. (Option (d) is incorrect)

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

Context: The Maha Kumbh Mela 2025, a sacred pilgrimage, will be held in Prayagraj  from 13th January to 26th February 2025. 

Kumbh Mela is the largest peaceful congregation of pilgrims on earth, during which  participants bathe or take a dip in a sacred river. It takes place at 4 different places as below:

Hence option b is correct. 

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2070943

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

Context: The Centre launched an initiative, called Partnerships for Accelerated Innovation  and Research (PAIR), to support research in universities, especially central and state public  universities. 

• The Partnerships for Accelerated Innovation and Research (PAIR) Initiative is an  initiative of the Anusandhan National Research Foundation (ANRF). Hence statement  1 is correct. 
• ANRF has been established with the ANRF 2023 Act. It aims to seed, grow, and  promote research and development (R&D) and foster a culture of research and  innovation throughout India’s universities, colleges, research institutions, and R&D  laboratories. 
• ANRF will act as an apex body to provide high-level strategic direction of scientific  research in the country as per recommendations of the National Education Policy  (NEP). 
• It cultivates research excellence in central and state public universities by fostering  collaborations with top-tier institutions. Hence statement 2 is correct. • Its objectives are: 

o Stimulate scientific innovation in institutions with limited research, in a mentorship  mode by leveraging the knowledge and expertise of top-ranking institutions. o Support internationally competitive research with substantial impact and outcome.

o Foster successful and productive collaborative networks between diverse institutions. o Propel the advancement of institutions by (i) upscaling and building advanced  research infrastructure and capabilities, (ii) enhancing the quality of research and (iii)  facilitating infusion of best practices and research culture. 

Source: https://www.newindianexpress.com/nation/2024/Nov/14/centre-launches initiative-to-support-research-innovation-in-varsities 

https://anrfonline.in/ANRF/PAIR?HomePage=New#:~:text=PAIR%20Program%20has%20bee n%20designed,a%20hub%20and%20spoke%20framework

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

Context: High temperatures and reduced salinity in Sambhar Lake may have created  conditions conducive to avian botulism, resulting in the mass deaths of migratory birds in  Rajasthan. 

• Avian Botulism is caused by the ingestion of a toxin produced by the bacterium  Clostridium botulinum, which leads to paralysis and can be fatal for birds. Hence  statement 1 is incorrect. 
• These bacterial spores are widespread in wetland sediments and are found in most  wetland habitats. 
• Conditions like high temperatures, low oxygen levels, and an abundance of organic  nutrients may contribute to outbreaks among birds. Hence statement 2 is correct. • There are seven types of botulism toxins (A-G). Wild birds are affected by type C and  type E. 
• It is widespread in invertebrates such as insects, molluscs, and crustaceans, as well as  in many vertebrates, including healthy birds. Hence statement 3 is correct.

Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/wildlife-biodiversity/extreme-weather-may-have triggered-avian-botulism-leading-to-600-bird-deaths-in-rajasthan

Solution (d) 

Explanation: 

Context: The Chhattisgarh government notified the Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla in the state  as India’s 56th tiger reserve. 

• Guru Ghasidas-Tamor Pingla Tiger Reserve is the third-largest tiger reserve in India. Hence statement 1 is correct. 
• It is spread over a total area of 2,829.387 sq km. 
• It is the fourth tiger reserve in Chhattisgarh after Achanakmar, Indravati, and Udanti  Sitanadi. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• It is spread across four districts, Manendragarh-Chirmiri-Bharatpur (MCB), Korea,  Surajpur, and Balrampur in the northern tribal Sarguja region of Chhattisgarh. • It falls between Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh and Palamau Tiger  Reserve in Jharkhand. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• It is adjacent to Sanjay Dubri Tiger Reserve, also in MP. 
• The reserve comprises a wide range of wildlife species (apart from tigers) such as  elephants, sloth bears, vultures, peacocks, wolves, leopards, otters, chitals, jackals,  nilgai, bison, hyenas, langurs, cobras, etc. 
• The reserve is also rich in flora — comprising sal, saja, dhavda, kusum, etc.

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Image Source: https://ntca.gov.in/tiger-reserves/#tiger-reserves-2 

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/chhattisgarhs-newest-tiger-reserve 9684697/ 

https://ntca.gov.in/tiger-reserves/#tiger-reserves-2

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

Context: A team of botanists from the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) has identified Dicliptera  srisailamica, a flowering plant found in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. 

• Dicliptera srisailamica is a flowering plant found in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra  Pradesh and Telangana. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. 
• It was found in rare patches along stream banks and rocky edges near waterfalls. • It is named after the temple town of Srisailam. Hence statement 2 is correct. • Belonging to the Acanthaceae family, Dicliptera srisailamica adds to the diversity of  

this plant family, which is represented globally by 223 known species. In India, the  Dicliptera genus includes 27 species, eight of which are endemic to the country.  Andhra Pradesh alone is home to seven recorded species of Dicliptera, contributing  significantly to the flora of the Eastern Ghats. 

• It is an erect herb, reaching up to 90 cm, with four-angled stems covered in fine,  deflexed hairs when young. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
• Its leaves are ovate, with prominent veins and smooth margins. 
• The plant blooms with small, pink, bi-lipped flowers arranged in clusters, commonly  seen from October to January. 

Source: https://www.newindianexpress.com/states/andhra-pradesh/2024/Nov/15/new flowering-plant-species-discovered-in-eastern-ghats-of-andhra-telangana

Solution (b) 

Explanation:

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Context: The annual meeting of the Joint Electromagnetic Board (JEMB), a subcommittee of  the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC) featured the launch of the AI-enabled e-Tarang System,  which will enable automated, efficient planning and management of Defence Spectrum, as  well as support development of newer technologies in higher frequency bands. 

• AI-enabled e-Tarang System was launched by the Ministry of Defence. Hence  statement 1 is incorrect. 
• It is a unique software, developed in collaboration with Bhaskaracharya National  Institute for Space Applications and Geo-informatics (BISAG-N). 
• It will improve planning for the interference-free operation of defence equipment. Hence statement 2 is correct. 
• It will enable automated, efficient planning and management of the Defence  Spectrum, as well as support the development of newer technologies in higher  frequency bands. 
• It is set to support rapid decision-making, thereby allowing seamless integration of  newer technologies critical for modern defence applications. 

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2073259

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

Context: National Press Day is celebrated every year on November 16th, honouring the  essential role of a free and responsible press in our society.

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• The Press Council of India was set up based on the recommendations of the First  Press Commission under the chairmanship of Justice J.R Mudholkar. Hence  statement 1 is correct. 
• It was first set up in 1966 by the parliament. 
• Its primary function is to check the media practice and to keep an eye on the  freedom of the press. 
• It is a statutory, quasi-judicial body that acts as a watchdog of the press in India. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 
• The present council functions under the Press Council Act of 1978. 
• It adjudicates the complaints either against the Press for violation of journalistic  ethics or by the Press for interference with its freedom. 
• It consists of a Chairman and 28 other members. 
• Its Chairman is nominated by a committee consisting of the Chairman of Rajya Sabha,  the Speaker of Lok Sabha, and one representative of the council member. Hence  statement 3 is correct. 
• The Chairman, by convention, has been a retired judge of the Supreme Court. • The term of the Chairman and the members of the Council is 3 years. Source:  

https://pib.gov.in/PressNoteDetails.aspx?NoteId=153422&ModuleId=3&reg=3&lang=1

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

Context: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Wednesday retained the State Bank of India,  HDFC Bank, and ICICI Bank as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs).

• Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs) are banks that are considered ‘Too  Big to Fail’ (TBTF) within the domestic economy. Hence statement 1 is correct. • These banks are classified based on the potential economic disruption if they fail. • They are subjected to additional regulatory measures like capital buffers, stress tests,  and recovery and resolution planning to enhance their resilience and ability to  withstand financial shocks. 
• This is due to their size, complexity, and interconnections with the financial  system. Hence statement 2 is correct. 

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/business/domestic-systemically-important-banks d-sibs-banks-big-fail-9667745/

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

Context: A new study says scientists have discovered a “black hole triple” in space for the  first time. 

1. A Black Hole includes a singular black hole whereas a Black Hole Triple System  includes one central black hole and two stars. Hence statement 1 is correct. 2. A Black Hole is found across the universe whereas the Black Hole Triple System is  found about 8,000 light years away in the constellation Cygnus. Hence statement 2 is  incorrect.

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Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-sci-tech/first-black-hole triple-system-discovered-what-does-it-mean-9649210/

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• Context: The union government informed Kerala that the Wayanad landslides of July  30 cannot be declared a national calamity, and expressed the view that sufficient funds  are available with the state for relief operations. 
• In India, the Disaster Management Act of 2005, defines a disaster as a “catastrophe,  mishap, calamity or grave occurrence” arising from natural or man-made causes that  result in substantial loss of life, destruction of property, or damage to the environment.  Currently, 12 disasters are classified as Notified Disaster in India. They are cyclones,  droughts, earthquakes, fires, floods, tsunamis, hailstorms, landslides, avalanches,  cloud bursts, pest attacks and frost, and cold waves. Hence option c is correct. 

• Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/cities/thiruvananthapuram/kerala-has enough-funds-cant-declare-wayanad-landslides-a-national-calamity-centre-9670538/

Solution (b)  

Explanation 

Statement 1 is incorrect: As mentioned in the passage, attractive social security schemes are  one reason why the labor force readily quit their job. Therefore, this is not the only reason for  the labor force to quit their jobs.  

Statement 2 is correct: As the passage suggests in the initial lines, the aging population and  the longevity of the individuals is putting a great amount of pressure on the financial viability  of the social security schemes. 

Solution (b) 

Explanation 

Statement 1 is incorrect: Even though the author lists the negatives that have crept on account  of sluggish progress in the education system, it cannot be explicitly assumed on the basis of  the paragraph that Indian education system is not successful on a qualitative front. That would  rather be an extreme assumption.  

Statement 2 is correct: On the basis of the sentence” There is an urgent… for education”. One  can assume that an innovative approach is required for Indian education system.

 Solution (d)  

Explanation 

Let’s take the L.C.M. of 5, 3 and 7.  

L.C.M. of 5, 3, 7 = 105  

According to the question, every time 2 saplings were left.  

Thus, Aniket had 107 saplings at least.  

Hence, option (d) is the right answer. 

Alternate method: Let’s see the options.  

We see that 107 is the only one, which if divided by 5, 3, 7, leaves a remainder of 2.  Hence, option (d) is the right answer. 

 Solution (b) 

Explanation 

Let principal = x 

It becomes 3x in 4 years.  

It becomes 9x in next 4 years, i.e. in 8 years.  

It becomes 27x in next 4 years, i.e. in 12 years.  

It becomes 81x in next 4 years, i.e. in 16 years.  

From S1:  

From above we know that after 12 years it would become 27 times the original amount. So,  S1 is not correct.  

From S2: 

After 16 years it would be ₹405000.  

Principal = ₹5000  

A/P = 405000/5000 = 81  

Thus, after 16 years, amount will be 81 times the original amount.  

So, S2 is correct. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Solution (c)  

Explanation 

Total number of pens in the bag = 12  

Three pens can be drawn from 12 pens in 12C3 ways.  

We can draw a blue pen out of 3 blue pens in 3C1 ways.  

Similarly, a green pen can be drawn in 4C1 ways.