IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
Archives
Hello Friends
The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
To Know More about 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series – CLICK HERE
60 Day Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series Schedule – CLICK HERE
Important Note
- Comment your Scores in the Comment Section. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come.
- It will help us come out with the Cut-Off on a Daily Basis.
- Let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
Test-summary
0 of 35 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
Information
The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2025 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2025.
To view Solutions, follow these instructions:
- Click on – ‘Start Test’ button
- Solve Questions
- Click on ‘Test Summary’ button
- Click on ‘Finish Test’ button
- Now click on ‘View Questions’ button – here you will see solutions and links.
You have already completed the test before. Hence you can not start it again.
Test is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the test.
You have to finish following test, to start this test:
Results
0 of 35 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have scored 0 points out of 0 points, (0)
| Average score |
|
| Your score |
|
Categories
- Not categorized 0%
| Pos. | Name | Entered on | Points | Result |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Table is loading | ||||
| No data available | ||||
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- 31
- 32
- 33
- 34
- 35
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 35
1. Question
Which of the following is the deepest part of the ocean?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Oceanic Deeps or Trenches are the deepest parts of the oceans. The trenches are relatively steep-sided, narrow basins. They are some 3-5 km deeper than the surrounding ocean floor. They occur at the bases of continental slopes and along island arcs and are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes. That is why they are very significant in the study of plate movements. As many as 57 deeps have been explored so far; of which 32 are in the Pacific Ocean; 19 in the Atlantic Ocean and 6 in the Indian Ocean. (Hence option d is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Oceanic Deeps or Trenches are the deepest parts of the oceans. The trenches are relatively steep-sided, narrow basins. They are some 3-5 km deeper than the surrounding ocean floor. They occur at the bases of continental slopes and along island arcs and are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes. That is why they are very significant in the study of plate movements. As many as 57 deeps have been explored so far; of which 32 are in the Pacific Ocean; 19 in the Atlantic Ocean and 6 in the Indian Ocean. (Hence option d is correct)
-
Question 2 of 35
2. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about the ocean floor?
- The continental shelf is the shallowest part of the ocean.
- The continental shelf occupies 7% of the sea floor.
3. Continental rise is the area between the continental shelf and the sea floor. Select the correct option using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part The continental shelf is the seaward extension of land that lies under the seawater. It occupies 7% of the sea floor. The Continental rise is a major depositional regime in oceans made up of thick sequences of continental material that accumulate between the IASBABA’S DAY 31-60 DAY PLAN
of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break. The width of the continental shelves varies from one ocean to another. The average width of continental shelves is about 80 km. The shelves are almost absent or very narrow along some of the margins like the coasts of Chile, the west coast of Sumatra, etc. width of the continental shelves varies from one ocean to another. The average width of continental shelves is about 80 km. The continental slope occupies 9% of the seafloor. It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope.
continental slope and the abyssal plain. Continental rises form as a result of three sedimentary processes: mass wasting, the deposition from contour currents, and the vertical settling of clastic and biogenic particles. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part The continental shelf is the seaward extension of land that lies under the seawater. It occupies 7% of the sea floor. The Continental rise is a major depositional regime in oceans made up of thick sequences of continental material that accumulate between the IASBABA’S DAY 31-60 DAY PLAN
of the ocean showing an average gradient of 1° or even less. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break. The width of the continental shelves varies from one ocean to another. The average width of continental shelves is about 80 km. The shelves are almost absent or very narrow along some of the margins like the coasts of Chile, the west coast of Sumatra, etc. width of the continental shelves varies from one ocean to another. The average width of continental shelves is about 80 km. The continental slope occupies 9% of the seafloor. It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope.
continental slope and the abyssal plain. Continental rises form as a result of three sedimentary processes: mass wasting, the deposition from contour currents, and the vertical settling of clastic and biogenic particles. -
Question 3 of 35
3. Question
With reference to the continental shelf, consider the following statements.
- The Siberian shelf in the Arctic Ocean is the largest continental shelf in the world. 2. The limited depth and gentle slope of the continental shelf increase the height of the tide.
- It begins where the bottom of the continental slope sharply drops off into a steep slope.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The shelves are almost absent or very narrow along some of the margins like the coasts of Chile, the west coast of Sumatra, etc. On the contrary, the Siberian shelf in the Arctic The limited depth and gentle slope of the continental shelf keep out cold undercurrents and increase the height of the tide. This sometimes hinders shipping and other The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing IASBABA’S DAY 31-60 DAY PLAN
Ocean, the largest in the world, stretches to 1,500 km in width. The depth of the shelves also varies. It may be as shallow as 30 m in some areas while in some areas it is as deep as 600 m. marine activities since ships can only enter and leave port on the tide. Note: The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins. It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope.
an average gradient of 1° or even less. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Incorrect The shelves are almost absent or very narrow along some of the margins like the coasts of Chile, the west coast of Sumatra, etc. On the contrary, the Siberian shelf in the Arctic The limited depth and gentle slope of the continental shelf keep out cold undercurrents and increase the height of the tide. This sometimes hinders shipping and other The continental shelf is the extended margin of each continent occupied by relatively shallow seas and gulfs. It is the shallowest part of the ocean showing IASBABA’S DAY 31-60 DAY PLAN
Ocean, the largest in the world, stretches to 1,500 km in width. The depth of the shelves also varies. It may be as shallow as 30 m in some areas while in some areas it is as deep as 600 m. marine activities since ships can only enter and leave port on the tide. Note: The continental slope connects the continental shelf and the ocean basins. It begins where the bottom of the continental shelf sharply drops off into a steep slope.
an average gradient of 1° or even less. The shelf typically ends at a very steep slope, called the shelf break. -
Question 4 of 35
4. Question
Which of the following statements are correct about ocean trenches?
- They occur at the bases of continental slopes and along island arcs. 2. They are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Ocean deeps or trenches are the deepest parts of the oceans and occur at the bases of continental slopes and along island arcs. Trenches are long, narrow, and very deep and, while most are in the Pacific Ocean, can be found around the world. The deepest trench in the world, the Mariana Trench located near the Mariana Islands, is 1,580 miles long and averages just 43 miles wide. Trenches are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes thus, very significant in the study of plate movements. All trenches are associated with zones of earthquake foci. Along the periphery of the Pacific Ocean, earthquakes occur close to and landward of the trenches, at depths within the Earth of 55 km (34 miles) or less. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Ocean deeps or trenches are the deepest parts of the oceans and occur at the bases of continental slopes and along island arcs. Trenches are long, narrow, and very deep and, while most are in the Pacific Ocean, can be found around the world. The deepest trench in the world, the Mariana Trench located near the Mariana Islands, is 1,580 miles long and averages just 43 miles wide. Trenches are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes thus, very significant in the study of plate movements. All trenches are associated with zones of earthquake foci. Along the periphery of the Pacific Ocean, earthquakes occur close to and landward of the trenches, at depths within the Earth of 55 km (34 miles) or less. -
Question 5 of 35
5. Question
With reference to the ocean floor, consider the following statements.
- Submarine canyons show evidence of gradual subsidence to become flat-topped submerged mountains.
- A mid-oceanic ridge is composed of two chains of mountains separated by a large depression.
- Atolls are low islands found in the tropical oceans.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Guyots is a flat-topped seamount. They show evidences of gradual subsidence through stages to become flat topped submerged mountains. It is estimated that more than 10,000 seamounts and guyots exist in the Pacific Ocean alone. Submarine Canyons are deep valleys, some comparable to the Grand Canyon of the Colorado River.
A mid-oceanic ridge is composed of two chains of mountains separated by a large depression. The mountain ranges can have peaks as high as 2,500 m and some even reach above the ocean’s surface. Iceland, a part of the mid-Atlantic Ridge, is an example. Atolls are low islands found in the tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs surrounding a central depression. It may be a part of the sea (lagoon) or sometimes form enclosing a body of fresh, brackish, or highly saline water. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct Guyots is a flat-topped seamount. They show evidences of gradual subsidence through stages to become flat topped submerged mountains. It is estimated that more than 10,000 seamounts and guyots exist in the Pacific Ocean alone. Submarine Canyons are deep valleys, some comparable to the Grand Canyon of the Colorado River.
A mid-oceanic ridge is composed of two chains of mountains separated by a large depression. The mountain ranges can have peaks as high as 2,500 m and some even reach above the ocean’s surface. Iceland, a part of the mid-Atlantic Ridge, is an example. Atolls are low islands found in the tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs surrounding a central depression. It may be a part of the sea (lagoon) or sometimes form enclosing a body of fresh, brackish, or highly saline water. -
Question 6 of 35
6. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about oceanic deposits?
- The thickness of terrigenous deposits is highest on continental shelf and slope.
- Hydrogenous deposits originate in water and include organic particles only.
- To be categorized as organic particles, biogenous deposits should retain at least 30% of their organic content.
Select the correct option using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Terrigenous deposits are deposits that originated on the terrestrial surface and were transported to oceans through wind and water. They contain both organic and inorganic matter. The thickness of terrigenous deposits is highest on continental shelf and slope. Hydrogenous deposits originate in water. They include both organic and inorganic particles. Most of the organic materials are derived from dead plants and animals. Inorganic particles contain precipitated salts. Biogenous deposits include the organic deposits received from dead animals and fishes. It also includes the shells and waste released by marine plants. In order to be categorized as organic particles, they should retain at least 30% of their organic content. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Correct Terrigenous deposits are deposits that originated on the terrestrial surface and were transported to oceans through wind and water. They contain both organic and inorganic matter. The thickness of terrigenous deposits is highest on continental shelf and slope. Hydrogenous deposits originate in water. They include both organic and inorganic particles. Most of the organic materials are derived from dead plants and animals. Inorganic particles contain precipitated salts. Biogenous deposits include the organic deposits received from dead animals and fishes. It also includes the shells and waste released by marine plants. In order to be categorized as organic particles, they should retain at least 30% of their organic content. -
Question 7 of 35
7. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about ocean temperature?
- The onshore winds pile up warm water near the coast and this decreases the temperature.
- The temperature of surface water decreases from the equator towards the poles.
- Labrador current lowers the temperature near the northeast coast of North America.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away from the coast resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below. It results in the longitudinal variation in the temperature. Contrary to this, the onshore winds pile up warm water near the coast and this raises the temperature. As the solar radiation falls directly at the equator and gradually becomes slant towards the poles, the surface temperature of the oceans declines from the equator towards the poles. Warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas while cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas. The Gulf Stream (warm current) raises the temperature near the eastern coast of North America and the West Coast of Europe while the Labrador Current (cold current) lowers the temperature near the north-east coast of North America. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Correct The winds blowing from the land towards the oceans drive warm surface water away from the coast resulting in the upwelling of cold water from below. It results in the longitudinal variation in the temperature. Contrary to this, the onshore winds pile up warm water near the coast and this raises the temperature. As the solar radiation falls directly at the equator and gradually becomes slant towards the poles, the surface temperature of the oceans declines from the equator towards the poles. Warm ocean currents raise the temperature in cold areas while cold currents decrease the temperature in warm ocean areas. The Gulf Stream (warm current) raises the temperature near the eastern coast of North America and the West Coast of Europe while the Labrador Current (cold current) lowers the temperature near the north-east coast of North America. -
Question 8 of 35
8. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about the vertical distribution of temperature in oceans?
- The thermocline layer is characterised by a rapid decrease in temperature with increasing depth.
- About 90 percent of the total volume of water is found below the thermocline in the deep ocean.
- The maximum temperature of the oceans is always at their surfaces.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The thermocline layer lies between 100 metres and 1000 metres (This range is not fixed and changes at different latitudes.). It contains about 18 percent of the total volume of water in the ocean. There is a steep fall in temperature in this zone. The density of water increases with increasing depth. The temperature-depth profile for the ocean water shows how the temperature decreases with increasing depth. The profile shows a boundary region between the surface waters of the ocean and the deeper layers. The boundary usually begins around 100 – 400 m below the sea surface and extends several hundred metres downward. This boundary region, from where there is a rapid decrease in temperature, is called the thermocline. About 90 percent of the total volume of water is found below the thermocline in the deep ocean. In this zone, temperatures approach 0° C. It is a well-known fact that the maximum temperature of the oceans is always at their surfaces because they directly receive the heat from the sun and the heat is transmitted to the lower sections of the oceans through the process of convection. It results in a decrease of temperature with increasing depth, but the rate of decrease is not uniform throughout. The temperature falls very rapidly up to the depth of 200 m and thereafter, the rate of decrease of temperature is slowed down. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The thermocline layer lies between 100 metres and 1000 metres (This range is not fixed and changes at different latitudes.). It contains about 18 percent of the total volume of water in the ocean. There is a steep fall in temperature in this zone. The density of water increases with increasing depth. The temperature-depth profile for the ocean water shows how the temperature decreases with increasing depth. The profile shows a boundary region between the surface waters of the ocean and the deeper layers. The boundary usually begins around 100 – 400 m below the sea surface and extends several hundred metres downward. This boundary region, from where there is a rapid decrease in temperature, is called the thermocline. About 90 percent of the total volume of water is found below the thermocline in the deep ocean. In this zone, temperatures approach 0° C. It is a well-known fact that the maximum temperature of the oceans is always at their surfaces because they directly receive the heat from the sun and the heat is transmitted to the lower sections of the oceans through the process of convection. It results in a decrease of temperature with increasing depth, but the rate of decrease is not uniform throughout. The temperature falls very rapidly up to the depth of 200 m and thereafter, the rate of decrease of temperature is slowed down. -
Question 9 of 35
9. Question
How does the temperature of the Deep Zone of the ocean change with depth?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Based on the temperature, the ocean depths may be divided into the following three zones namely surface zone or mixed zone, thermocline zone, and deep zone. Deep Zone zone lies below 1000 metres in the mid-latitudes. This zone contains about 80 percent of the total volume of water in the ocean. The temperature in this zone remains constant. The ocean bottom always has a temperature that is one or two degrees Celsius above the freezing point. (Hence option c is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Based on the temperature, the ocean depths may be divided into the following three zones namely surface zone or mixed zone, thermocline zone, and deep zone. Deep Zone zone lies below 1000 metres in the mid-latitudes. This zone contains about 80 percent of the total volume of water in the ocean. The temperature in this zone remains constant. The ocean bottom always has a temperature that is one or two degrees Celsius above the freezing point. (Hence option c is correct)
-
Question 10 of 35
10. Question
Which of the following factors affects the salinity of the ocean?
- Evaporation and precipitation
- Freshwater flow from rivers
- Ocean currents
- Ice in Polar Regions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution: (d)
Explanation:
The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depends mainly on evaporation and precipitation. Increasing water salinity reduces evaporation since the dissolved salt ions lower the free energy of the water molecules, i.e., reduce the water activity, and hence reduce the saturation vapour pressure above the saline water at a given water temperature. (Hence option 1 is correct)
Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the freshwater flow from rivers and in polar regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice. (Hence options 2 and 4 are correct)
The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and density of water are interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of water in an area. (Hence option 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution: (d)
Explanation:
The salinity of water in the surface layer of oceans depends mainly on evaporation and precipitation. Increasing water salinity reduces evaporation since the dissolved salt ions lower the free energy of the water molecules, i.e., reduce the water activity, and hence reduce the saturation vapour pressure above the saline water at a given water temperature. (Hence option 1 is correct)
Surface salinity is greatly influenced in coastal regions by the freshwater flow from rivers and in polar regions by the processes of freezing and thawing of ice. (Hence options 2 and 4 are correct)
The ocean currents contribute to the salinity variations. Salinity, temperature and density of water are interrelated. Hence, any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity of water in an area. (Hence option 3 is correct)
-
Question 11 of 35
11. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about ocean salinity?
- At the equator, the salinity is higher than the average.
- The North Sea records higher salinity due to more saline water brought by the North Atlantic Drift.
- Inland lakes where evaporation is less having extremely high salinity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect At the equator, the salinity is lower than the average. It is around 33 – 34 parts per thousand. The reason behind this is high precipitation which adds a lot of fresh water. In the tropics between 20 – 35o, due to high temperature there is a lot of evaporation. Because of this, the salinity is very high 37 – 38 parts per thousand. The average salinity of the Atlantic Ocean is around 36 o/oo. The highest salinity is recorded between 15° and 20° latitudes. Maximum salinity (37 o/oo) is observed between 20° N and 30° N and 20° W – 60° W. It gradually decreases towards the north. The North Sea, in spite of its location in higher latitudes, records higher salinity due to more saline water brought by the North Atlantic Drift. Baltic Sea records low salinity due to the influx of river waters in large quantities. Land locked seas show drastic fluctuation in salinity. Inland lakes where evaporation is dominant can have extremely high. The highest salinity is found in Lake Van of Turkey (330 Parts per thousand.). In India, the highest salinity is found in Lake Sambhar. There are several landlocked seas which act as a sink to many rivers and hence their salinity is much lower e.g. Black Sea. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Incorrect Correct Incorrect At the equator, the salinity is lower than the average. It is around 33 – 34 parts per thousand. The reason behind this is high precipitation which adds a lot of fresh water. In the tropics between 20 – 35o, due to high temperature there is a lot of evaporation. Because of this, the salinity is very high 37 – 38 parts per thousand. The average salinity of the Atlantic Ocean is around 36 o/oo. The highest salinity is recorded between 15° and 20° latitudes. Maximum salinity (37 o/oo) is observed between 20° N and 30° N and 20° W – 60° W. It gradually decreases towards the north. The North Sea, in spite of its location in higher latitudes, records higher salinity due to more saline water brought by the North Atlantic Drift. Baltic Sea records low salinity due to the influx of river waters in large quantities. Land locked seas show drastic fluctuation in salinity. Inland lakes where evaporation is dominant can have extremely high. The highest salinity is found in Lake Van of Turkey (330 Parts per thousand.). In India, the highest salinity is found in Lake Sambhar. There are several landlocked seas which act as a sink to many rivers and hence their salinity is much lower e.g. Black Sea. -
Question 12 of 35
12. Question
The halocline is a zone in the ocean characterized by:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Salinity changes with depth, but the way it changes depends upon the location of the sea. Salinity at depth is very much fixed because there is no way that water is ‘lost’, or the salt is ‘added.’ There is a marked difference in the salinity between the surface zones and the deep zones of the oceans. The lower salinity water rests above the higher salinity dense water. Salinity, generally, increases with depth and there is a distinct zone called the halocline, where salinity increases sharply. Other factors being constant, increasing the salinity of seawater causes its density to increase. High-salinity seawater, generally, sinks below the lower-salinity water. This leads to stratification by salinity. (Hence option c is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Salinity changes with depth, but the way it changes depends upon the location of the sea. Salinity at depth is very much fixed because there is no way that water is ‘lost’, or the salt is ‘added.’ There is a marked difference in the salinity between the surface zones and the deep zones of the oceans. The lower salinity water rests above the higher salinity dense water. Salinity, generally, increases with depth and there is a distinct zone called the halocline, where salinity increases sharply. Other factors being constant, increasing the salinity of seawater causes its density to increase. High-salinity seawater, generally, sinks below the lower-salinity water. This leads to stratification by salinity. (Hence option c is correct)
-
Question 13 of 35
13. Question
With reference to the waves, consider the following statements
- When the depth of water is less than half the wavelength of the wave, the wave breaks.
- Wave height is the vertical distance from the bottom of a trough to the top of a crest of a wave.
- The speed at which waves approach the shore depends on sea floor features.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct As a wave approaches the beach, it slows down. This is due to the friction occurring between the dynamic water and the sea floor. And, when the depth of water is less than half the wavelength of the wave, the wave breaks. The largest waves are found in the open oceans. Waves continue to grow larger as they move and absorb energy from the wind. The highest and lowest points of a wave are called the crest and trough respectively. Wave height is the vertical distance from the bottom of a trough to the top of a crest of a wave. The speed at which waves approach the shore depends on seafloor and shoreline features and the depth of the water. As a wave moves toward the beach, different segments of the wave encounter the beach before others, which slows these segments down. As a result, the wave tends to bend and conform to the general shape of the coastline. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct As a wave approaches the beach, it slows down. This is due to the friction occurring between the dynamic water and the sea floor. And, when the depth of water is less than half the wavelength of the wave, the wave breaks. The largest waves are found in the open oceans. Waves continue to grow larger as they move and absorb energy from the wind. The highest and lowest points of a wave are called the crest and trough respectively. Wave height is the vertical distance from the bottom of a trough to the top of a crest of a wave. The speed at which waves approach the shore depends on seafloor and shoreline features and the depth of the water. As a wave moves toward the beach, different segments of the wave encounter the beach before others, which slows these segments down. As a result, the wave tends to bend and conform to the general shape of the coastline. -
Question 14 of 35
14. Question
Waves that have travelled thousands of kilometers and are slow and steady likely originated from which of the following?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Most of the waves are caused by the wind driving against water. When a breeze of two knots or less blows over calm water, small ripples form and grow as the wind speed increases until white caps appear in the breaking waves. Waves may travel thousands of km before rolling ashore, breaking and dissolving as surf. A wave’s size and shape reveal its origin. Steep waves are fairly young ones and are probably formed by local wind. Slow and steady waves originate from faraway places, possibly from another hemisphere. The maximum wave height is determined by the strength of the wind, i.e. how long it blows and the area over which it blows in a single direction. (Hence option b is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Most of the waves are caused by the wind driving against water. When a breeze of two knots or less blows over calm water, small ripples form and grow as the wind speed increases until white caps appear in the breaking waves. Waves may travel thousands of km before rolling ashore, breaking and dissolving as surf. A wave’s size and shape reveal its origin. Steep waves are fairly young ones and are probably formed by local wind. Slow and steady waves originate from faraway places, possibly from another hemisphere. The maximum wave height is determined by the strength of the wind, i.e. how long it blows and the area over which it blows in a single direction. (Hence option b is correct)
-
Question 15 of 35
15. Question
Consider the following statements.
- The continental shelf of the western Pacific Ocean is very narrow while those on the eastern coast are wide.
- Puerto Rico Deep is the deepest of all deeps in the Atlantic Ocean.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The continental shelf of the Eastern Pacific Ocean is very narrow due to the presence of trenches while those on the western coast are wide. The continental shelf adjoining the coasts of Australia and Indonesia varies in width from 160 to 1,600 km. In the Pacific Ocean, the abyssal plains are very vast. The absence of mid-oceanic ridges is the main reason for deep sea plains. The mid-Atlantic ridge divides the Atlantic Ocean into two major basins, i.e., East and West Atlantic basins. Other basins are the Spanish Basin, the north and South Canary Basin, the Guinea Basin, the Brazilian Basin, and the Labrador Basin. Puerto Rico Deep (8,380 m) is the deepest of all deeps in the Atlantic Ocean. Other deeps are Romanche Deep and South Sandwich Trench. Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct The continental shelf of the Eastern Pacific Ocean is very narrow due to the presence of trenches while those on the western coast are wide. The continental shelf adjoining the coasts of Australia and Indonesia varies in width from 160 to 1,600 km. In the Pacific Ocean, the abyssal plains are very vast. The absence of mid-oceanic ridges is the main reason for deep sea plains. The mid-Atlantic ridge divides the Atlantic Ocean into two major basins, i.e., East and West Atlantic basins. Other basins are the Spanish Basin, the north and South Canary Basin, the Guinea Basin, the Brazilian Basin, and the Labrador Basin. Puerto Rico Deep (8,380 m) is the deepest of all deeps in the Atlantic Ocean. Other deeps are Romanche Deep and South Sandwich Trench. -
Question 16 of 35
16. Question
Which of the following is the deepest part of the Indian Ocean?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
The Indian Ocean has continental shelf of varying width. Continental shelf along the coast of Arabian Sea, the Bay of Bengal and Andaman varies in width from 192km to 280km. The average depth of the Indian Ocean is 3890m. Sunda deep near Java is the deepest part of this ocean (7450m). Madagascar and Sri Lanka are the most prominent islands present in Indian Ocean. (Hence option b is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
The Indian Ocean has continental shelf of varying width. Continental shelf along the coast of Arabian Sea, the Bay of Bengal and Andaman varies in width from 192km to 280km. The average depth of the Indian Ocean is 3890m. Sunda deep near Java is the deepest part of this ocean (7450m). Madagascar and Sri Lanka are the most prominent islands present in Indian Ocean. (Hence option b is correct)
-
Question 17 of 35
17. Question
What is the impact of offshore winds blowing from the land towards ocean?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
The direction of the wind affects the distribution of temperature of ocean water. The offshore winds blowing from the land towards the ocean or sea raise the temperature of ocean water. Winds blowing from snow-covered regions in winter lower the surface temperature. In the trade wind belt, the offshore winds initiate the upwelling of cooler water from beneath, and on shore winds pile up warm water to increase the temperature to certain extent. (Hence option a is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
The direction of the wind affects the distribution of temperature of ocean water. The offshore winds blowing from the land towards the ocean or sea raise the temperature of ocean water. Winds blowing from snow-covered regions in winter lower the surface temperature. In the trade wind belt, the offshore winds initiate the upwelling of cooler water from beneath, and on shore winds pile up warm water to increase the temperature to certain extent. (Hence option a is correct)
-
Question 18 of 35
18. Question
With reference to tides, consider the following statements.
- The fall of seawater more towards the sea is known as ebb tide.
- The moon and sun’s gravitational pull are the causes for the occurrence of tides.
- The highest tide in the World occurs in Bay of Funday.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The rhythmic rise and fall of the sea water due to gravitational pull of the moon and the sun is called a Tide. Isaac Newton (1642– 1727) was the first person to explain tides scientifically. The rise of seawater towards the land is known as High tide or flow tide. The fall of seawater more towards sea is known as ‘Low tide water’ or ebb tide. On any day there will be two high tides and two low tides The moon’s gravitational pull to a great extent and to a lesser extent the sun’s gravitational pull, are the major causes for the occurrence of tides. Another factor is centrifugal force, which is the force that acts to counter balance the gravity. Together, the gravitational pull and the centrifugal force are responsible for creating the two major tidal bulges on the earth. The highest tide in the World occurs in Bay of Funday (Canada). The highest tide in India is recorded at Okha, Gujarat. The greatest tidal range in the world is found at the upper end of the Bay of Fundy in eastern Canada, where a 15- meter (50-foot) water-level fluctuation twice a day is not uncommon, and a wall of seawater—called a tidal bore— several centimeters to more than a meter in height rushes up the Petitcodiac River in New Brunswick for many kilometers. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Correct Correct The rhythmic rise and fall of the sea water due to gravitational pull of the moon and the sun is called a Tide. Isaac Newton (1642– 1727) was the first person to explain tides scientifically. The rise of seawater towards the land is known as High tide or flow tide. The fall of seawater more towards sea is known as ‘Low tide water’ or ebb tide. On any day there will be two high tides and two low tides The moon’s gravitational pull to a great extent and to a lesser extent the sun’s gravitational pull, are the major causes for the occurrence of tides. Another factor is centrifugal force, which is the force that acts to counter balance the gravity. Together, the gravitational pull and the centrifugal force are responsible for creating the two major tidal bulges on the earth. The highest tide in the World occurs in Bay of Funday (Canada). The highest tide in India is recorded at Okha, Gujarat. The greatest tidal range in the world is found at the upper end of the Bay of Fundy in eastern Canada, where a 15- meter (50-foot) water-level fluctuation twice a day is not uncommon, and a wall of seawater—called a tidal bore— several centimeters to more than a meter in height rushes up the Petitcodiac River in New Brunswick for many kilometers. -
Question 19 of 35
19. Question
Which of the following are the frequency-based classifications of tides?
- Semi-diurnal tide
- Mixed tide
- Neap tides
- Diurnal tide
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Tides vary in their frequency, direction and movement from place to place and also from time to time. Tides may be grouped into various types based on their frequency of occurrence in one day or 24 hours or based on their height. Tides based on Frequency are diurnal tides, semi-diurnal tides and mixed tide. (Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct)
The height of rising water (high tide) varies appreciably depending upon the position of sun and moon with respect to the Earth. Spring tides and neap tides come under this category. (Hence option 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Tides vary in their frequency, direction and movement from place to place and also from time to time. Tides may be grouped into various types based on their frequency of occurrence in one day or 24 hours or based on their height. Tides based on Frequency are diurnal tides, semi-diurnal tides and mixed tide. (Hence options 1, 2 and 4 are correct)
The height of rising water (high tide) varies appreciably depending upon the position of sun and moon with respect to the Earth. Spring tides and neap tides come under this category. (Hence option 3 is incorrect)
-
Question 20 of 35
20. Question
Which of the following statements is correct about ocean currents?
- Ocean currents on the water’s surface are generated from the areas of low salinity to the areas of high salinity.
- The rotation of the earth deflects the ocean current in the Northern Hemisphere towards its left.
- Underwater ridges do not affect ocean currents in any way.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The salinity of the Ocean varies from place to place. Water with high salinity is denser than the one with low salinity. Ocean currents on the water surface are generated from the areas of low salinity to the areas of high salinity. For example, there are ocean currents moving from ocean to inland seas i.e. ocean current flows from Atlantic to Mediterranean Sea. The rotation of the earth from west to east on its axis is the cause of a deflective force called Coriolis force. Similar to winds, it deflects the ocean current in the Northern Hemisphere towards its right and in the Southern Hemisphere towards its left. Because of this at the periphery of the ocean, ocean currents form a clock wise circulation in the Northern Hemisphere and Counter clockwise circulation in the southern Hemisphere. This giant loop is called Gyre. The ocean currents are also deflected by underwater ridges. Usually in the Northern Hemisphere if a current crosses a ridge is deflected towards its right while in Southern hemisphere towards its left. Remember it as a fact. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Statement 3 Correct Incorrect Incorrect The salinity of the Ocean varies from place to place. Water with high salinity is denser than the one with low salinity. Ocean currents on the water surface are generated from the areas of low salinity to the areas of high salinity. For example, there are ocean currents moving from ocean to inland seas i.e. ocean current flows from Atlantic to Mediterranean Sea. The rotation of the earth from west to east on its axis is the cause of a deflective force called Coriolis force. Similar to winds, it deflects the ocean current in the Northern Hemisphere towards its right and in the Southern Hemisphere towards its left. Because of this at the periphery of the ocean, ocean currents form a clock wise circulation in the Northern Hemisphere and Counter clockwise circulation in the southern Hemisphere. This giant loop is called Gyre. The ocean currents are also deflected by underwater ridges. Usually in the Northern Hemisphere if a current crosses a ridge is deflected towards its right while in Southern hemisphere towards its left. Remember it as a fact. -
Question 21 of 35
21. Question
With reference to Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), consider the following statements:
- The FSSAI is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Food Processing Industries.
- It has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006.
- It is responsible for the Food Certification in India.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Context:
- Recently, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has decided to treat the packaged drinking and mineral water segment as a “High Risk Food Category”. In this context, a question can be asked about FSSAI by UPSC.
Explanation:
- The FSSAI is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. It is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- It has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. It lays down standards and guidelines in relation to articles of food, and provides for licensing, registration, and accreditation for food business operators. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
It is responsible for the Food Certification in India. It directly monitors compliance of food regulations, especially in the area of food imports to India. It is also responsible for the accreditation of food testing laboratories throughout India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Context:
- Recently, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) has decided to treat the packaged drinking and mineral water segment as a “High Risk Food Category”. In this context, a question can be asked about FSSAI by UPSC.
Explanation:
- The FSSAI is an autonomous body established under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. It is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- It has been established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. It lays down standards and guidelines in relation to articles of food, and provides for licensing, registration, and accreditation for food business operators. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
It is responsible for the Food Certification in India. It directly monitors compliance of food regulations, especially in the area of food imports to India. It is also responsible for the accreditation of food testing laboratories throughout India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 22 of 35
22. Question
Consider the following statements about Tungsten:
- Tungsten is liquid at room temperature.
- Wolframite and scheelite are some of the important ores of tungsten.
- It has been classified as a Critical Mineral by the Government of India.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Context:
- Tamil Nadu chief minister recently wrote to Prime Minister seeking the cancellation of rights granted by the Centre to a private firm to mine tungsten in Nayakkarpatti Tungsten Block in Madurai district. In this context, basic information about Tungsten can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- Tungsten is a chemical element with the symbol W, and atomic number 74. Classified as a transition metal, Tungsten is a solid at room temperature. Elemental tungsten is a white to steel grey metal (depending on the purity) that can be used in pure form or mixed with other metals to make alloys. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Tungsten is a naturally occurring element. It occurs in rocks and minerals combined with other chemicals, but never as a pure metal. It is found in nature in mineral forms like wolframite and scheelite. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Tungsten is used in products such as x-ray tubes, light bulbs, high-speed tools, welding electrodes, turbine blades, golf clubs, darts, fishing weights, gyroscope wheels, phonograph needles, bullets, and armour penetrators. It has been classified as a Critical Mineral by the Government of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Context:
- Tamil Nadu chief minister recently wrote to Prime Minister seeking the cancellation of rights granted by the Centre to a private firm to mine tungsten in Nayakkarpatti Tungsten Block in Madurai district. In this context, basic information about Tungsten can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- Tungsten is a chemical element with the symbol W, and atomic number 74. Classified as a transition metal, Tungsten is a solid at room temperature. Elemental tungsten is a white to steel grey metal (depending on the purity) that can be used in pure form or mixed with other metals to make alloys. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Tungsten is a naturally occurring element. It occurs in rocks and minerals combined with other chemicals, but never as a pure metal. It is found in nature in mineral forms like wolframite and scheelite. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Tungsten is used in products such as x-ray tubes, light bulbs, high-speed tools, welding electrodes, turbine blades, golf clubs, darts, fishing weights, gyroscope wheels, phonograph needles, bullets, and armour penetrators. It has been classified as a Critical Mineral by the Government of India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 23 of 35
23. Question
Consider the following statements about RS-28 Sarmat:
- It is an intercontinental ballistic missile developed by South Korea.
- It is a three-stage, liquid-fuelled missile with a range of 18,000 km.
Which of the above statements is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution (a)
Context:
- Russia is set to deploy the RS-28 Sarmat intercontinental ballistic missile, known as ‘Satan 2’, to replace older missiles. In this context, basic information about the missile becomes important for UPSC.
Explanation:
- RS-28 Sarmat is a liquid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile developed by Russia. It is named after the Sarmatian people of the fourth and fifth century BC. It has also been referred to in the West as the “Satan II”. Hence, statement 1 is INCORRECT.
RS-28 Sarmat is a three-stage, liquid-fuelled missile with a range of 18,000 km. It has a launch weight of 208.1 metric tons. The missile is 35.3 meters long and 3 meters in diameter. Designated a “heavy” ICBM, the Sarmat can carry a 10-tonpayload and can load a wide variety of warhead options. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Context:
- Russia is set to deploy the RS-28 Sarmat intercontinental ballistic missile, known as ‘Satan 2’, to replace older missiles. In this context, basic information about the missile becomes important for UPSC.
Explanation:
- RS-28 Sarmat is a liquid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile developed by Russia. It is named after the Sarmatian people of the fourth and fifth century BC. It has also been referred to in the West as the “Satan II”. Hence, statement 1 is INCORRECT.
RS-28 Sarmat is a three-stage, liquid-fuelled missile with a range of 18,000 km. It has a launch weight of 208.1 metric tons. The missile is 35.3 meters long and 3 meters in diameter. Designated a “heavy” ICBM, the Sarmat can carry a 10-tonpayload and can load a wide variety of warhead options. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 24 of 35
24. Question
Consider the following statements about International Day of Persons with Disabilities (IDPD):
- International Day of Persons with Disabilities is observed annually on 1st December.
- This year’s theme is “Amplifying the leadership of persons with disabilities for an inclusive and sustainable future.”
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Context:
- Every December 3rd, the world comes together to celebrate the International Day of Persons with Disabilities—a day dedicated to recognizing the abilities, achievements, and rights of persons with disabilities. In this context, basic details about the day can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- IDPD, observed annually on December 3, celebrates the resilience, contributions, and leadership of persons with disabilities (PwDs) worldwide. This day serves as a reminder of the global commitment to fostering inclusivity, advocating for the rights of PwDs, and creating equitable opportunities for all. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The IDPD was proclaimed in 1992 by United Nations General Assembly resolution 47/3. This year’s theme is “Amplifying the leadership of persons with disabilities for an inclusive and sustainable future”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Context:
- Every December 3rd, the world comes together to celebrate the International Day of Persons with Disabilities—a day dedicated to recognizing the abilities, achievements, and rights of persons with disabilities. In this context, basic details about the day can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- IDPD, observed annually on December 3, celebrates the resilience, contributions, and leadership of persons with disabilities (PwDs) worldwide. This day serves as a reminder of the global commitment to fostering inclusivity, advocating for the rights of PwDs, and creating equitable opportunities for all. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
The IDPD was proclaimed in 1992 by United Nations General Assembly resolution 47/3. This year’s theme is “Amplifying the leadership of persons with disabilities for an inclusive and sustainable future”. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 25 of 35
25. Question
Consider the following statements about Lothal:
- Lothal was one of the prominent cities of the Indus Valley Civilisation located in present state of Maharashtra.
- It was the only port town of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
- It was discovered by SR Rao in 1954.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Context:
- India will create a unique destination for domestic and foreign tourists at Lothal in Gujarat, focusing on the country’s ancient maritime heritage, said Union ports, shipping and waterways minister Sarbananda Sonowal. In this context, some facts about Lothal can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- Lothal is an excavated site situated in the Bhal region in Dholka, Ahmedabad, Gujarat. It is one of the prominent cities of the ancient Indus Valley civilization (IVC). The origin and history of Lothal can be dated back to 2400 BC. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Lothal was one of the southern cities of the IVC, located in the Gulf of Khambat region. It was the only port town of the IVC. Literally called ‘Mound of the Dead’, this ancient and desolate ruined city of Lothal provides insight into the life of the Harappan culture and the IVC. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Lothal was discovered by SR Rao, an Indian archaeologist, in 1954. Like other cities of the Indus Valley Civilization, Lothal too had excellent architecture and town planning. The entire city had a scientific drainage system, well-laid paved roads, and a bath for every house, some of which were double-storied and built on mud platforms. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Context:
- India will create a unique destination for domestic and foreign tourists at Lothal in Gujarat, focusing on the country’s ancient maritime heritage, said Union ports, shipping and waterways minister Sarbananda Sonowal. In this context, some facts about Lothal can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- Lothal is an excavated site situated in the Bhal region in Dholka, Ahmedabad, Gujarat. It is one of the prominent cities of the ancient Indus Valley civilization (IVC). The origin and history of Lothal can be dated back to 2400 BC. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Lothal was one of the southern cities of the IVC, located in the Gulf of Khambat region. It was the only port town of the IVC. Literally called ‘Mound of the Dead’, this ancient and desolate ruined city of Lothal provides insight into the life of the Harappan culture and the IVC. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Lothal was discovered by SR Rao, an Indian archaeologist, in 1954. Like other cities of the Indus Valley Civilization, Lothal too had excellent architecture and town planning. The entire city had a scientific drainage system, well-laid paved roads, and a bath for every house, some of which were double-storied and built on mud platforms. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 26 of 35
26. Question
Exercise CINBAX, seen in news recently was held between the armies of?
Correct
Solution (a)
Context:
- The 1st edition of Joint Table Top Exercise, CINBAX recently commenced at Foreign Training Node, Pune. In this context, the names of participating countries in the exercise becomes important for UPSC.
Explanation:
Exercise CINBAX is conducted between the Indian Army and the Cambodian Army. The Cambodian Army contingent will comprise personnel and the Indian Army contingent is also composed of personnel from an Infantry Brigade. It is a planning exercise aimed at wargame conduct of joint Counter Terrorism (CT) operations under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter. Hence, option a is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Context:
- The 1st edition of Joint Table Top Exercise, CINBAX recently commenced at Foreign Training Node, Pune. In this context, the names of participating countries in the exercise becomes important for UPSC.
Explanation:
Exercise CINBAX is conducted between the Indian Army and the Cambodian Army. The Cambodian Army contingent will comprise personnel and the Indian Army contingent is also composed of personnel from an Infantry Brigade. It is a planning exercise aimed at wargame conduct of joint Counter Terrorism (CT) operations under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter. Hence, option a is the correct answer.
-
Question 27 of 35
27. Question
Recently ‘Gharcholas Saree’ which received a GI tag, belongs to the state of?
Correct
Solution (c)
Context:
- Recently, Gujarat’s ‘Gharcholas’ received the Geographical Indication tag. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the product.
Explanation:
Gharcholas Saree is also known as Ghatchola and Gharcholu which has finest bandhani work of Gujarat. It has traditionally been used for years in Gujarati weddings. The name ‘Gharchola’ means ‘Outfit for Home’, which symbolizes a newly wedded bride joining her new home. It is woven on Cotton or Silk fabric in large checks of using Silk and Zari threads. Hence, option c is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Context:
- Recently, Gujarat’s ‘Gharcholas’ received the Geographical Indication tag. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the product.
Explanation:
Gharcholas Saree is also known as Ghatchola and Gharcholu which has finest bandhani work of Gujarat. It has traditionally been used for years in Gujarati weddings. The name ‘Gharchola’ means ‘Outfit for Home’, which symbolizes a newly wedded bride joining her new home. It is woven on Cotton or Silk fabric in large checks of using Silk and Zari threads. Hence, option c is the correct answer.
-
Question 28 of 35
28. Question
With reference to National Housing Bank (NHB), consider the following statements:
- NHB is an apex agency established to promote housing finance companies (HFCs) in India.
- It is an All-India Financial Institution (AIFl) wholly owned by the Government of India.
- NHB RESIDEX is the country’s first official housing price index (HPI).
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Context:
- Aviom India Housing Finance has informed its creditors about an ongoing audit by the National Housing Bank (NHB) following the discovery of fraudulent transactions during a recent onsite supervisory inspection. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about NHB.
Explanation:
- NHB is an apex agency established to promote housing finance companies (HFCs) in India. The National Housing Policy, 1988, envisaged the setting up of NHB as the apex-level institution for housing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- NHB is an All-India Financial Institution (AIFl) wholly owned by the Government of India (GoI). It supervises HFCs, while regulation of HFCs is with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
NHB is wholly owned by the GoIpost the 24 April 2019 notification of RBI i.e. The entire paid-up capital of NHB is held by the government. NHB RESIDEX is the country’s first official housing price index (HPI). It captures movements in the prices of residential real estate prices. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Context:
- Aviom India Housing Finance has informed its creditors about an ongoing audit by the National Housing Bank (NHB) following the discovery of fraudulent transactions during a recent onsite supervisory inspection. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about NHB.
Explanation:
- NHB is an apex agency established to promote housing finance companies (HFCs) in India. The National Housing Policy, 1988, envisaged the setting up of NHB as the apex-level institution for housing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- NHB is an All-India Financial Institution (AIFl) wholly owned by the Government of India (GoI). It supervises HFCs, while regulation of HFCs is with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
NHB is wholly owned by the GoIpost the 24 April 2019 notification of RBI i.e. The entire paid-up capital of NHB is held by the government. NHB RESIDEX is the country’s first official housing price index (HPI). It captures movements in the prices of residential real estate prices. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 29 of 35
29. Question
With reference to PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, consider the following statements:
- This scheme aims to provide free electricity to households in India.
- It would help one crore families get up to 3,000 units of free electricity per month.
- Under the scheme, households will be provided with a subsidy to install solar panels on their roofs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Context:
- Around 1.45 crore registrations have been made under the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, and 6.34 lakh installations have been completed, Parliament was informed recently. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the scheme.
Explanation:
- PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a government scheme launched on February 15, 2024, that aims to provide free electricity to households in India. Under the scheme, households will be provided with a subsidy to install solar panels on their roofs. The subsidy will cover up to 40% of the cost of the solar panels. Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct.
The scheme has an outlay of Rs 75,021 crore and is to be implemented till FY 2026-27. Under the scheme, DISCOMs are designated as State Implementation Agencies (SIAs) responsible for facilitating various measures, including net meter availability, timely inspection, and commissioning of installations. It would help one crore families get up to 300 units of free electricity per month with savings of up to Rs 18,000 annually. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Context:
- Around 1.45 crore registrations have been made under the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, and 6.34 lakh installations have been completed, Parliament was informed recently. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the scheme.
Explanation:
- PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana is a government scheme launched on February 15, 2024, that aims to provide free electricity to households in India. Under the scheme, households will be provided with a subsidy to install solar panels on their roofs. The subsidy will cover up to 40% of the cost of the solar panels. Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct.
The scheme has an outlay of Rs 75,021 crore and is to be implemented till FY 2026-27. Under the scheme, DISCOMs are designated as State Implementation Agencies (SIAs) responsible for facilitating various measures, including net meter availability, timely inspection, and commissioning of installations. It would help one crore families get up to 300 units of free electricity per month with savings of up to Rs 18,000 annually. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
-
Question 30 of 35
30. Question
Consider the following states:
- Haryana
- Rajasthan
- Gujarat
- Delhi
Which of the above states is/are covered by the Aravalli Green Wall Project?
Correct
Solution (d)
Context:
- India’s delegation, led by the Union Environment Minister, will participate in the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) COP16 in Riyadh and showcase its Aravalli Green Wall Project. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the project.
Explanation:
The Aravalli Green Wall Project is a major initiative to green the 5 km buffer area around Aravalli Hill. It is part of the Union Environment Ministry’s vision to create green corridors across the country to combat land degradation and desertification. The project covers the states of Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Delhi – where the Aravalli hills landscape span over 6 million hectares of land. The project will involve planting native species of trees and shrubs on scrubland, wasteland and degraded forest land, along with rejuvenating and restoring surface water bodies such as ponds, lakes and streams. Hence, option d is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Context:
- India’s delegation, led by the Union Environment Minister, will participate in the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) COP16 in Riyadh and showcase its Aravalli Green Wall Project. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the project.
Explanation:
The Aravalli Green Wall Project is a major initiative to green the 5 km buffer area around Aravalli Hill. It is part of the Union Environment Ministry’s vision to create green corridors across the country to combat land degradation and desertification. The project covers the states of Haryana, Rajasthan, Gujarat and Delhi – where the Aravalli hills landscape span over 6 million hectares of land. The project will involve planting native species of trees and shrubs on scrubland, wasteland and degraded forest land, along with rejuvenating and restoring surface water bodies such as ponds, lakes and streams. Hence, option d is the correct answer.
-
Question 31 of 35
31. Question
Passage – 1
Digital technologies are changing the shape of work before our eyes. Yes, they are enabling firms to automate and this will reduce employment in some old, typically low and medium-skill sectors. But they also help firms to increase productivity, to innovate, and subsequently to create new products and sectors. Emerging markets like India stand to gain—but they need to have the right skills at the ready.
Q.31) Which of the following is the most crucial and logical inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation
Option (a) is a correct inference. The last line of the passage implicitly indicates that right skill oriented policy making can help emerging markets like India to gain. Further, it is mentioned that new sectors would be formed (in digital space). India can gain from these emerging trends if the right policy measures are duly taken.
Option (b) is incorrect: It is clearly mentioned that digital technologies would reduce employment in some old, typically low and medium-skill sectors. It does not mean other sectors of economy have not been impacted at all.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage only talks about reduction in employment in some old, typically low and medium-skill sectors. It would be an exaggeration to say that there would be large scale job losses.
Option (d) is incorrect with reference to the passage. Author points out that there is a POTENTIAL for emerging markets like India to reap benefits from digital technologies. It would be premature to say that India has already benefited.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation
Option (a) is a correct inference. The last line of the passage implicitly indicates that right skill oriented policy making can help emerging markets like India to gain. Further, it is mentioned that new sectors would be formed (in digital space). India can gain from these emerging trends if the right policy measures are duly taken.
Option (b) is incorrect: It is clearly mentioned that digital technologies would reduce employment in some old, typically low and medium-skill sectors. It does not mean other sectors of economy have not been impacted at all.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage only talks about reduction in employment in some old, typically low and medium-skill sectors. It would be an exaggeration to say that there would be large scale job losses.
Option (d) is incorrect with reference to the passage. Author points out that there is a POTENTIAL for emerging markets like India to reap benefits from digital technologies. It would be premature to say that India has already benefited.
-
Question 32 of 35
32. Question
Passage – 2
Visa shopping refers to obtaining visas for countries that individuals may or may not visit during the granted visa period. This is because such visas can provide a gateway for people to enter their preferred countries, particularly in Europe, even if they have obtained a visa for another European nation. Additionally, people who have no immediate plans to visit a specific country are also purchasing visas for such nations. This is to increase the chances of obtaining visas for countries of their choice in the future, given how the application process often takes a long time or has chances of rejection. Also, visas usually remain valid for a few years after being issued.
Q.32) Which of the following statements can be inferred from the above passage?
- Visa shopping is not applicable to countries outside the European Union.
- Visa shopping is helping job seekers to get a work visa in their country of choice.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: The passage says, “This is because such visas can provide a gateway for people to enter their preferred countries, particularly in Europe”. This does not imply that the practice of visa shopping is limited to Europe, even though it may be mainly applicable for that region. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Statement 2 is not correct: The passage mentions visa shopping only in the context of visiting those countries. There is no mention of job seekers in particular resorting to visa shopping to visit multiple countries. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation
Statement 1 is not correct: The passage says, “This is because such visas can provide a gateway for people to enter their preferred countries, particularly in Europe”. This does not imply that the practice of visa shopping is limited to Europe, even though it may be mainly applicable for that region. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Statement 2 is not correct: The passage mentions visa shopping only in the context of visiting those countries. There is no mention of job seekers in particular resorting to visa shopping to visit multiple countries. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
-
Question 33 of 35
33. Question
Find the missing term.
RHA: XCF: ISZ:?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation
Given pattern: RHA : ISZ :: XCF : ?
Writing the letters of the English alphabet and their opposite letters, we get:
We can see that the letters in ISZ are opposite to those in RHA. So, a similar pattern has to be followed in the second set of the analogy too.
So, the missing term is ‘CXU’.
Hence, option (c) is the right answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation
Given pattern: RHA : ISZ :: XCF : ?
Writing the letters of the English alphabet and their opposite letters, we get:
We can see that the letters in ISZ are opposite to those in RHA. So, a similar pattern has to be followed in the second set of the analogy too.
So, the missing term is ‘CXU’.
Hence, option (c) is the right answer.
-
Question 34 of 35
34. Question
In what ratio must Hemendra mix two varieties of apples costing Rs. 24 per kg and Rs. 38 per kg, so that by selling the apples at Rs. 40 per kg he would ma.Ke 1(1/9)% profit?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation
Cost price of cheaper variety = Rs. 24/kg Cost price of dearer variety= Rs. 38/kg
Cost price of mixture= 40 x 100 I {100 + l l(l/9)} = 40 x 100 x 9/1000 = Rs. 36 per kg
The required ratio= (38 – 36): (36 – 24) = 2: 12 = 1: 6
Hence, option (c) is the right answer.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation
Cost price of cheaper variety = Rs. 24/kg Cost price of dearer variety= Rs. 38/kg
Cost price of mixture= 40 x 100 I {100 + l l(l/9)} = 40 x 100 x 9/1000 = Rs. 36 per kg
The required ratio= (38 – 36): (36 – 24) = 2: 12 = 1: 6
Hence, option (c) is the right answer.
-
Question 35 of 35
35. Question
In a certain code language:
- ‘sut la nom’ means ‘Allow me food’.
- ‘la ko tid’ means ‘ Food is good’.
- ‘rub on sut’ means ‘Give me sword’.
- ‘ko tin row’ means ‘ Good news come’.
Which of the following code represents ‘is’ in this language?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation
Given:
sut la nom – Allow me food ………..(i)
la ko tid – Food is good ……….(ii)
rub on sut – Give me sword ……….(iii)
ko tin row – Good news come ……………(iv)
From equations (i) and (ii),
la – food
From equations (ii) and (iv),
ko – good
From equation (ii),
tid – is
Hence, code for ‘is’ is ‘tid’.
So, option (d) is the right answer.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation
Given:
sut la nom – Allow me food ………..(i)
la ko tid – Food is good ……….(ii)
rub on sut – Give me sword ……….(iii)
ko tin row – Good news come ……………(iv)
From equations (i) and (ii),
la – food
From equations (ii) and (iv),
ko – good
From equation (ii),
tid – is
Hence, code for ‘is’ is ‘tid’.
So, option (d) is the right answer.
All the Best
IASbaba
