IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
Daily Prelims MCQs from Static (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily Static Quiz will cover all the topics of static subjects – Polity, History, Geography, Economics, Environment and Science and technology.
- 20 questions will be posted daily and these questions are framed from the topics mentioned in the schedule.
- It will ensure timely and streamlined revision of your static subjects.
Daily Current Affairs MCQs (Monday – Saturday)
- Daily 5 Current Affairs questions, based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, would be published from Monday to Saturday according to the schedule.
Daily CSAT Quiz (Monday – Friday)
- CSAT has been an Achilles heel for many aspirants.
- Daily 5 CSAT Questions will be published.
Note – Daily Test of 20 static questions, 10 current affairs, and 5 CSAT questions. (35 Prelims Questions) in QUIZ FORMAT will be updated on a daily basis.
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Question 1 of 34
1. Question
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- Monazite is a source of rare earths.
- Monazite contains thorium.
- Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
- In India, government bodies only can process or export monazite.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Rare earth metals are a group of 17 elements. They are lustrous silvery white soft heavy metals. China accounts for 90% of the world’s rare earth production. In India, monazite is the principal source of rare earths and thorium. Statement 1 and 2 are correct
Monazite, though found in most coastal areas of India, is unlikely to be found along the entire coast. The main mines are found along the coasts of southern India in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and in Orissa. Statement 3 is incorrect
As per Atomic Energy (Radiation Protection) Rules 2004, Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL), a wholly owned Public Sector Undertaking of the Government of India (GOI) under DAE, is the only entity which has been permitted to produce and process monazite, and handle it for domestic use as well as for export. Statement 4 is correct
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
Rare earth metals are a group of 17 elements. They are lustrous silvery white soft heavy metals. China accounts for 90% of the world’s rare earth production. In India, monazite is the principal source of rare earths and thorium. Statement 1 and 2 are correct
Monazite, though found in most coastal areas of India, is unlikely to be found along the entire coast. The main mines are found along the coasts of southern India in Kerala, Tamil Nadu and in Orissa. Statement 3 is incorrect
As per Atomic Energy (Radiation Protection) Rules 2004, Indian Rare Earths Limited (IREL), a wholly owned Public Sector Undertaking of the Government of India (GOI) under DAE, is the only entity which has been permitted to produce and process monazite, and handle it for domestic use as well as for export. Statement 4 is correct
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Question 2 of 34
2. Question
Which of the following is/are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal?
- High ash content
- Low sulphur content
- Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
The India Coal is mainly characterised by High Ash Content and Low Sulphur Content. Hence Option (a) is correct.
Coal is the most widely used fossil fuel in India. It meets a sizable portion of the country’s energy requirements.
It is used to generate power, provide energy to industries, and meet domestic demands.
Indian coals have a high ash level but a low sulphur content by nature.
Indian coal has a high ash fusion temperature of about 1,500°C.
In India, bituminous coal accounts for over 80% of the non-coking quality coal reserves.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
The India Coal is mainly characterised by High Ash Content and Low Sulphur Content. Hence Option (a) is correct.
Coal is the most widely used fossil fuel in India. It meets a sizable portion of the country’s energy requirements.
It is used to generate power, provide energy to industries, and meet domestic demands.
Indian coals have a high ash level but a low sulphur content by nature.
Indian coal has a high ash fusion temperature of about 1,500°C.
In India, bituminous coal accounts for over 80% of the non-coking quality coal reserves.
-
Question 3 of 34
3. Question
With reference to the famous coal mines and the states they are located in, identify the correct pair from the following:
Coal Mine State
- Singrauli – Madhya Pradesh
- Singareni – Odisha
- Talcher – Telangana
Select the correct answer:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Singrauli Coalfield is located between latitudes 24012’ N and 230 47’ N. It is spread over nearly 2,200 km2 but only a small part of the coalfield, around 220 km2, has been identified as promising by the Geological Survey of India. Singrauli Coalfield is spread across the districts of Singrauli and Sonebhadra in the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, mostly in the basin of the Son River. Singareni is a village located in Khammam district, Telangana, India. Coal reserves in Telangana were found first in Singareni. Colleries means a coal mine and all the infrastructure that is part of it, and Singareni Colleries refers to the colleries located at Singareni. The Singareni Collieries Company was named after it. Statement 3 Incorrect According to Geological Survey of India, the Talcher Coalfield has reserves of 38.65 billion tonnes, the highest in India. Talcher Coalfield covers an area of 500 km2. The coal is of lower grade containing only about 35 per cent of fixed carbon, 70 per cent volatile matter and 25 per cent ash content. Talcher Coalfield is located in Angul district in the Indian state of Odisha, in the valley of the Brahmani. Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect The Singrauli Coalfield is located between latitudes 24012’ N and 230 47’ N. It is spread over nearly 2,200 km2 but only a small part of the coalfield, around 220 km2, has been identified as promising by the Geological Survey of India. Singrauli Coalfield is spread across the districts of Singrauli and Sonebhadra in the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh, mostly in the basin of the Son River. Singareni is a village located in Khammam district, Telangana, India. Coal reserves in Telangana were found first in Singareni. Colleries means a coal mine and all the infrastructure that is part of it, and Singareni Colleries refers to the colleries located at Singareni. The Singareni Collieries Company was named after it. Statement 3 Incorrect According to Geological Survey of India, the Talcher Coalfield has reserves of 38.65 billion tonnes, the highest in India. Talcher Coalfield covers an area of 500 km2. The coal is of lower grade containing only about 35 per cent of fixed carbon, 70 per cent volatile matter and 25 per cent ash content. Talcher Coalfield is located in Angul district in the Indian state of Odisha, in the valley of the Brahmani. -
Question 4 of 34
4. Question
Consider the following statements with reference to water conservation in India:
- In the first century B.C., Sringaverapura near Allahabad had sophisticated water harvesting system channelling the flood water of the river Ganga.
- In the 11th Century, Bhopal Lake, one of the largest artificial lakes of its time, was built.
- In the 14th Century, the tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi was constructed by Iltutmish for supplying water to Siri Fort area.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct At Sringaverapura near Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh, India, there exists an extraordinary example of hydraulic engineering dating back to the end of the 1st century BC. It comprises three percolation-cum-storage tanks, fed by an 11 m wide and 5 m deep canal that used to skim the floodwaters off the monsoon-swollen Ganga. Bhojtal, formerly known as Upper Lake, is a large lake which lies on the western side of the capital city of Madhya Pradesh, Bhopal, India. It is a major source of drinking water for the residents of the city. Upper Bhopal Lake is arguably India’s oldest man-made lake, and was built in the 11th century by Raja Bhoj by building an earthen dam across the river Kolans. Statement 3 Correct Hauz-i-Shamsi, also called Shamshi Talab, is a water storage reservoir or tank built by Iltutmish of the Slave Dynasty in 1230 CE, at a location revealed to him in a dream by the Islamic prophet Muhammad. A palace called the Jahaz Mahal was built on the eastern edge of the same reservoir during the Lodi dynasty period in the 16th century as a retreat or Inn for use by pilgrims. The monuments are situated in Mehrauli, Delhi. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct At Sringaverapura near Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh, India, there exists an extraordinary example of hydraulic engineering dating back to the end of the 1st century BC. It comprises three percolation-cum-storage tanks, fed by an 11 m wide and 5 m deep canal that used to skim the floodwaters off the monsoon-swollen Ganga. Bhojtal, formerly known as Upper Lake, is a large lake which lies on the western side of the capital city of Madhya Pradesh, Bhopal, India. It is a major source of drinking water for the residents of the city. Upper Bhopal Lake is arguably India’s oldest man-made lake, and was built in the 11th century by Raja Bhoj by building an earthen dam across the river Kolans. Statement 3 Correct Hauz-i-Shamsi, also called Shamshi Talab, is a water storage reservoir or tank built by Iltutmish of the Slave Dynasty in 1230 CE, at a location revealed to him in a dream by the Islamic prophet Muhammad. A palace called the Jahaz Mahal was built on the eastern edge of the same reservoir during the Lodi dynasty period in the 16th century as a retreat or Inn for use by pilgrims. The monuments are situated in Mehrauli, Delhi. -
Question 5 of 34
5. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to distribution of mineral resources in India:
- Dharwar and Cuddapah systems contain reserves of major metallic minerals.
- Major coal deposits are confined to the Gondwana system.
- Most of the mineral-bearing rock formations are distributed in peninsular India.
Identify the correct statement/s from above:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Reserves of iron ore and manganese are found in the Dharwar System of the pre-Cambrian rocks in the country. Dharwar and Cuddapah systems contain reserves of major metallic minerals. Major coal deposits are confined to the Gondwana system. Occurrences of petroleum are found in the Tertiary rocks. Statement 3 Correct Most of the mineral-bearing rock formations are distributed in peninsula India. Therefore, this part is most significant for mineral resources. There are three major mineral belts can be demarcated within the peninsular plateaus. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Correct Reserves of iron ore and manganese are found in the Dharwar System of the pre-Cambrian rocks in the country. Dharwar and Cuddapah systems contain reserves of major metallic minerals. Major coal deposits are confined to the Gondwana system. Occurrences of petroleum are found in the Tertiary rocks. Statement 3 Correct Most of the mineral-bearing rock formations are distributed in peninsula India. Therefore, this part is most significant for mineral resources. There are three major mineral belts can be demarcated within the peninsular plateaus. -
Question 6 of 34
6. Question
With reference to Gold deposits, identify the correct statement/s:
1.Quartz veins in the Dharwar schists contain most of the country’s reserves of gold ore and it is called ‘placer deposits.
2.Gold is also obtained from sands of rivers, which is known as ‘lode deposit’.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Gold is a precious metal and is highly valued by people all over the world. It is one of the rare minerals. Quartz veins in the Dharwar schists contain most of the country’s reserves of gold ore. It is called ‘lode deposit’. Total recoverable reserves of gold ore are estimated at 177.9 lakh tonnes with 67.9 tonnes of metal. Gold is also obtained from sands of rivers, which is known as ‘placer deposits.’ There are three important goldfields in the country, namely, Kolar Gold Field, Kolar district, Hutti Gold Fields in Raichur district (both in Karnataka), and Ramagiri Gold Field in Anantpur district (Andhra Pradesh). Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Incorrect Gold is a precious metal and is highly valued by people all over the world. It is one of the rare minerals. Quartz veins in the Dharwar schists contain most of the country’s reserves of gold ore. It is called ‘lode deposit’. Total recoverable reserves of gold ore are estimated at 177.9 lakh tonnes with 67.9 tonnes of metal. Gold is also obtained from sands of rivers, which is known as ‘placer deposits.’ There are three important goldfields in the country, namely, Kolar Gold Field, Kolar district, Hutti Gold Fields in Raichur district (both in Karnataka), and Ramagiri Gold Field in Anantpur district (Andhra Pradesh). -
Question 7 of 34
7. Question
Consider the following statements:
- India has more arable area than China.
- The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
- The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Arable land is land ploughed or tilled regularly. India has the most arable land in the world followed by the United States, Russia, China and Brazil.
India and the United States account for roughly 22% of the world’s arable land.
- China has a larger total area of arable land compared to India. According to the World Bank and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), this is due to China’s vast territory. Despite having significant mountainous and desert areas, China’s extensive landmass allows it to have a substantial amount of arable land. As of 2021, the World Bank data indicates that China had approximately 120 million hectares of arable land, while India had about 170 million hectares devoted specifically to cropland, showing that while India has a larger area of cropland, China’s overall arable land area is extensive due to its broader agricultural practices including meadows and pastures. So, statement 1 is not correct.
- India has a higher proportion of irrigated land than China. China’s irrigation cover is 41% of the cultivated area, and India’s is 48%. So, statement 2 is correct.
However, the average productivity per hectare is higher in China i.e., 4.7 tonnes per hectare compared to India’s 2.7. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Arable land is land ploughed or tilled regularly. India has the most arable land in the world followed by the United States, Russia, China and Brazil.
India and the United States account for roughly 22% of the world’s arable land.
- China has a larger total area of arable land compared to India. According to the World Bank and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO), this is due to China’s vast territory. Despite having significant mountainous and desert areas, China’s extensive landmass allows it to have a substantial amount of arable land. As of 2021, the World Bank data indicates that China had approximately 120 million hectares of arable land, while India had about 170 million hectares devoted specifically to cropland, showing that while India has a larger area of cropland, China’s overall arable land area is extensive due to its broader agricultural practices including meadows and pastures. So, statement 1 is not correct.
- India has a higher proportion of irrigated land than China. China’s irrigation cover is 41% of the cultivated area, and India’s is 48%. So, statement 2 is correct.
However, the average productivity per hectare is higher in China i.e., 4.7 tonnes per hectare compared to India’s 2.7. So, statement 3 is not correct.
-
Question 8 of 34
8. Question
Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Ilmenite and Rutile are minerals classified as heavy minerals. They are integral components of beach sand deposits found along the coastal stretches of India. Ilmenite is represented chemically as FeO.TiO2 and rutile as TiO2. Both these minerals are rich in Titanium. Titanium dioxide (TiO2) is the key component in these minerals. These resources have significant industrial applications, particularly in the production of titanium metal, titanium dioxide pigments, and various aerospace and industrial applications. Hence Option D is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Ilmenite and Rutile are minerals classified as heavy minerals. They are integral components of beach sand deposits found along the coastal stretches of India. Ilmenite is represented chemically as FeO.TiO2 and rutile as TiO2. Both these minerals are rich in Titanium. Titanium dioxide (TiO2) is the key component in these minerals. These resources have significant industrial applications, particularly in the production of titanium metal, titanium dioxide pigments, and various aerospace and industrial applications. Hence Option D is correct.
-
Question 9 of 34
9. Question
About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is a major global producer of cobalt and has significant cobalt reserves, making it a critical player in the supply chain for electric vehicle batteries.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is a major global producer of cobalt and has significant cobalt reserves, making it a critical player in the supply chain for electric vehicle batteries.
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Question 10 of 34
10. Question
Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
It is true that Switzerland is the leading exporter of gold in the world. In 2021, Switzerland exported $86.7B in Gold, making it the 1st largest exporter of Gold in the world. The main destinations of Gold exports from Switzerland are: India ($29.3B), China ($16B), United States ($8.13B), Germany ($5.8B), and Hong Kong ($4.67B). So Statement 1 is correct
Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves in the world, rather it has the seventh largest gold reserve in the world. The top three countries with largest gold reserves in the world are the United States of America (USA) followed by Germany, Italy. Statement 2 is incorrect
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
It is true that Switzerland is the leading exporter of gold in the world. In 2021, Switzerland exported $86.7B in Gold, making it the 1st largest exporter of Gold in the world. The main destinations of Gold exports from Switzerland are: India ($29.3B), China ($16B), United States ($8.13B), Germany ($5.8B), and Hong Kong ($4.67B). So Statement 1 is correct
Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves in the world, rather it has the seventh largest gold reserve in the world. The top three countries with largest gold reserves in the world are the United States of America (USA) followed by Germany, Italy. Statement 2 is incorrect
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Question 11 of 34
11. Question
With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements:
- None of them uses seawater.
- None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
- None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- In India, several coal-fired thermal power plants employ seawater for a variety of functions, including cooling the condenser system. Seawater is a frequent supply of cooling water for power plants near the coast. It should be noted, however, that not all power plants use seawater; others may rely on freshwater sources. So, statement 1 is not correct.
- According to a report, 40 per cent of the country’s thermal power plants are located in areas facing high water stress, a problem since these plants use water for cooling. Scarce water is already hampering electricity generation in this region. So, statement 2 is not correct.
There are both privately and publicly owned coal-fired thermal power stations in India. The country’s power generating is a collaboration of corporate and public companies. Many private corporations have invested in the power industry and run coal-fired thermal power facilities. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- In India, several coal-fired thermal power plants employ seawater for a variety of functions, including cooling the condenser system. Seawater is a frequent supply of cooling water for power plants near the coast. It should be noted, however, that not all power plants use seawater; others may rely on freshwater sources. So, statement 1 is not correct.
- According to a report, 40 per cent of the country’s thermal power plants are located in areas facing high water stress, a problem since these plants use water for cooling. Scarce water is already hampering electricity generation in this region. So, statement 2 is not correct.
There are both privately and publicly owned coal-fired thermal power stations in India. The country’s power generating is a collaboration of corporate and public companies. Many private corporations have invested in the power industry and run coal-fired thermal power facilities. So, statement 3 is not correct.
-
Question 12 of 34
12. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Found throughout the northern part of the country except in the north-east.
- This vegetation type occurs where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm.
- Tendu, Palas, Amaltas and Axlewood are the common trees of these forests.
The above points refer to which of the following vegetation type of India?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
Region:
- Found throughout the northern part of the country except in the north-east.
- Also found in Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
Rainfall:
- Covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm.
- On the wetter margins, it has a transition to the moist deciduous, while on the drier margins to thorn forests.
Trees:
- As the dry season begins, the trees shed their leaves completely and the forest appears like vast grassland with naked trees all around.
- Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the common trees of these forests
Hence Option D is correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests
Region:
- Found throughout the northern part of the country except in the north-east.
- Also found in Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu.
Rainfall:
- Covers vast areas of the country, where rainfall ranges between 70 -100 cm.
- On the wetter margins, it has a transition to the moist deciduous, while on the drier margins to thorn forests.
Trees:
- As the dry season begins, the trees shed their leaves completely and the forest appears like vast grassland with naked trees all around.
- Tendu, palas, amaltas, bel, khair, axlewood, etc. are the common trees of these forests
Hence Option D is correct answer.
-
Question 13 of 34
13. Question
With reference to Tropical Deciduous Forests in India, identify the correct statement/s:
- They are the most widespread forests of India.
- Trees of this forest-type do not shed their leaves in any specific season.
- In these forests, the common animals found are lion, tiger, deer and elephant.
Select the answer using codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread forests of India. They are also called the monsoon forests and spread over the region receiving rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm. Trees of this forest-type shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in dry summer. On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous. Statement 3 Correct In these forests, the common animals found are lion, tiger, pig, deer and elephant. A huge variety of birds, lizards, snakes, and tortoises are also found here. Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Correct Incorrect Tropical Deciduous Forests are the most widespread forests of India. They are also called the monsoon forests and spread over the region receiving rainfall between 200 cm and 70 cm. Trees of this forest-type shed their leaves for about six to eight weeks in dry summer. On the basis of the availability of water, these forests are further divided into moist and dry deciduous. Statement 3 Correct In these forests, the common animals found are lion, tiger, pig, deer and elephant. A huge variety of birds, lizards, snakes, and tortoises are also found here. -
Question 14 of 34
14. Question
Consider the following pairs of plants and their medicinal properties:
Plants Medicinal Properties/Use
- Sarpagandha – Controlling diabetes
- Babool – Cure for eye sores
- Kachnar – Cure ulcers
Identify the correct pairs from the above pairs:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct India is known for its herbs and spices from ancient times. The commonly used plants in India are: Sarpagandha, which is used to treat blood pressure; it is found only in India. Jamun, the juice from ripe fruit is used to prepare vinegar which is carminative and diuretic, and has digestive properties. The powder of the seed is used for controlling diabetes. Some 2,000 plants have been described in Ayurveda and atleast 500 are in regular use. Arjun – The fresh juice of leaves is a cure for earache. It is also used to regulate blood pressure.
Babool – Leaves are used as a cure for eye sores. Its gum is used as a tonic.
Neem – Has high antibiotic and antibacterial properties.
Statement 3 Correct The World Conservation Union’s Red list has named 352 medicinal plants of which 52 are critically threatened and 49 endangered. Tulsi Plant is used to cure cough and cold. Kachnar is used to cure asthma and ulcers. The buds and roots are good for digestive problems. Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Statement 1 Statement 2 Incorrect Correct India is known for its herbs and spices from ancient times. The commonly used plants in India are: Sarpagandha, which is used to treat blood pressure; it is found only in India. Jamun, the juice from ripe fruit is used to prepare vinegar which is carminative and diuretic, and has digestive properties. The powder of the seed is used for controlling diabetes. Some 2,000 plants have been described in Ayurveda and atleast 500 are in regular use. Arjun – The fresh juice of leaves is a cure for earache. It is also used to regulate blood pressure.
Babool – Leaves are used as a cure for eye sores. Its gum is used as a tonic.
Neem – Has high antibiotic and antibacterial properties.
Statement 3 Correct The World Conservation Union’s Red list has named 352 medicinal plants of which 52 are critically threatened and 49 endangered. Tulsi Plant is used to cure cough and cold. Kachnar is used to cure asthma and ulcers. The buds and roots are good for digestive problems. -
Question 15 of 34
15. Question
Consider the following description of a crop in India: ( NCERT class 10 – Chapter 4 Agriculture).
It is a crop which is used both as food and fodder. It is a kharif crop which requires temperature between 21°C to 27°C and grows well in old alluvial soil. In some states like Bihar, it is grown in Rabi season also. Major producing states are Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
Identify the crop from the description given above:
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Maize is a crop which is used both as food and fodder. It is a kharif crop which requires temperature between 21°C to 27°C and grows well in old alluvial soil. In some states like Bihar maize is grown in rabi season also. Use of modern inputs such as HYV seeds, fertilisers and irrigation have contributed to the increasing production of maize. Major maize-producing states are Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. Hence Option A is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Maize is a crop which is used both as food and fodder. It is a kharif crop which requires temperature between 21°C to 27°C and grows well in old alluvial soil. In some states like Bihar maize is grown in rabi season also. Use of modern inputs such as HYV seeds, fertilisers and irrigation have contributed to the increasing production of maize. Major maize-producing states are Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. Hence Option A is correct.
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Question 16 of 34
16. Question
Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Laterite soil is reddish-brown in colour due to the presence of iron oxide. Statement 1 is correct.
Laterite soil is rich in bauxite or ferric oxide. Poor in lime, magnesia, potash and nitrogen. Statement 2 is incorrect.
The laterite soils are commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Orissa and Assam. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Suitable crops grown in laterite soil are Groundnut, cashew nut, coffee, rubber, cinchona, tapioca, etc. Statement 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Laterite soil is reddish-brown in colour due to the presence of iron oxide. Statement 1 is correct.
Laterite soil is rich in bauxite or ferric oxide. Poor in lime, magnesia, potash and nitrogen. Statement 2 is incorrect.
The laterite soils are commonly found in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Madhya Pradesh and the hilly areas of Orissa and Assam. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Suitable crops grown in laterite soil are Groundnut, cashew nut, coffee, rubber, cinchona, tapioca, etc. Statement 4 is correct.
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Question 17 of 34
17. Question
Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in Terrace Farming. Terracing and contour bunding which divide the hill slope into numerous small slopes, check the flow of water, promote absorption of water by soil and save soil from erosion.
Soil Conservation:
- Preventing soil erosion or diminished fertility due to excessive use, acidification, salinization, or other chemical soil contamination is known as soil conservation. The biggest single threat to Indian agriculture and animal husbandry is soil erosion.
Contour Bunding: Construction of banks along contours is referred to as contour bunding. In affluent areas, this technique for conserving soil and water is used. Some other methods of soil conservation. Some other methods like Crop, Strip cropping, No-till farming, Contour ploughing, Terrace farming. Hence Option D is correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in Terrace Farming. Terracing and contour bunding which divide the hill slope into numerous small slopes, check the flow of water, promote absorption of water by soil and save soil from erosion.
Soil Conservation:
- Preventing soil erosion or diminished fertility due to excessive use, acidification, salinization, or other chemical soil contamination is known as soil conservation. The biggest single threat to Indian agriculture and animal husbandry is soil erosion.
Contour Bunding: Construction of banks along contours is referred to as contour bunding. In affluent areas, this technique for conserving soil and water is used. Some other methods of soil conservation. Some other methods like Crop, Strip cropping, No-till farming, Contour ploughing, Terrace farming. Hence Option D is correct answer.
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Question 18 of 34
18. Question
Which of the following adds nitrogen to the soil?
- Excretion of urea by animals
- Burning of coal by man
- Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Animal waste like urea, uric acid and death of vegetation add nitrogen in the form of nitrates directly into the soil. Hence Statements 1 and 3 are correct
Burning coal releases CO, CO2, sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen – air pollutants to the atmosphere. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect:
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
Animal waste like urea, uric acid and death of vegetation add nitrogen in the form of nitrates directly into the soil. Hence Statements 1 and 3 are correct
Burning coal releases CO, CO2, sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen – air pollutants to the atmosphere. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect:
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Question 19 of 34
19. Question
In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?
- Terrace cultivation
- Deforestation
- Tropical climate
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct
Solution(b)
Explanation:
Soil erosion is the process by which soil is displaced and transported from one location to another by natural forces such as wind or water. It is a natural process that occurs over time, but human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, and construction can accelerate the process, leading to significant environmental damage.
Terracing is the practice of creating nearly level areas in a hillside area. protected from erosion by other soil barriers. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect
Deforestation is one of the major reasons for soil erosion. It includes cutting and felling of trees, removal of forest litter. Browsing and trampling by livestock, forest fires, also leads to deforestation, etc. Hence Statement 2 is correct:
In the tropical monsoon climate people are mainly engaged in agriculture. Crops growing: rice, wheat, pulses, cotton, jute, sugarcane, oilseeds, coffee, tea and various types of fruits and vegetables. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution(b)
Explanation:
Soil erosion is the process by which soil is displaced and transported from one location to another by natural forces such as wind or water. It is a natural process that occurs over time, but human activities such as deforestation, overgrazing, and construction can accelerate the process, leading to significant environmental damage.
Terracing is the practice of creating nearly level areas in a hillside area. protected from erosion by other soil barriers. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect
Deforestation is one of the major reasons for soil erosion. It includes cutting and felling of trees, removal of forest litter. Browsing and trampling by livestock, forest fires, also leads to deforestation, etc. Hence Statement 2 is correct:
In the tropical monsoon climate people are mainly engaged in agriculture. Crops growing: rice, wheat, pulses, cotton, jute, sugarcane, oilseeds, coffee, tea and various types of fruits and vegetables. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 20 of 34
20. Question
The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
The black cotton soils of India have been formed due to the weathering of the fissure volcanic rock. Black soil is ideal for growing cotton and thus it is also known as black cotton soil. Formed as a result of the basaltic rocks’ weathering, which first appeared during Cretaceous fissure eruption. This type of lava flow-derived soil is typical of the northwest Deccan plateau’s Deccan trap (Basalt) region. Basalt contains titanium-ferromagnetic chemicals, which give basalt its characteristic black colour. Hence Option B is the correct answer.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
The black cotton soils of India have been formed due to the weathering of the fissure volcanic rock. Black soil is ideal for growing cotton and thus it is also known as black cotton soil. Formed as a result of the basaltic rocks’ weathering, which first appeared during Cretaceous fissure eruption. This type of lava flow-derived soil is typical of the northwest Deccan plateau’s Deccan trap (Basalt) region. Basalt contains titanium-ferromagnetic chemicals, which give basalt its characteristic black colour. Hence Option B is the correct answer.
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Question 21 of 34
21. Question
With reference to Mullaperiyar Dam, consider the following statements:
- It is a masonry gravity dam situated on the Periyar River.
- The dam is operated and maintained by the state of Kerala.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Context:
- The Supreme Court fixed in January a detailed hearing of a petition seeking to bring down the permissible water level of the Mullaperiyar Dam. In this context, the dam becomes important for UPSC.
Explanation:
- Mullaperiyar Dam is a masonry gravity dam situated on the Periyar River in Thekkady, Idukki district, in Kerala. It is located 881 m above sea level, on the Cardamom Hills of the Western Ghats. The dam is built at the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers. Its construction began in 1887 and was completed in 1895. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Periyar National Park is located around the dam’s reservoir. Although the dam is located in Kerala, it is operated and maintained by the neighbouring state of Tamil Nadu. It was according to a 999-year lease agreement made during British rule, that the operational rights were handed over to Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Context:
- The Supreme Court fixed in January a detailed hearing of a petition seeking to bring down the permissible water level of the Mullaperiyar Dam. In this context, the dam becomes important for UPSC.
Explanation:
- Mullaperiyar Dam is a masonry gravity dam situated on the Periyar River in Thekkady, Idukki district, in Kerala. It is located 881 m above sea level, on the Cardamom Hills of the Western Ghats. The dam is built at the confluence of the Mullayar and Periyar rivers. Its construction began in 1887 and was completed in 1895. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The Periyar National Park is located around the dam’s reservoir. Although the dam is located in Kerala, it is operated and maintained by the neighbouring state of Tamil Nadu. It was according to a 999-year lease agreement made during British rule, that the operational rights were handed over to Tamil Nadu. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
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Question 22 of 34
22. Question
With reference to Anna Chakra, sometimes seen in news, consider the following statements:
- It is a Public Distribution System (PDS) Supply chain optimization tool.
- It is developed by Government of India in collaboration with the World Bank.
- Under this initiative, SCAN portal is launched to simplify and expedite the subsidy claim process for states under the National Food Security Act.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Context:
- Recently, the Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution launched ‘Anna Chakra’ and SCAN (Subsidy Claim Application for NFSA) portal. So, these initiatives become important for UPSC.
Explanation:
- Anna Chakra is a Public Distribution System (PDS) Supply chain optimization tool. It is spearheaded by the Department of Food Public Distribution, which enhances the efficiency of the PDS logistics network across the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- It is developed in collaboration with the World Food Programme (WFP) and Foundation for Innovation and Technology Transfer (FITT), IIT-Delhi. The project leverages advanced algorithms to identify optimal routes and ensure seamless movement of food grains across supply chain nodes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Under this initiative, SCAN (Subsidy Claim Application for NFSA) portal is launched which will provide for a single window submission of subsidy claims by states, claim scrutiny and approval by DFPD facilitating expeditious settlement process. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Context:
- Recently, the Union Minister of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution launched ‘Anna Chakra’ and SCAN (Subsidy Claim Application for NFSA) portal. So, these initiatives become important for UPSC.
Explanation:
- Anna Chakra is a Public Distribution System (PDS) Supply chain optimization tool. It is spearheaded by the Department of Food Public Distribution, which enhances the efficiency of the PDS logistics network across the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
- It is developed in collaboration with the World Food Programme (WFP) and Foundation for Innovation and Technology Transfer (FITT), IIT-Delhi. The project leverages advanced algorithms to identify optimal routes and ensure seamless movement of food grains across supply chain nodes. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Under this initiative, SCAN (Subsidy Claim Application for NFSA) portal is launched which will provide for a single window submission of subsidy claims by states, claim scrutiny and approval by DFPD facilitating expeditious settlement process. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 23 of 34
23. Question
Consider the following statements about Angami tribe:
- They are mainly found in the state of Himachal Pradesh.
- They belong to the Mongoloid race.
- ‘Sekrenyi’ is the main festival celebrated among this tribe.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Context:
- The traditional Naga-style Tug of War competition was held on December 5, at the main arena of the Naga Heritage Village in Kisama, as part of the ongoing 25th Edition of the Hornbill Festival. In this context, basic details about the question can be asked by UPSC about the tribe.
Explanation:
- The Angami-Naga tribe is one among the many other Naga tribes and has its own cultural identity. They mainly reside in the Kohima district of Nagaland. Their ancestors migrated from Myanmar to Nagaland. They are also one of the recognised ethnic groups in the state of Manipur. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- They belong to the Mongoloid race. These tribes are known for their terrace wet cultivation. Animal husbandry has also become one of the basic occupations. They are also known for their tradition of cane and bamboo basketry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
“Tenyidie” is the most common language spoken among the Angami Nagas in Nagaland. They do not have a script of their own. ‘Sekrenyi’ is the main festival celebrated among this tribe. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Context:
- The traditional Naga-style Tug of War competition was held on December 5, at the main arena of the Naga Heritage Village in Kisama, as part of the ongoing 25th Edition of the Hornbill Festival. In this context, basic details about the question can be asked by UPSC about the tribe.
Explanation:
- The Angami-Naga tribe is one among the many other Naga tribes and has its own cultural identity. They mainly reside in the Kohima district of Nagaland. Their ancestors migrated from Myanmar to Nagaland. They are also one of the recognised ethnic groups in the state of Manipur. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- They belong to the Mongoloid race. These tribes are known for their terrace wet cultivation. Animal husbandry has also become one of the basic occupations. They are also known for their tradition of cane and bamboo basketry. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
“Tenyidie” is the most common language spoken among the Angami Nagas in Nagaland. They do not have a script of their own. ‘Sekrenyi’ is the main festival celebrated among this tribe. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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Question 24 of 34
24. Question
Consider the following statements about PM e-VIDYA:
- It was launched by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
- It is aimed at bridging the digital divide and ensuring inclusive, quality education for all learners across the nation.
- It supports the vision of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- PM e-VIDYA was launched as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan by the Ministry of Education on 17th May 2020. The initiative leverages technology to make education accessible to all students, including those in rural and remote areas, by providing a wide range of digital resources, courses, and interactive content. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
It is aimed at bridging the digital divide and ensuring inclusive, quality education for all learners across the nation. It supports the vision of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, ensuring equitable and quality education across the country. It provides multi-mode access to education through digital, online, and on-air platforms to minimise learning losses. Hence, statement 2 and 3 are correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- PM e-VIDYA was launched as part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyaan by the Ministry of Education on 17th May 2020. The initiative leverages technology to make education accessible to all students, including those in rural and remote areas, by providing a wide range of digital resources, courses, and interactive content. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
It is aimed at bridging the digital divide and ensuring inclusive, quality education for all learners across the nation. It supports the vision of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, ensuring equitable and quality education across the country. It provides multi-mode access to education through digital, online, and on-air platforms to minimise learning losses. Hence, statement 2 and 3 are correct.
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Question 25 of 34
25. Question
Consider the following statements about International Energy Agency (IEA):
- It is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation within the framework of G-20.
- It was established in 2009, in the wake of the 2008 global financial crisis.
- India is a member of this organisation.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Context:
- The IEA’s Global Conference on Energy & AI recently featured a high-level roundtable focused on building strategic understanding on energy and AI topics and a technical forum for experts. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- International Energy Agency is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation within the OECD framework. The IEA was established in 1974, in the wake of the 1973-1974 oil crisis, to help its members respond to major oil supply disruptions, a role it continues to fulfil today. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are not correct.
The IEA has four main areas of focus: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness, and engagement worldwide. It consists of 31 member countries and eleven association countries. India joined this organization in 2017 as an Associate member (not a member). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Context:
- The IEA’s Global Conference on Energy & AI recently featured a high-level roundtable focused on building strategic understanding on energy and AI topics and a technical forum for experts. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- International Energy Agency is an autonomous intergovernmental organisation within the OECD framework. The IEA was established in 1974, in the wake of the 1973-1974 oil crisis, to help its members respond to major oil supply disruptions, a role it continues to fulfil today. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are not correct.
The IEA has four main areas of focus: energy security, economic development, environmental awareness, and engagement worldwide. It consists of 31 member countries and eleven association countries. India joined this organization in 2017 as an Associate member (not a member). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
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Question 26 of 34
26. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘GG Tau A System,’ seen in news recently:
- It is a unique triple-star system which is 1 to 5 million years old.
- This is a rare setup in the universe, and studying it helps scientists understand how planets form in more complicated star systems.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Context:
- Recently, researchers from the National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER) in Odisha, studied a unique triple-star system called GG Tau A. In this context, the system becomes important for UPSC.
Explanation:
- GG Tau A System is a unique triple-star system which is located 489 light-years away from Earth. The system is young- only 1 to 5 million years old- which makes it perfect for studying the early stages of planet formation. Around these stars is a disk made of gas and dust, which is where planets begin to form. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The three stars in GG Tau A interact with each other and affect the disk of gas and dust around them, making it harder to predict how planets might form. This is a rare setup in the universe, and studying it helps scientists understand how planets form in more complicated star systems. It allows scientists to learn how planets could form in these more complicated environments. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Context:
- Recently, researchers from the National Institute of Science Education and Research (NISER) in Odisha, studied a unique triple-star system called GG Tau A. In this context, the system becomes important for UPSC.
Explanation:
- GG Tau A System is a unique triple-star system which is located 489 light-years away from Earth. The system is young- only 1 to 5 million years old- which makes it perfect for studying the early stages of planet formation. Around these stars is a disk made of gas and dust, which is where planets begin to form. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The three stars in GG Tau A interact with each other and affect the disk of gas and dust around them, making it harder to predict how planets might form. This is a rare setup in the universe, and studying it helps scientists understand how planets form in more complicated star systems. It allows scientists to learn how planets could form in these more complicated environments. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 27 of 34
27. Question
Consider the following statements about Subaru Telescope:
- It is a South Korean optical-infrared telescope.
- It is located on the dormant volcano Mauna Kea on the island of Hawaii.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Context:
- The Subaru Telescope recently captured a pair of interacting galaxies designated as NGC 5257 and NGC 5258. So, a question about the telescope can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- It is a Japanese 8.2-metre (27-foot) optical-infrared telescope. The telescope is named for the Japanese name for the Pleiades and is operated by the National Astronomical Observatory of Japan. Construction on Subaru began in 1992, and the first observations were made in 1999. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
It is located on the dormant volcano Mauna Kea (4,163 metres) on the island of Hawaii. An adaptive optics system consisting of 261 actuators can change the shape of the mirror in the telescope so that it is not affected by deformations caused by gravity. Its powerful light-collecting capability can capture weak light from celestial objects. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Context:
- The Subaru Telescope recently captured a pair of interacting galaxies designated as NGC 5257 and NGC 5258. So, a question about the telescope can be asked by UPSC.
Explanation:
- It is a Japanese 8.2-metre (27-foot) optical-infrared telescope. The telescope is named for the Japanese name for the Pleiades and is operated by the National Astronomical Observatory of Japan. Construction on Subaru began in 1992, and the first observations were made in 1999. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
It is located on the dormant volcano Mauna Kea (4,163 metres) on the island of Hawaii. An adaptive optics system consisting of 261 actuators can change the shape of the mirror in the telescope so that it is not affected by deformations caused by gravity. Its powerful light-collecting capability can capture weak light from celestial objects. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
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Question 28 of 34
28. Question
Consider the following statements about Sacred Groves:
- Sacred Groves are patches of natural or near-natural vegetation, dedicated by local communities to their ancestral spirits or deities.
- These are protected by local communities, usually through customary taboos and sanctions with ancestral and ecological implications.
- These are known as Kavu, Devarakadu, Devrai, and Jahera in different parts of India.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Sacred Groves are patches of natural or near-natural vegetation, dedicated by local communities to their ancestral spirits or deities. These groves are protected by local communities, usually through customary taboos and sanctions with ancestral and ecological implications. They are often the last refuge of endemic species in the geographical region. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct.
India has well over 13,000 documented sacred groves. The states particularly rich in abundance of groves are Kerala, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. These are known as Kavu/Sarpa Kavu in Kerala, Devarakadu/Devkad in Karnataka, Deorai/Devrai in Maharashtra, Jahera/ Thakuramma in Odisha, etc. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Sacred Groves are patches of natural or near-natural vegetation, dedicated by local communities to their ancestral spirits or deities. These groves are protected by local communities, usually through customary taboos and sanctions with ancestral and ecological implications. They are often the last refuge of endemic species in the geographical region. Hence, statement 1 and 2 are correct.
India has well over 13,000 documented sacred groves. The states particularly rich in abundance of groves are Kerala, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Meghalaya, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. These are known as Kavu/Sarpa Kavu in Kerala, Devarakadu/Devkad in Karnataka, Deorai/Devrai in Maharashtra, Jahera/ Thakuramma in Odisha, etc. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
-
Question 29 of 34
29. Question
Consider the following statements about Indira Gandhi Peace Price:
- The award consists of a monetary award of 5 crore rupees along with a citation.
- It is given to individuals only who work towards ensuring international peace and development.
- The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for 2024 will be conferred on Pratham NGO.
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?
Correct
Solution (d)
Context:
- The announcement for Indira Gandhi Peace Price 2024 was announced recently. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the prize.
Explanation:
- The Indira Gandhi Peace Price, also known as the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development, was instituted in the memory of the former Prime Minister by a trust in her name in 1986. It consists of a monetary award of 25 lakh rupees along with a citation. Hence, statement 1 is INCORRECT.
- The award is given to individuals or organisations who work towards ensuring international peace and development, ensuring that scientific discoveries are used to further the scope of freedom and better humanity, and creating a new international economic order. Hence, statement 2 is INCORRECT.
The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development for 2024 will be conferred on former Chilean president and prominent human rights voice Michelle Bachelet, a statement issued by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust said recently. Hence, statement 3 is INCORRECT.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Context:
- The announcement for Indira Gandhi Peace Price 2024 was announced recently. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the prize.
Explanation:
- The Indira Gandhi Peace Price, also known as the Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development, was instituted in the memory of the former Prime Minister by a trust in her name in 1986. It consists of a monetary award of 25 lakh rupees along with a citation. Hence, statement 1 is INCORRECT.
- The award is given to individuals or organisations who work towards ensuring international peace and development, ensuring that scientific discoveries are used to further the scope of freedom and better humanity, and creating a new international economic order. Hence, statement 2 is INCORRECT.
The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development for 2024 will be conferred on former Chilean president and prominent human rights voice Michelle Bachelet, a statement issued by the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust said recently. Hence, statement 3 is INCORRECT.
-
Question 30 of 34
30. Question
Consider the following statements about Markhor:
- It is a large wild goat which is known for its thick fur and corkscrew horns.
- It is classified as ‘Critically Endangered’ in the IUCN Red List.
- It is declared as the national animal of Bhutan.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Context:
- The Markhor, a wild goat with spiral-shaped horns, was seen in a rare appearance in Noorkha village of Boniyar in Baramulla district of North Kashmir recently. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about Markhor.
Explanation:
- Markhor is a large wild goat of the family Bovidae (order Artiodactyla). It is known for its thick fur, flowing beard, and corkscrew horns. It is a diurnal animal and is mainly active in the early morning and late afternoon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The conservation status of Markhor under IUCN Red List is ‘Near Threatened.’ It is found in the moist to semi-arid mountain tracts of Pakistan, India, Afghanistan, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan, and Tajikistan. It is declared as the national animal of Pakistan, where it is also known as the screw-horn or screw-horned goat. Hence, statement 2 and 3 are not correct.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Context:
- The Markhor, a wild goat with spiral-shaped horns, was seen in a rare appearance in Noorkha village of Boniyar in Baramulla district of North Kashmir recently. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about Markhor.
Explanation:
- Markhor is a large wild goat of the family Bovidae (order Artiodactyla). It is known for its thick fur, flowing beard, and corkscrew horns. It is a diurnal animal and is mainly active in the early morning and late afternoon. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
The conservation status of Markhor under IUCN Red List is ‘Near Threatened.’ It is found in the moist to semi-arid mountain tracts of Pakistan, India, Afghanistan, Uzbekistan, Turkmenistan, and Tajikistan. It is declared as the national animal of Pakistan, where it is also known as the screw-horn or screw-horned goat. Hence, statement 2 and 3 are not correct.
-
Question 31 of 34
31. Question
Passage – 1
Overexploitation of natural resources, deforestation, and pollution contribute to climate change, intensifying its adverse effects. Scarce resources fuel conflicts as communities vie for access, heightening tensions, and jeopardizing stability. Climate-induced resource scarcity, like water shortages and agricultural challenges, amplifies vulnerabilities, especially in marginalized regions. Sustainable resource management, renewable energy adoption, and international cooperation are crucial to mitigate climate change and alleviate resource-driven conflicts, fostering a resilient and equitable global response to the complex interplay between diminishing resources and the escalating climate crisis.
Q.31) Which of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: The given option best summarizes the whole theme of the passage which is the crucial issue of diminishing resources caused by climate change and the attention it needs in the form of international cooperation and sustainable solutions. The lines, “Climate-induced resource scarcity, … Sustainable resource management, renewable energy adoption, international cooperation are crucial to mitigate climate change and alleviate resource-driven conflicts, fostering a resilient and equitable global response to the complex interplay between diminishing resources and the escalating climate crisis” validate the given option. Hence, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option is vague. The passage talks about diminishing resources and how it is connected to climate change, but this option only talks about solutions to climate change. So, this option does not capture the central theme or context of the passage in its entirety.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not cover the context of human survival due to diminishing resources caused by climate change. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option seems correct. However, it only partially covers the theme of the passage. It only mentions the issue and misses the solution suggested in the passage regarding sustainable resource management and global cooperation. So, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: The given option best summarizes the whole theme of the passage which is the crucial issue of diminishing resources caused by climate change and the attention it needs in the form of international cooperation and sustainable solutions. The lines, “Climate-induced resource scarcity, … Sustainable resource management, renewable energy adoption, international cooperation are crucial to mitigate climate change and alleviate resource-driven conflicts, fostering a resilient and equitable global response to the complex interplay between diminishing resources and the escalating climate crisis” validate the given option. Hence, this is the best crux of the passage.
Option (b) is incorrect: The given option is vague. The passage talks about diminishing resources and how it is connected to climate change, but this option only talks about solutions to climate change. So, this option does not capture the central theme or context of the passage in its entirety.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not cover the context of human survival due to diminishing resources caused by climate change. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage and is not correct.
Option (d) is incorrect: The given option seems correct. However, it only partially covers the theme of the passage. It only mentions the issue and misses the solution suggested in the passage regarding sustainable resource management and global cooperation. So, this option is not the best crux of the passage.
-
Question 32 of 34
32. Question
Passage – 2
The rapid evolution of technology has enabled the creation and dissemination of misinformation at an unprecedented scale. Technological ethics grapples with the moral implications of advancements in information dissemination, particularly in the context of the pervasive issue of fake news. Ethical considerations in this realm involve questions of responsibility, accountability, and the potential harm caused by the spread of false information. Fake news, often designed to manipulate public opinion, can have profound societal consequences, eroding trust in information sources and contributing to a polarized discourse. Striking a balance between freedom of expression and the prevention of harm is a complex challenge. Technological ethics should guide the development and implementation of tools and policies that promote transparency, fact checking, and responsible information sharing, fostering an ethical digital landscape that prioritizes truth and integrity.
Q.32) What is the main idea that we can infer from the passage?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation
(a) is incorrect: The passage nowhere specifies or mentions about the responsibilities of technology platforms, content creators and consumers separately. Hence, this is not the correct inference.
Option (b) is correct: The given option is based on the lines: “Technological ethics should guide the development and implementation of tools and policies that promote transparency, fact-checking, and responsible information sharing, fostering an ethical digital landscape that prioritizes truth and integrity.” These lines show that technological ethics are critical for handling fake news because ethics promote transparency, truth and integrity. Hence, this option is correct.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about a surveillance system. Moreover, this option misses out the main theme of the passage, which is technological ethics. Hence, this is not the correct inference.
Option (d) is incorrect: Though true, this statement misses out the main theme of the passage, which is technological ethics. Fake news is an important aspect covered in the passage, but so is technological ethics.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation
(a) is incorrect: The passage nowhere specifies or mentions about the responsibilities of technology platforms, content creators and consumers separately. Hence, this is not the correct inference.
Option (b) is correct: The given option is based on the lines: “Technological ethics should guide the development and implementation of tools and policies that promote transparency, fact-checking, and responsible information sharing, fostering an ethical digital landscape that prioritizes truth and integrity.” These lines show that technological ethics are critical for handling fake news because ethics promote transparency, truth and integrity. Hence, this option is correct.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about a surveillance system. Moreover, this option misses out the main theme of the passage, which is technological ethics. Hence, this is not the correct inference.
Option (d) is incorrect: Though true, this statement misses out the main theme of the passage, which is technological ethics. Fake news is an important aspect covered in the passage, but so is technological ethics.
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Question 33 of 34
33. Question
Passage – 1
Tigers live in some of the most important but also most highly threatened habitats on the planet, where many of Asia’s most exceptional species thrive. In Sumatra, dense tropical forests form the only habitat in the world where tigers are found to live alongside orangutans, rhinos and elephants. Protecting tiger landscapes not only helps to protect these majestic big cats but also thousands of other species. Left with just 5% of the range where they used to roam, tigers are losing their homes to deforestation, infrastructure, and other human disturbances, forcing them into rapidly diminishing pockets of nature.
Q.33) Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect. The given crux is not correct. Refer to the lines “Left with just 5% of the range where they used to roam, tigers are losing their homes to deforestation, infrastructure, and other human disturbances, forcing them into rapidly diminishing pockets of nature.” It is true that tigers are losing their habitats, however, there is no information about whether this loss of habitat has made tigers ‘the most’ threatened species on the planet. Also, there could be other factors behind their reducing numbers like poaching. So, as per the passage, this option is not correct.
Option (b) is correct. The lines “Protecting tiger landscapes not only helps to protect these majestic big cats but also thousands of other species (feature of Keystone species). Left with just 5% of the range where they used to roam, tigers are losing their homes to deforestation, infrastructure, and other human disturbances, forcing them into rapidly diminishing pockets of nature.” The given option captures the essence of the passage that since the tiger is a keystone species, it is critical to protect it and preserve its habitat. Therefore, this answer option best reflects the crux of the passage.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation
Option (a) is incorrect. The given crux is not correct. Refer to the lines “Left with just 5% of the range where they used to roam, tigers are losing their homes to deforestation, infrastructure, and other human disturbances, forcing them into rapidly diminishing pockets of nature.” It is true that tigers are losing their habitats, however, there is no information about whether this loss of habitat has made tigers ‘the most’ threatened species on the planet. Also, there could be other factors behind their reducing numbers like poaching. So, as per the passage, this option is not correct.
Option (b) is correct. The lines “Protecting tiger landscapes not only helps to protect these majestic big cats but also thousands of other species (feature of Keystone species). Left with just 5% of the range where they used to roam, tigers are losing their homes to deforestation, infrastructure, and other human disturbances, forcing them into rapidly diminishing pockets of nature.” The given option captures the essence of the passage that since the tiger is a keystone species, it is critical to protect it and preserve its habitat. Therefore, this answer option best reflects the crux of the passage.
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Question 34 of 34
34. Question
If ‘LAPTOP’ is written as ‘MWYUKY’, then how would ‘BEACON’ be written?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation
Here, we are required to decipher or decode the pattern.
LAPTOP is written as MWYUKY. We can see that the underlying pattern is very simple, as shown below: L + 12 = M
A – 22 = W
P + 32 = Y
T + 12 = U
O- 22 = K
P+ 32 = Y
We will follow a similar pattern to code BEACON.
B + 12 = C
E – 22 = A
A + 32 = J
C + 12 = D
O – 22 = K
N + 32 = W
So, the required code is CAJDKW. Hence, option (d) is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation
Here, we are required to decipher or decode the pattern.
LAPTOP is written as MWYUKY. We can see that the underlying pattern is very simple, as shown below: L + 12 = M
A – 22 = W
P + 32 = Y
T + 12 = U
O- 22 = K
P+ 32 = Y
We will follow a similar pattern to code BEACON.
B + 12 = C
E – 22 = A
A + 32 = J
C + 12 = D
O – 22 = K
N + 32 = W
So, the required code is CAJDKW. Hence, option (d) is correct.
All the Best
IASbaba