[DAY 38] 60 DAY RAPID REVISION (RaRe) SERIES for UPSC Prelims 2025 – POLITY, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT TEST SERIES!

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Supreme Court of India is one of the very powerful courts anywhere in the world. However, it functions within the limitations imposed by the Constitution. The functions and responsibilities of the Supreme Court are defined by the Constitution. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

The capital of Andaman and Nicobar Islands is Port Blair and it falls under the jurisdiction of Calcutta High Court. The capital of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu is Silvassa and it falls under the jurisdiction of Mumbai High Court. The capital of Lakshadweep is Kavaratti and it falls under the jurisdiction of Kerala High Court. Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Under Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, the Supreme Court acts as the highest court of appeal. A person can appeal to the Supreme Court against the decisions of the High Court. However, High Court must certify that the case is fit for appeal, that is to say that it involves a serious matter of interpretation of law or Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• Under Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, cases can be directly considered by the Supreme Court without going to the lower courts before that. The Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court also establishes it as an umpire in all disputes regarding federal matters. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Under Writ Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, the Supreme Court can give special orders in the form of writs. The High Courts can also issue writs, but the persons whose rights are violated have the choice of either approaching the High Court or approaching the Supreme Court directly. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Under Article 144 of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court has the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it. Thus, the decisions made by the Supreme Court are binding on all other courts within the territory of India. The orders passed by it are enforceable throughout the length and breadth of the country. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Under Article 137 of the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court has the power to review any judgment pronounced or order made by it. Thus, the Supreme Court itself is not bound by its decision and can at any time review it. Besides, if there is a case of contempt of the Supreme Court, then the Supreme Court itself decides such a case. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• • One of the most important powers of the Supreme Court is the power of judicial review. Judicial Review means the power of the Supreme Court (or High Courts) to examine the constitutionality of any law if the Court arrives at the conclusion that the law is inconsistent with the provisions of the Constitution, such a law is declared as unconstitutional and inapplicable. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The term judicial review is nowhere mentioned in the Constitution. However, the fact that India has a written constitution and the Supreme Court can strike down a law that goes against fundamental rights, implicitly gives the Supreme Court the power of judicial review. Hence, statement 2 is INCORRECT.

The doctrine of judicial review originated and developed in the USA. It was propounded for the first time in the famous case of Marbury V. Madison (1803) by John Marshall, the then chief justice of the American Supreme Court. Thus, the concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the constitution of the USA. Hence, statement 3 is INCORRECT.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

The removal of judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts is extremely difficult. A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. A motion containing the charges against the judge must be approved by special majority in both Houses of the Parliament. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression, or armed rebellion. 
• The National Emergency was not declared during the Kargil War of 1999. 
• The last emergency in India was declared on 25th June 1975- 21st March 1977, since then no emergency has been imposed in India. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• In India, only three times national emergency was proclaimed. They are:

• The 1st proclamation of emergency was during the China attack on India (October 1962- January 1968). President announced this emergency on the grounds of Article 352’s external aggression. 
• The 2nd proclamation of emergency was during the Pakistan attack on India- on 3rd December 1971. 
• The 3rd Proclamation of Emergency was from 25th June 1975 to 21st March 1977 (on the ground of internal disturbance). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

• The two emergencies were imposed because of external aggression and war but the third emergency on 25 Jun 1975 – 21 Mar 1977 by President Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (during the Indira Gandhi government) was on the ground of internal disturbances. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Delimitation means the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body. The job of delimitation is assigned to a high-power body which is known as the Delimitation Commission or a Boundary Commission. 
• The copies of its orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly concerned, but no modifications are permissible therein by them. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Delimitation Commission in India is a high-power body whose orders have the force of law and cannot be called into question before any court. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• These orders come into force on a date to be specified by the President of India on this behalf. 

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The provisions of emergency were not included in the Constitution to prevent maladministration or corruption in the country but it was included to prevent the breakdown of constitutional machinery. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The rationale behind the inclusion of emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution was to safeguard the sovereignty, unity, integrity, and security of the country, the democratic political system, and the Constitution itself. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• It allows the centre to assume wide powers to handle special situations. In an emergency, the centre can take full legislative and executive control of any state. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
• It also allows the centre to curtail or suspend the freedom of the citizens if need be. 

It was included to prevent internal subversion when the government is deliberately acting against the constitution. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Article 360 empowers the president to proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is satisfied that a situation has arisen due to which the financial stability or credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. 
• Financial Emergency has not been declared in India since its independence in 1947. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
• India faced a short-term financial crisis that affected the Indian stock market in 2008, commonly known as the “Great Recession”. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
• India did not suffer much on account of the financial crisis due to the absence of full capital account convertibility, a strict check on short-term foreign borrowings, and its relative disconnect with foreign banks.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The 104th Constitutional Amendment Act has amended Article 334 to cease the nomination of Anglo-Indians in the Lok Sabha and the state legislative assemblies and has extended the reservation of seats for the SC/ST community. The amendment came into effect on January 25, 2020. Hence, option d is correct.
• Article 334 has laid down provisions for reserving the seats for SCs and STs and nomination of Anglo-Indians to Lok Sabha and state Assemblies, which shall cease to be in effect on 25 January 2020, if not extended further. 

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• A person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court should have the following qualifications:  
  • He should be a citizen of India. 
  • He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years; OR
  • He should have been an advocate of a High Court (or High Courts in succession) for ten years; OR
  • He should be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the president. 

Hence, it is clear that the Constitution has not prescribed a minimum age for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court. Hence Statement 1 is correct.

• The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined from time to time by the Parliament. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• The Constitution has not fixed the tenure of a judge of the Supreme Court. However, he holds office until he attains the age of 65 years. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Article 143 authorises the President to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in matters mentioned in the Constitution.  Under Article 143, the President can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court in the two categories of matters:  On any question of law or fact of public importance which has arisen or which is likely to arise and, on any dispute arising out of any pre-constitution treaty, agreement, covenant, engagement, sanad or other similar instruments. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• In the first case, the Supreme Court may tender or may refuse to tender its opinion to the President. Only, in the second case, the Supreme Court ‘must’ tender its opinion to the President.  Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
• In both the cases, the opinion expressed by the Supreme Court is only advisory and not a judicial pronouncement. Hence, it is not binding on the President; he may follow or may not follow the opinion. However, it facilitates the government to have an authoritative legal opinion on a matter to be decided by it.  Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The President can issue the removal order of a Judge only after an address by Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal. The address must be supported by a special majority (and not absolute majority) of each House of Parliament (i.e., a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting).  Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Constitution mentions the grounds of removal of a judge of the Supreme Court which are two–proved misbehaviour or incapacity.  Hence Statement 2 is correct.

The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court by the process of impeachment. A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/ Chairman. The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers and servants of the Supreme Court without any interference from the executive. He can also prescribe their conditions of service.  Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff as well as all the administrative expenses of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. Thus, they are non-votable by the Parliament.  Hence Statement 2 is correct.
• The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the Supreme Court are determined from time to time by the Parliament. They cannot be changed to their disadvantage after their appointment except during a financial emergency. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court. The Constitution has guaranteed to the Supreme Court, jurisdiction of various kinds. However, the Parliament can extend the same.  Hence Statement 4 is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• In 1981, the “First Judges Case” ruled that the process of consultation with the Chief Justice of India and other judges by the President under Article 124 did not mean concurrence. Based on this judgement, the President is not bound by CJI’s advice. Hence Pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
• In 1993, the “Second Judges Case” overturned this decision and introduced the collegium system, arguing that “consultation” required “concurrence.”  CJI’s advice is binding. Further CJI is required to formulate its advice based on a collegium of judges consisting of CJI and two senior-most SC judges. Hence Pair 2 is incorrectly matched.
• In Third Judges case (1998), the Court opined that the consultation process to be adopted by the Chief justice of India requires ‘consultation of plurality judges. The sole opinion of the chief justice of India does not constitute the consultation process. He should consult a collegium of four seniormost judges of the Supreme Court and even if two judges give an adverse opinion, he should not send the recommendation to the government. Hence Pair 3 is correctly matched.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Judicial review means the power of the judiciary to review the actions of the executive and the legislature. The concepts of judicial review and judicial activism originated in the USA. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Judicial review is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution. However, the Constitution itself confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary. For example, Article 13 where Supreme Court can declare a law null and void if it violates the Fundamental Rights. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Judicial review has been held as a part of the basic structure. In India, Nehru Gandhi Case (1975), Minerva Mills case (1980), S.P. Sampath Kumar Case (1987), S.R. Bommai case (1994), I.R. Coelho case (2007) and in many other cases, judicial review has been considered as a basic feature of the Indian Constitution. Hence Statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Public interest Litigation (PIL) is a litigation filed in a court of law, for the protection of “Public Interest. Public Interest Litigation is the power given to the public by courts through judicial activism. In India, the PIL is a product of the judicial activism role of the Supreme Court. It was introduced in the early 1980s. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
•  PIL can be filed in both Supreme Court as well as High courts.  They can be filed in the Supreme Court and high courts by invoking their writ jurisdiction under Article 32 (right to move the Supreme Court) and Article 226 (power of high courts to issue writs) respectively. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
• The Courts can itself take cognizance of the matter and register Suo motu PIL. Hence Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Courts in special situations may appoint a Commission or other bodies for the purpose of investigating into the allegations and finding out facts for the PIL. Hence Statement 4 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Under Article 136, the Supreme Court is authorised to grant in its discretion special leave to appeal from any judgement in any matter passed by any court or tribunal in the country (except military tribunal and court martial). However, it is a discretionary power of Supreme Court and hence, cannot be claimed as a matter of right. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• This special leave of appeal can be granted against any court or tribunal and not necessarily against a high court, but except a military court.  Hence Statement 2  is incorrect.

It can be granted in any judgement whether final or interlocutory.  Hence Statement 3  is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Judicial review is the power of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to examine the constitutionality of the Acts of the Parliament and the State Legislatures and executive orders both of the Union and the State Governments. The scope of judicial review in India is narrower than that of what exists in USA. Hence Statement I is correct.
• The scope of judicial review power of the Supreme Court in India is narrower than that of what exists in US. This is because the American Constitution provides for ‘due process of law’ against that of ‘procedure established by law’ contained in the Indian Constitution (Article 21). The due process of law gives wide scope to a Supreme Court to grant protection to the rights of its citizens. It can declare laws violative of these rights void not only on substantive grounds of being unlawful, but also on procedural grounds of being unreasonable. On the other hand, under ‘Procedure established by Law’, a Supreme Court examines only the substantive question i.e., whether the law is within the powers of the authority concerned or not. It is not expected to go into the question of its reasonableness, suitability or policy implications. Hence Statement II is correct and is the correct explanation of Statement-I.

Solution (b)

Context:

• According to a report by the Central Groundwater Board (CGWB), there are 440 districts in India with excessive nitrates in their groundwater as of 2023, an increase from 359 such districts in 2017. In this context, a question can be asked about the board by UPSC.

Explanation:

• • Central Groundwater Board (CGWB) is a multi-disciplinary scientific organization of the Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation, Ministry of Jal Shakti, Government of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• CGWB is the National Apex Agency entrusted with the responsibilities of providing scientific inputs for management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation, and regulation of groundwater resources of the country. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

CGWB is a multi-disciplinary scientific organization consisting of Hydrogeologists, Geophysicists, Chemists, Hydrologists, Hydrometeorologists, and Engineers. The Board is headed by the Chairman and has five members. Its headquarter is located in Faridabad, Haryana. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• A four-day faunal survey conducted at the Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary has added significant findings to the sanctuary’s biodiversity records. In this context, a question can be asked about the sanctuary by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the southern part of the Western Ghats in the Kollam district of Kerala. The vegetation primarily consists of tropical evergreen forests, semi-evergreen forests, and moist deciduous forests. And, the notable mammals include elephants, tigers, leopards, gaurs (Indian bison), sambar deer, barking deer, wild boars, and bonnet macaques. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• It spans an area of approximately 172 sq. km. and forms part of the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve. Most of the Sanctuary area is hilly and interspersed with ravines. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

The name “Shendurney” is derived from the name of a tree species, Gluta travancorica, locally known as ‘Chenkurunji’, which is endemic to this region and found in abundance within the sanctuary. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The Union Cabinet recently approved the extension of the One-time Special Package for Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP) beyond the existing Nutrient Based Subsidy (NBS) scheme. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the DAP.

Explanation:

• Di-Ammonium Phosphate (DAP) is one of the most widely used fertilizers globally, providing essential nutrients—nitrogen (N) and phosphorus (P)—for plant growth. It is highly soluble and thus dissolves quickly in soil to release plant-available phosphate and ammonium. Hence, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

It is the second most commonly used fertilizer in India after urea. It is high in phosphorus (P) that stimulates root establishment and development-without which plants cannot grow to their normal size or will take too long to mature. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The Tobacco Board of India is a statutory body established on 1st January 1976 by an Act of Parliament “Tobacco Board Act, 1975 (Act 4 of 1975)”. The Board is headed by a Chairman and is responsible for the development of the tobacco industry. It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

• The primary function of the Board is export promotion of all varieties of tobacco and its allied products, its functions extend to production, distribution (for domestic consumption and exports) and regulation of Flue Cured Virginia (FCV) tobacco. It ensures the smooth functioning of the farming system and to ensure fair and remunerative prices for tobacco farmers and the promotion of exports. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• The government recently announced the formation of an 18-member panel headed by NITI Aayog member Ramesh Chand to revise the base year of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and suggest a road map for switching over to the Producer Price Index (PPI). In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about the panel.

Explanation:

• Ramesh Chand Panel was established to revise the base year of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) from 2011-12 to 2022-23. Among its key mandates, the panel will:
  • Propose a revised commodity basket for the WPI and the Producer Price Index (PPI) with the base year 2022-23, considering structural changes in the economy.
  • Review the current system of price collection and recommend improvements.

It will also decide on the computational methodology to be adopted for WPI and PPI. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• The Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation recently fully rolled out the Centralized Pension Payments System (CPPS) under Employees’ Pension Scheme 1995, enhancing the ease of living for millions of pensioners in the country. In this context, a question can be asked by UPSC about EPFO.

Explanation:

• Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) is a statutory body under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Act, 1952. The Act and all its schemes are administered by a tripartite board called the Central Board of Trustees. The board is chaired by the Union Minister of Labour and Employment, Government of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

EPFO is under the administrative control of the Union Ministry of Labor and Employment. It is also the nodal agency for implementing Bilateral Social Security Agreements with other countries on a reciprocal basis. The schemes offered by EPFO cover Indian workers and international workers (from countries with whom the EPFO has signed bilateral agreements). Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, the Union Minister of Commerce & Industry released the “Logistics Ease Across Different States (LEADS) 2024” report, which was conceived on the lines of the Logistics Performance Index of World Bank.

Explanation:

The Logistics Performance Index is an interactive benchmarking tool developed by the World Bank Group. It helps countries identify the challenges and opportunities they face in their performance of trade logistics and what they can do to improve their performance. It measures the ease of establishing reliable supply chain connections and the structural factors that make it possible. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Tripura recorded a milestone in biodiversity documentation with the first-ever recording of the Banded Royal butterfly (Rachana jalindra indra), a rare species, in the state in the Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary (SWL). In this context, a simple question such as location of the SWL can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

Sepahijala Wildlife Sanctuary (SWL) is situated in the state of Tripura, 25 kilometers from the capital, Agartala. It spans an area of approximately 18.53 sq.km. It is divided into five sections, basically to segregate the different types of animals living here. They are the carnivore section, primate section, ungulate section, reptile section, and aviary section. Clouded Leopard National Park, established in 2007, is a part of SWL. Hence, option c is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Recently, residents of Pithampur have expressed strong objection to incineration of 377 Metric Tonnes of harmful Union Carbide waste brought from Bhopal. In this context, a question about incineration can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• Incineration is the process of burning hazardous materials at temperatures high enough to destroy contaminants. It is conducted in an “incinerator,” which is a type of furnace designed for burning hazardous materials in a combustion chamber. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Many different types of hazardous materials can be treated by incineration, including soil, sludge, liquids, and gases. Although it destroys many kinds of harmful chemicals, such as solvents, PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyls), and pesticides, incineration does not destroy metals, such as lead and chromium. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Waste incineration can be a form of waste-to-energy because the heat generated during combustion can be used to create electricity. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has amended the rules governing the selection of experts to the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC). In this context, a question about GEAC can be asked by UPSC.

Explanation:

• It is the statutory committee constituted under the “Rules for the Manufacture, Use/Import/Export and Storage of Hazardous Micro Organisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells (Rules, 1989)” framed under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

It functions in the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change (MoEF&CC). It keeps a check on the use, import, and export of genetically modified (GM) organisms and crops. Clearance of GEAC is mandatory for the environmental release of GM crops. Hence, statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation

The average age of the people whose ages are below 31 years will be maximum if the average age of the people aged 31 years and above is minimum. So, let’s assume that there are 60 people having the same age of 31 years. 

Let x be the maximum possible average age of the people whose ages are below 31 years. So, (31×60 + 30x)/(60 + 30) = 26 

Or 1860 + 30x = 26×90 

Or 30x = 2340 – 1860 

Or 30x = 480 

Or x = 16 

So, option (b) is the correct answer.

Solution (b) 

Explanation

Inference 1 is incorrect: The context of the state and what it should do for cybersecurity is not covered in the passage. Therefore, this inference is beyond the scope of the passage. 

Inference 2 is correct: The given inference is based on the lines “The ethical hacker, or “white hat,” employs the same techniques as malicious hackers but with the goal of identifying and fortifying security weaknesses rather than exploiting them.” These lines show that ethical hackers know everything that malicious hackers know, but they use it for noble objectives. So, essentially, they have the potential to become malicious hackers. Hence, this inference is correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation

Option (a) is incorrect: The passage talks about the paradox of morality and the various reasons behind it. However, this option focuses only on the individual and his established beliefs. So, this option does not reflect the most rational inference. 

Option (b) is correct: The given option captures the essence of the passage, which is the paradox of morality and the reasons behind it. This is seen in the lines “The paradox of morality lies in the intricate tension between universal principles and cultural relativity, … Cultural context moulds moral frameworks, giving rise to situations where actions deemed morally acceptable in one culture may be condemned in another.” And “…..the paradox of morality extends to the internal conflict within individuals. Personal moral convictions may clash with societal norms, creating a complex internal struggle.” So, this option is the most rational inference. 

Option (c) is incorrect: This option differentiates between morality and ethical relativism. However, the central theme of the passage is the paradox of morality and various reasons leading to it. So, this option is not the most rational inference. 

Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is quite vague and is not based on the passage, because the context of critical examination of cultural boundaries is not covered in the passage. So, this option is beyond the scope of the passage. 

Solution (d) 

Explanation

Let 10 years ago the ages of Abhishek and Aishwarya were 5x and 4x. 

So, the present ages of Abhishek and Aishwarya would be (5x + 10) and (4x + 10) respectively. 

According to the question, 

5x + 10 = 4x + 10 + (1/6) × (4x + 10) 

Or 5x = 4x + (1/6) × (4x + 10) 

Or x = (1/6) × (4x + 10) 

Or 6x = (4x + 10) 

Or 2x = 10 

Or x = 5 

So, Present age of Abhishek = 5x + 10 = 5×5 + 10 = 25 + 10 = 35 years 

Present age of Aishwarya = 4x + 10 = 4×5 + 10 = 20 + 10 = 30 years The total present age of the family = 35 + 30 + (9×3) + (6×2) + 3 = 107 years Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Solution (d) 

Explanation

The given sequence: wx_ivQhw_giVqhWx_ _vqH   

We can break this sequence in three sets of 7 elements each. We can see that every third letter is a capital letter.  

The complete sequence is: wxGivQh/wXgiVqh/WxgIvqH. Hence, option (d) is correct.